Download Test bank module 3 4 5 6 11 12

Name: __________________________ Date: _____________
1. Phrenology highlighted the presumed functions of:
A) specific brain regions.
B) synaptic gaps.
C) endorphins.
D) the myelin sheath.
2. The person most likely to suggest that the shape of a person's skull indicates the extent
to which that individual is argumentative and aggressive would be a:
A) neurologist.
B) behavior geneticist.
C) psychoanalyst.
D) phrenologist.
3. Dr. Wolski does research on the potential relationship between neurotransmitter
deficiencies and mood states. Which psychological specialty does Dr. Wolski's research
best represent?
A) phrenology
B) biological psychology
C) psychoanalysis
D) social psychology
4. A biological psychologist would be most interested in conducting research on the
relationship between:
A) neurotransmitters and depression.
B) skull shape and character traits.
C) self-esteem and popularity.
D) genetics and eye color.
5. Dendrites are branching extensions of:
A) stem cells.
B) endorphins.
C) neurons.
D) endocrine glands.
6. The function of dendrites is to:
A) receive incoming signals from other neurons.
B) release neurotransmitters into the spatial junctions between neurons.
C) coordinate the activation of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) control pain through the release of opiatelike chemicals into the brain.
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7. An axon is:
A) a cell that serves as the basic building block of the nervous system.
B) a layer of fatty tissue that encases the fibers of many neurons.
C) an antagonist molecule that blocks neurotransmitter receptor sites.
D) the extension of a neuron that carries messages away from the cell body.
8. The longest part of a motor neuron is likely to be the:
A) dendrite.
B) axon.
C) cell body.
D) synapse.
9. In transmitting sensory information to the brain, an electrical signal travels from the
________ of a single neuron.
A) dendrites to the axon to the cell body
B) axon to the cell body to the dendrites
C) dendrites to the cell body to the axon
D) axon to the dendrites to the cell body
10. A brief electrical charge that travels down the axon of a neuron is called the:
A) synapse.
B) agonist.
C) action potential.
D) refractory period.
11. The speed at which a neural impulse travels is increased when the axon is encased by
a(n):
A) association area.
B) myelin sheath.
C) stem cell.
D) synaptic vesicle.
12. The minimum level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse is called the:
A) reflex.
B) threshold.
C) synapse.
D) action potential.
13. Increasing excitatory signals above the threshold for neural activation will not affect the
intensity of an action potential. This indicates that a neuron's reaction is:
A) inhibited by the myelin sheath.
B) delayed by a simple reflex.
C) an all-or-none response.
D) dependent on neurotransmitter molecules.
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14. A slap on the back is more painful than a pat on the back because a slap triggers:
A) the release of endorphins.
B) more intense neural impulses.
C) the release of GABA.
D) more frequent neural impulses.
15. Sir Charles Sherrington observed that impulses took more time to travel a neural
pathway than he might have anticipated. His observation provided evidence for the
existence of:
A) thresholds.
B) synaptic gaps.
C) interneurons.
D) neural networks.
16. A synapse is a(n):
A) chemical messenger that triggers muscle contractions.
B) automatic response to sensory input.
C) junction between a sending neuron and a receiving neuron.
D) neural cable containing many axons.
17. The chemical messengers released into the spatial junctions between neurons are called:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) synapses.
D) genes.
18. Neurotransmitters are released from vesicles located on knoblike terminals at the end of
the:
A) dendrites.
B) cell body.
C) axon.
D) myelin sheath.
19. Reuptake refers to the:
A) movement of neurotransmitter molecules across a synaptic gap.
B) release of hormones into the bloodstream.
C) inflow of electrically charged atoms through an axon membrane.
D) reabsorption of excess neurotransmitter molecules by a sending neuron.
20. Transferring messages from a motor neuron to a leg muscle requires the
neurotransmitter known as:
A) dopamine.
B) epinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) insulin.
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21. Endorphins are:
A) neurotransmitters.
B) sex hormones.
C) endocrine glands.
D) morphine antagonists.
22. Opiate drugs occupy the same receptor sites as:
A) serotonin.
B) endorphins.
C) dopamine.
D) epinephrine.
23. José has just played a long, bruising football game but feels little fatigue or discomfort.
His lack of pain is most likely caused by the release of:
A) glutamate.
B) dopamine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) endorphins.
24. Alzheimer's disease is most closely linked to the deterioration of neurons that produce:
A) dopamine.
B) acetylcholine.
C) epinephrine.
D) endorphins.
25. Schizophrenia is most closely linked with excess receptor activity for the
neurotransmitter:
A) dopamine.
B) epinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.
26. An undersupply of serotonin is most closely linked to:
A) Alzheimer's disease.
B) schizophrenia.
C) Parkinson's disease.
D) depression.
27. An undersupply of the major inhibitory neurotransmitter known as ________ is linked
to seizures.
A) glutamate
B) GABA
C) serotonin
D) ACh
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28. Migraine headaches are most closely linked with an:
A) oversupply of GABA.
B) undersupply of serotonin.
C) oversupply of glutamate.
D) undersupply of acetylcholine.
29. The body's natural production of endorphins is likely to be:
A) increased by heroin use and increased by vigorous exercise.
B) decreased by heroin use and decreased by vigorous exercise.
C) increased by heroin use and decreased by vigorous exercise.
D) decreased by heroin use and increased by vigorous exercise.
30. Jason's painful withdrawal symptoms following heroin use were probably due in part to
a reduction in his body's normal production of:
A) dopamine.
B) epinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) endorphins.
31. A drug that mimics the effects of a particular neurotransmitter or blocks its reuptake is
called a(n):
A) glutamate.
B) steroid.
C) agonist.
D) opiate.
32. Endorphin agonists are likely to _______ one's immediate pain, and endorphin
antagonists are likely to _______ one's immediate pain.
A) decrease; increase
B) increase; decrease
C) increase; increase
D) decrease; decrease
33. Botulin poisoning from improperly canned food causes paralysis by blocking the release
of:
A) endorphins.
B) epinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) dopamine.
34. Curare is a paralyzing poison that functions as a(n):
A) ACh agonist.
B) GABA agonist.
C) ACh antagonist.
D) GABA antagonist.
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35. Dopamine injections have proven ineffective in the treatment of Parkinson's disease
because dopamine:
A) fails to pass through the bloodstream into the brain.
B) suppresses the brain's natural capacity to produce endorphins.
C) blocks the capacity of neurons to absorb ACh.
D) produces uncontrollable muscle spasms.
36. The central nervous system consists of:
A) sensory and motor neurons.
B) somatic and autonomic subsystems.
C) the brain and the spinal cord.
D) sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.
37. The two major divisions of the nervous system are the central nervous system and the
________ nervous system.
A) autonomic
B) sympathetic
C) somatic
D) peripheral
38. In order for you to experience the pain of a sprained ankle, ________ must first relay
messages from your ankle to your central nervous system.
A) antagonists
B) interneurons
C) motor neurons
D) sensory neurons
39. Sensory neurons are located in the:
A) spinal cord.
B) central nervous system.
C) peripheral nervous system.
D) adrenal glands.
40. The vast majority of neurons in the body's information-processing system are:
A) stem cells.
B) interneurons.
C) motor neurons.
D) sensory neurons.
41. Information is carried from the central nervous system to the body's tissues by:
A) interneurons.
B) sensory neurons.
C) motor neurons.
D) the limbic system.
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42. Motor neurons transmit signals to:
A) glands.
B) interneurons.
C) sensory neurons.
D) all of these answers.
43. Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to muscles in your hands by the
________ nervous system.
A) peripheral
B) parasympathetic
C) sympathetic
D) autonomic
44. The peripheral nervous system is to sensory neurons as the central nervous system is to:
A) motor neurons.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) interneurons.
D) the sympathetic nervous system.
45. The somatic nervous system is a component of the ________ nervous system.
A) peripheral
B) central
C) sympathetic
D) parasympathetic
46. The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls glandular activity and the
muscles of internal organs is called the:
A) somatic nervous system.
B) endocrine system.
C) synaptic cleft.
D) autonomic nervous system.
47. Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to your heart muscles by the:
A) endocrine system.
B) somatic nervous system.
C) central nervous system.
D) autonomic nervous system.
48. The parasympathetic nervous system:
A) stimulates digestion and slows heartbeat.
B) inhibits digestion and accelerates heartbeat.
C) stimulates digestion and accelerates heartbeat.
D) inhibits digestion and slows heartbeat.
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49. You come home one night to find a burglar in your house. Your heart starts racing and
you begin to perspire. These physical reactions are triggered by the:
A) somatic nervous system.
B) sympathetic nervous system.
C) parasympathetic nervous system.
D) hypothalamus.
50. After discovering that the shadows outside his window were only the trees in the yard,
Ralph's blood pressure decreased and his heartbeat slowed. These physical reactions
were most directly regulated by his:
A) parasympathetic nervous system.
B) sympathetic nervous system.
C) somatic nervous system.
D) myelin system.
51. An accelerated heartbeat is to a slowed heartbeat as the ________ nervous system is to
the ________ nervous system.
A) somatic; autonomic
B) autonomic; somatic
C) sympathetic; parasympathetic
D) parasympathetic; sympathetic
52. Neural networks
A) the branching extensions of a neuron.
B) interconnected clusters of neurons in the central nervous system.
C) neural cables containing many axons.
D) junctions between sending and receiving neurons.
53. A simple, automatic, inborn response to a sensory stimulus is called a(n):
A) neural network.
B) action potential.
C) neurotransmitter.
D) reflex.
54. The knee-jerk reflex is controlled by interneurons in the:
A) hypothalamus.
B) spinal cord.
C) brain.
D) adrenal glands.
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55. In a tragic diving accident, Andrew damaged his spinal cord and consequently suffered
paralysis of his legs. Andrew's injury was located in his:
A) somatic nervous system.
B) parasympathetic nervous system.
C) sympathetic nervous system.
D) central nervous system.
56. Aaron consistently exhibits a knee-jerk response without having any sensations of the
taps on his knees. Aaron's experience is most indicative of a:
A) neural network.
B) severed spinal cord.
C) threshold.
D) blocked ACh transmission.
57. Hormones are the chemical messengers of the:
A) autonomic nervous system.
B) endocrine system.
C) somatic nervous system.
D) neural networks.
58. Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into:
A) synaptic gaps.
B) the bloodstream.
C) interneurons.
D) sensory neurons.
59. The ovaries in females and the testes in males are part of the:
A) parasympathetic nervous system.
B) endocrine system.
C) sympathetic nervous system.
D) central nervous system.
60. If a professor accused you of cheating on a test, your adrenal glands would probably
release ________ into your bloodstream.
A) endorphins
B) acetylcholine
C) epinephrine
D) insulin
61. The master gland of the endocrine system is the:
A) thyroid gland.
B) adrenal gland.
C) pituitary gland.
D) pancreas.
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62. At the age of 22, Mrs. LaBlanc was less than 4 feet tall. Her short stature was probably
influenced by the lack of a growth hormone produced by the:
A) pancreas.
B) thyroid.
C) adrenal gland.
D) pituitary gland.
63. The part of the brainstem that controls heartbeat and breathing is called the:
A) cerebellum.
B) medulla.
C) amygdala.
D) thalamus.
64. If your ________ is destroyed, the left side of your brain could not control the
movements of your right hand.
A) brainstem
B) hippocampus
C) angular gyrus
D) corpus callosum
65. Which brain structure receives information from all the senses except smell?
A) hippocampus
B) amygdala
C) angular gyrus
D) thalamus
66. Which brain structure relays information from the eyes to the visual cortex?
A) thalamus
B) amygdala
C) medulla
D) cerebellum
67. The reticular formation is located in the:
A) brainstem.
B) limbic system.
C) sensory cortex.
D) cerebellum.
68. Severing a cat's reticular formation from higher brain regions causes the cat to:
A) become violently aggressive.
B) cower in fear.
C) experience convulsive seizures.
D) lapse into a coma.
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69. Which region of your brainstem plays a role in arousing you to a state of alertness when
someone nearby mentions your name?
A) reticular formation
B) cerebellum
C) amygdala
D) medulla
70. The “little brain” attached to the rear of the brainstem is called the:
A) limbic system.
B) corpus callosum.
C) cerebellum.
D) reticular formation.
71. After Kato's serious motorcycle accident, doctors detected damage to his cerebellum.
Kato is most likely to have difficulty:
A) reading printed words.
B) discriminating colors.
C) tasting the flavors of foods.
D) playing his guitar.
72. Surgical destruction of brain tissue is called a(n):
A) EEG.
B) synapse.
C) lesion.
D) MRI.
73. An amplified recording of the waves of electrical activity that sweep across the surface
of the brain is called a(n):
A) fMRI.
B) EEG.
C) PET scan.
D) MRI.
74. In order to identify which of Lucy's brain areas was most active when she talked,
neuroscientists gave her a temporarily radioactive form of glucose and a(n):
A) hemispherectomy.
B) PET scan.
C) EEG.
D) MRI scan.
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75. The best way to detect enlarged fluid-filled brain regions in some patients who have
schizophrenia is to use a(n):
A) EEG.
B) MRI.
C) PET scan.
D) brain lesion.
76. To identify which specific brain areas are most active during a particular mental task,
researchers would be most likely to make use of a(n):
A) fMRI.
B) hemispherectomy.
C) ACh agonist.
D) brain lesion.
77. A doughnut-shaped system of neural structures at the border of the brainstem and the
cerebral hemispheres is known as the:
A) angular gyrus.
B) limbic system.
C) reticular formation.
D) Broca's area.
78. Which of the following is the component of the limbic system that plays an essential
role in the formation of new memories?
A) hypothalamus
B) thalamus
C) hippocampus
D) medulla
79. To demonstrate that brain stimulation can make a rat violently aggressive, a
neuroscientist should electrically stimulate the rat's:
A) reticular formation.
B) cerebellum.
C) medulla.
D) amygdala.
80. A brain tumor caused extensive damage to Mr. Thorndike's hypothalamus. It is most
likely that he may suffer a loss of:
A) visual perception.
B) muscular coordination.
C) sexual motivation.
D) language comprehension.
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81. The brain structure that provides a major link between the nervous system and the
endocrine system is the:
A) cerebellum.
B) amygdala.
C) reticular formation.
D) hypothalamus.
82. Olds and Milner located reward centers in the brain structure known as the:
A) hypothalamus.
B) cerebellum.
C) medulla.
D) amygdala.
83. Addictive drug cravings are likely to be associated with reward centers in the:
A) thalamus.
B) cerebellum.
C) reticular formation.
D) limbic system.
84. Your conscious awareness of your own name and self-identity depends primarily on the
normal functioning of your:
A) cerebellum.
B) amygdala.
C) hypothalamus.
D) cerebral cortex.
85. Which lobes of the brain receive the input that enables you to feel someone scratching
your back?
A) parietal
B) temporal
C) occipital
D) frontal
86. The surgical removal of a large tumor from Dane's occipital lobe resulted in extensive
loss of brain tissue. Dane is most likely to suffer some loss of:
A) muscular coordination.
B) visual perception.
C) speaking ability.
D) pain sensations.
87. Auditory stimulation is first processed in the ________ lobes.
A) occipital
B) temporal
C) frontal
D) parietal
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88. The occipital lobes are to ________ as the temporal lobes are to ________.
A) hearing; sensing movement
B) seeing; sensing touch
C) seeing; hearing
D) speaking; hearing
89. The sense of hearing is to the ________ lobes as the sense of touch is to the ________
lobes.
A) frontal; occipital
B) temporal; parietal
C) parietal; temporal
D) occipital; frontal
90. The motor cortex is located in the ________ lobes.
A) occipital
B) temporal
C) frontal
D) parietal
91. A laboratory cat could be made to twitch its whiskers by direct stimulation of the
________ lobes of its cerebral cortex.
A) temporal
B) occipital
C) frontal
D) parietal
92. Which of the following body parts is associated with the greatest amount of brain tissue
in the motor cortex?
A) arms
B) face
C) trunk
D) knees
93. In a clinical trial of neural prosthetics with paralyzed humans, a 25-year-old man
constructed shapes on a computer screen by activating neurons in his:
A) sensory cortex.
B) angular gyrus.
C) motor cortex.
D) amygdala.
94. The sensory cortex is most critical for our sense of:
A) sight.
B) hearing.
C) touch.
D) smell.
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95. Which part of your brain receives information as to whether you are moving your legs?
A) limbic system
B) motor cortex
C) sensory cortex
D) Broca's area
96. The experience of auditory hallucinations by people with schizophrenia is most closely
linked with the activation of areas in their:
A) motor cortex.
B) angular gyrus.
C) temporal lobes.
D) hypothalamus.
97. The association areas are located in the:
A) brainstem.
B) thalamus.
C) limbic system.
D) cerebral cortex.
98. The most extensive regions of the brain, which enable learning and memory, are called
the:
A) reticular formation.
B) medulla.
C) cerebellum.
D) association areas.
99. After he suffered a stroke, Mr. Santore's physical coordination skills and responsiveness
to sensory stimulation quickly returned to normal. Unfortunately, however, he began to
experience unusual difficulty figuring out how to find his way to various locations in his
neighborhood. It is most likely that Mr. Santore suffered damage to his:
A) cerebellum.
B) thalamus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) association areas.
100. The process of anticipating that you will be punished for misbehaving takes place in the:
A) sensory cortex.
B) reticular formation.
C) association areas.
D) sympathetic nervous system.
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101. The inability to recognize familiar faces even though one can clearly see and describe
features of the faces is associated with damage to the right ________ lobe.
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) occipital
D) temporal
102. An impaired use of language is known as:
A) tomography.
B) plasticity.
C) lateralization.
D) aphasia.
103. The part of the cerebral cortex that directs the muscle movements involved in speech is
known as:
A) Wernicke's area.
B) Broca's area.
C) the angular gyrus.
D) the reticular formation.
104. After Miguel's recent automobile accident, doctors detected damage to his cerebral
cortex in Broca's area. It is likely that Miguel will have difficulty:
A) remembering past events.
B) speaking fluently.
C) reading.
D) understanding other people when they speak.
105. Wernicke's area is typically located in the left ________ lobe.
A) parietal
B) occipital
C) temporal
D) frontal
106. After Paul's serious snow-skiing accident, doctors detected damage to his cerebral
cortex in Wernicke's area. Because of the damage, Paul is most likely to experience
difficulty in:
A) remembering past events.
B) pronouncing words correctly.
C) understanding what others are saying.
D) recognizing familiar faces.
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107. After suffering a head injury in an auto accident, Louis lost his ability to read, even
though he could see well, speak fluently, and understand what others are saying. It is
likely that his cortex was damaged in:
A) the angular gyrus.
B) Wernicke's area.
C) the frontal lobe.
D) Broca's area.
108. A football quarterback can simultaneously make calculations of receiver distances,
player movements, and gravitational forces. This best illustrates the activity of multiple:
A) aphasias.
B) parietal lobes.
C) neural networks.
D) reticular formations.
109. The capacity of one brain area to take over the functions of another damaged brain area
is known as brain:
A) tomography.
B) lateralization.
C) aphasia.
D) plasticity.
110. The visual cortex is activated when blind people read Braille. This best illustrates:
A) plasticity.
B) aphasia.
C) hemispherectomy.
D) lateralization.
111. The benefits of brain plasticity are most clearly demonstrated in:
A) children who have had a cerebral hemisphere surgically removed.
B) people paralyzed by a severed spinal cord.
C) individuals with Alzheimer's disease.
D) adults with aphasia.
112. A person whose hand had been amputated actually felt sensations on his nonexistent
fingers when his arm was stroked. This best illustrates the consequences of:
A) tomography.
B) brain plasticity.
C) lateralization.
D) aphasia.
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113. Damage to the left cerebral hemisphere is most likely to reduce people's ability to:
A) solve arithmetic problems.
B) copy drawings.
C) recognize faces.
D) recognize familiar melodies.
114. The corpus callosum is a wide band of axon fibers that:
A) enables the left hemisphere to control the right side of the body.
B) transmits information between the cerebral hemispheres.
C) controls the glands and muscles of the internal organs.
D) directs the muscle movements involved in speech.
115. Neurosurgeons have severed the corpus callosum in human patients in order to reduce:
A) aphasia.
B) epileptic seizures.
C) neural plasticity.
D) reward deficiency syndrome.
116. If a picture of a comb is briefly flashed in the left visual field of a right-handed
splitbrain patient, she would most likely be able to:
A) use her left hand to draw a picture of the comb.
B) use her right hand to draw a picture of the comb.
C) orally report what she saw.
D) use her right hand to write the word “comb.”
117. Deaf people who use sign language typically:
A) demonstrate greater mathematical competence than hearing persons.
B) process language in their left cerebral hemisphere.
C) recognize facial expressions of emotion with their left rather than their right
cerebral hemisphere.
D) have a smaller corpus callosum than hearing persons.
118. The ability to recognize faces with the right hemisphere but not with the left hemisphere
best illustrates:
A) aphasia.
B) neural plasticity.
C) lateralization.
D) Parkinson's disease.
119. In a recent car accident, Tamiko sustained damage to his right cerebral hemisphere. This
injury is most likely to reduce Tamiko's ability to:
A) facially express emotions.
B) solve arithmetic problems.
C) understand simple verbal requests.
D) correctly pronounce familiar words.
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120. At about eight months of age, people across the world start to ________ strangers; as
adults they prefer the company of those whose attributes are ________ to their own.
A) fear; similar
B) enjoy; different
C) fear; different
D) enjoy; similar
121. The impact of our cultural backgrounds on the development of our personal values best
illustrates the influence of:
A) temperament.
B) natural selection.
C) mutation.
D) the environment.
122. The study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on
behavior and personality traits is known as:
A) the hormone genome.
B) evolutionary psychology.
C) behavior genetics.
D) natural selection.
123. A behavior geneticist would be most interested in studying hereditary influences on:
A) skin color.
B) sexual anatomy.
C) physical attractiveness.
D) personality traits.
124. A human sperm cell contains:
A) 23 chromosomes.
B) 23 genes.
C) 46 chromosomes.
D) 46 genes.
125. Chromosomes are contained within:
A) brain cells.
B) sperm cells.
C) blood cells.
D) all of these answers.
126. DNA is a complex:
A) sex hormone.
B) genome.
C) molecule.
D) synapse.
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127. A segment of DNA capable of synthesizing a specific protein is called a:
A) gene.
B) nucleus.
C) chromosome.
D) neurotransmitter.
128. The genome is the complete:
A) collection of sexual characteristics regulated by the male and female chromosomes.
B) range of traits that contribute to reproductive success.
C) set of genetic material in an organism's chromosomes.
D) cascade of interactions between genetic predispositions and surrounding
environments.
129. Identical twins originate from the fertilization of:
A) a single egg cell by a single sperm cell.
B) two egg cells by a single sperm cell.
C) a single egg cell by two sperm cells.
D) two egg cells by two sperm cells.
130. Twin studies suggest that Alzheimer's disease is influenced by:
A) environment.
B) gender.
C) heredity.
D) temperament.
131. Compared to identical twins, fraternal twins are ________ similar in neuroticism and
________ similar in extraversion.
A) more; less
B) less; more
C) more; more
D) less; less
132. Compared to fraternal twins, identical twins are much more similar in:
A) extraversion.
B) neuroticism.
C) temperament.
D) all of these answers.
133. Environmental influences on personality traits are most clearly highlighted by
comparing:
A) identical twins raised apart with fraternal twins raised apart.
B) identical twins raised together with fraternal twins raised together.
C) identical twins raised apart with fraternal twins raised together.
D) identical twins raised together with identical twins raised apart.
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134. Although identical twins have been shown to have some amazing psychological
similarities, one should be cautious about attributing these similarities to genetic factors
because:
A) the twins may have been raised in completely different environments.
B) genetic factors influence physical, not psychological, characteristics.
C) any two strangers are likely to share a string of coincidental similarities.
D) many fraternal twins have been shown to be psychologically different from each
other.
135. The personalities of adopted children:
A) are very similar to the personalities of the other children in their adoptive families.
B) are very similar to the personalities of their biologically related siblings.
C) are not very similar to the personalities of their adoptive parents.
D) are more similar to the personalities of their caregiving adoptive parents than to the
personalities of their biological parents.
136. The home environment most clearly has a greater influence on children's ________ than
on their ________.
A) temperament; political attitudes
B) extraversion; table manners
C) religious beliefs; personality traits
D) gender identity; gender schemas
137. Research most clearly suggests that personality traits are more strongly influenced by:
A) genes than by home environment.
B) home environment than by genes.
C) genes than by peers.
D) home environments than by peers.
138. An infant's temperament refers most directly to its:
A) ability to learn.
B) social connectedness.
C) emotional excitability.
D) physical health.
139. Pat is normally very restless and fidgety, whereas Shelley is usually quiet and
easygoing. The two children most clearly differ in:
A) sex chromosomes.
B) gender.
C) temperament.
D) adaptability.
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140. Level: Difficult babies with an intense and highly reactive temperament tend to be:
A) intelligent and imaginative.
B) irritable and unpredictable.
C) fearless and assertive.
D) extraverted and cheerful.
141. A child's temperament is likely to be:
A) difficult to observe.
B) stable over time.
C) a product of parenting style.
D) a reflection of his or her gender.
142. Who are likely to show the greatest similarity in temperament?
A) Ruth and Ramona, identical twins
B) Philip and Paul, fraternal twins
C) Larry and Laura, brother and sister
D) Vincent Sr. and Vincent Jr., father and son
143. An African butterfly that is green in the summer turns brown in the fall thanks to a
temperature-controlled genetic switch. This best illustrates that genes are:
A) mutations.
B) self-regulating.
C) gender specific.
D) protein molecules.
144. The unique temperaments of children evoke predictable responses from their caregivers.
This best illustrates the ________ of nature and nurture.
A) evolution
B) interaction
C) mutation
D) independence
145. People have always responded so positively to Alyssa's good looks that she has
developed a socially confident and outgoing personality. This best illustrates the:
A) commonality of gender identity and temperament.
B) complementarity of gender concepts and social roles.
C) interaction of nature and nurture.
D) reciprocal influence of norms and roles.
146. Evolutionary psychology studies the evolution of behavior and the mind using
principles of:
A) gender identity.
B) the human genome.
C) temperament.
D) natural selection.
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147. Dmitry Belyaev and Lyudmila Trut successfully domesticated wild foxes by means of:
A) cloning.
B) selective mating.
C) gene splicing.
D) hormone injections.
148. The reproductive advantage enjoyed by organisms best suited to a particular
environment is known as:
A) self-regulation.
B) behavior genetics.
C) natural selection.
D) mutation.
149. Evolutionary psychologists are most likely to emphasize that human adaptiveness to a
variety of different environments has contributed to:
A) cultural diversity.
B) genetic mutations.
C) human cloning.
D) reproductive success.
150. A random error in gene replication is known as a:
A) chromosome.
B) genome.
C) mutation.
D) natural selection.
151. If a genetically based attraction to beautiful people contributes to survival, that trait will
likely be passed on to subsequent generations. This best illustrates:
A) the human genome.
B) natural selection.
C) behavior genetics.
D) mutations.
152. An evolutionary psychologist would suggest that people are genetically predisposed to:
A) fear dangerous animals.
B) eat nourishing foods.
C) seek healthy-looking mates.
D) do all of these answers.
153. According to evolutionary psychologists, behaviors that promote reproductive success
are likely to be:
A) socially prohibited.
B) genetically predisposed.
C) ecologically disruptive.
D) disease-producing.
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154. According to evolutionary psychologists, our predisposition to overconsume fatty junk
foods illustrates that we are biologically prepared to behave in ways that promoted the
________ of our ancestors.
A) gender selections
B) personal space
C) reproductive success
D) neuroticism
155. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to predict that:
A) more people are biologically predisposed to fear guns than to fear snakes.
B) children are more likely to be valued by their biological fathers than by their
stepfathers.
C) people are the most romantically attracted to those who are the most genetically
dissimilar to themselves.
D) genetic predispositions have little effect on our social relationships.
156. Compared with women, men are more likely to:
A) initiate sexual activity.
B) think about sex.
C) make sacrifices to gain sex.
D) do all of these answers.
157. Compared with women, men are ________ likely to feel comfortable about having
casual sex with different partners and ________ likely to cite affection as a reason for
their first sexual intercourse.
A) less; more
B) more; less
C) less; less
D) more; more
158. Professor Assad suggested that a cautious attitude toward sexual encounters has proven
to be more reproductively advantageous to women than to men because the birth
process is time-consuming. This suggestion best illustrates the logic of a(n) ________
theory of sexual behavior.
A) evolutionary
B) social learning
C) Freudian
D) gender
159. Evolutionary psychologists would be most likely to attribute gender differences in
attitudes toward casual sex to the fact that men have ________ than do women.
A) larger bodies
B) stronger gender identity
C) a weak sense of empathy
D) greater reproductive potential
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160. Evolutionary psychologists would be least likely to predict that a:
A) man would be distressed by the death of his child.
B) woman would engage in casual sex with many male partners.
C) woman would prefer to marry a man who is wealthier than herself.
D) man would prefer to marry a woman who is younger looking than himself.
161. Men judge women as especially attractive if:
A) they appear mature, and women judge men as especially attractive if they appear
mature.
B) they appear youthful, and women judge men as especially attractive if they appear
youthful.
C) they appear mature, and women judge men as especially attractive if they appear
youthful.
D) they appear youthful, and women judge men as especially attractive if they appear
mature.
162. Brittla spends a lot of money on cosmetics and expensive clothing in order to attract a
desirable mate. According to evolutionary psychologists, Brittla's behavior is a product
of:
A) her individuality.
B) her culture.
C) gender.
D) genetic predispositions.
163. Critics of evolutionary psychology are most likely to suggest that it:
A) discourages progressive efforts to change common social practices.
B) overestimates the impact of genetic mutations on human personality.
C) underestimates the impact of genetic predispositions on human sexual behavior.
D) underestimates the extent to which similar gender differences are found in all
cultures.
164. Those who defend evolutionary psychology against criticism are most likely to suggest
that evolutionary principles:
A) generate testable predictions.
B) are intended to be descriptive but not explanatory.
C) are more applicable to men than to women.
D) are more applicable to humans than to nonhuman animal species.
165. Compared to environmentally impoverished rats, those rats housed in enriched
environments experienced a dramatic increase in the number of their:
A) genomes.
B) schemas.
C) synapses.
D) sex hormones.
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166. Lacking any exposure to language before adolescence, a person will never master any
language due to the ________ of unemployed neural connections.
A) prematurity
B) stimulation
C) pruning
D) temperament
167. For children from impoverished environments, stimulating educational experiences
during early childhood are most likely to:
A) facilitate the development of collectivism.
B) decrease their emotional attachment to their own parents.
C) have no discernable effect on subsequent academic performance.
D) prevent the degeneration of activated connections between neurons.
168. Children raised in the same family are not especially likely to have similar personalities.
This most clearly implies that we should be cautious about attributing personality to:
A) gender schemas.
B) parental influences.
C) temperament.
D) peer influences.
169. An awareness that children's temperaments influence parents' child-rearing practices
should inhibit our tendency to:
A) emphasize the interaction of nature and nurture.
B) assess the stability of personality traits.
C) blame parents for our own dysfunctional characteristics.
D) identify cultural differences in child-rearing practices.
170. It has been suggested that our sensitivity to peer influence is genetically predisposed
because it has facilitated the process of human mating. This suggestion best illustrates:
A) gender schema theory.
B) collectivism.
C) gender-typing.
D) an evolutionary perspective.
171. Kids choose peers who share their own attitudes and interests as their friends. This best
illustrates:
A) gender-typing.
B) a selection effect.
C) personal space.
D) temperament.
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172. In comparison to parental influence, peer influence is:
A) more likely to affect a child's English accent and more likely to affect a child's
educational success.
B) less likely to affect a child's English accent and less likely to affect a child's
educational success.
C) more likely to affect a child's English accent and less likely to affect a child's
educational success.
D) less likely to affect a child's English accent and more likely to affect a child's
educational success.
173. Cultural diversity best illustrates our:
A) human temperaments.
B) genetic variations.
C) gender identities.
D) adaptive capacities.
174. The preservation of innovation best illustrates the survival value of:
A) culture.
B) gender schemas.
C) individualism.
D) personal space.
175. Those who study cultural influences on behavior are most likely to highlight the
importance of:
A) schemas.
B) temperament.
C) gender identity.
D) norms.
176. Frans avoids talking with food in his mouth because other people think it is crude and
inappropriate. This best illustrates the impact of:
A) individualism.
B) schemas.
C) stereotypes.
D) norms.
177. Personal space refers to:
A) our inner private thoughts and personally subjective feelings about ourselves.
B) the distance we like to maintain between ourselves and other people.
C) the priority we give to our own personal needs over group needs.
D) areas of a home, such as a bedroom, where privacy is important.
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178. Studies indicate that:
A) North Americans prefer more personal space than do Latin Americans.
B) the French prefer more personal space than do the British.
C) Arabs prefer more personal space than do Scandinavians.
D) women prefer more personal space than do men.
179. Compared with northern Europeans, people from Mediterranean cultures are:
A) more likely to be emotionally expressive and more likely to be punctual.
B) less likely to be emotionally expressive and less likely to be punctual.
C) more likely to be emotionally expressive and less likely to be punctual.
D) less likely to be emotionally expressive and more likely to be punctual.
180. Since 1960, most Western cultures have changed with remarkable speed. The least
likely explanation for these variations involves changes in:
A) communication systems.
B) genetic predispositions.
C) scientific knowledge.
D) social norms.
181. Since 1960, Americans have experienced a(n):
A) increase in the incidence of depression and a decrease in work hours.
B) decrease in the incidence of depression and an increase in work hours.
C) increase in the incidence of depression and an increase in work hours.
D) decrease in the incidence of depression and a decrease in work hours.
182. Individualism is to collectivism as ________ is to ________.
A) norm; role
B) nature; nurture
C) independence; interdependence
D) identical twin; fraternal twin
183. A willingness to switch jobs and move from one part of the country to another best
illustrates one of the consequences of:
A) collectivism.
B) gender-typing.
C) individualism.
D) gender schemas.
184. A collectivist culture is especially likely to emphasize the importance of:
A) social harmony.
B) personal privacy.
C) innovation and creativity.
D) racial diversity.
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185. People living in a culture that promotes collectivism are more likely than those in
individualist cultures to report experiencing:
A) happiness.
B) family loyalty.
C) personal freedom.
D) marital romance.
186. Professor Shankar believes that her students' most important personal characteristics are
those that distinguish them as uniquely different from most other people. Her attitude
best illustrates one of the consequences of:
A) individualism.
B) gender-typing.
C) collectivism.
D) temperament.
187. When Mr. Thompson lived overseas for a year, he was very surprised at how much
respect he received from people simply because he was an elderly person. His sense of
surprise suggests that he had not previously lived in a culture characterized by:
A) social diversity.
B) collectivism.
C) extraversion.
D) individualism.
188. Compared to people in individualist cultures, those in collectivist cultures are:
A) less likely to display signs of humility and more likely to report that they find it
easy to manipulate people.
B) more likely to display signs of humility and less likely to report that they find it
easy to manipulate people.
C) less likely to display signs of humility and less likely to report that they find it easy
to manipulate people.
D) more likely to display signs of humility and more likely to report that they find it
easy to manipulate people.
189. Religious and ethnic diversity are most likely to be appreciated in a culture
characterized by:
A) gender schemas.
B) individualism.
C) gender-typing.
D) collectivism.
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190. The importance of romance in marriage relationships is most strongly emphasized in
cultures characterized by:
A) gender schemas.
B) collectivism.
C) gender-typing.
D) individualism.
191. Compared with many Asian and African parents, today's Westernized parents are more
likely to teach their children to value:
A) civil obedience.
B) emotional closeness.
C) personal independence.
D) family traditions.
192. Parents in Asian cultures are more likely than parents in Westernized cultures to
encourage children to:
A) pick out and purchase their own clothes.
B) participate in household activities.
C) publicly protest repressive government policies.
D) establish close friendships with ethnically diverse groups of people.
193. Cross-cultural research on human development indicates that:
A) person-to-person differences within cultural groups are larger than differences
between groups.
B) differences among cultural groups largely reflect genetic differences among racial
groups.
C) gender differences in behavior result from differences in biology rather than from
differences in life experiences.
D) developmental processes differ greatly among individuals raised in different
cultures.
194. In considering gender differences, it is helpful to remember that:
A) there are no gender differences in behavior that are common to all human cultures.
B) genetic similarities between the genders are much greater than genetic differences.
C) genetic differences between the genders do not contribute to gender differences in
behavior.
D) all of these answers are true.
195. Men and women are most likely to differ in their:
A) happiness.
B) intelligence.
C) self-esteem.
D) aggressiveness.
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196. Which of the following would you most likely observe on extended visits to foreign
countries?
A) Men and women earning approximately the same salaries.
B) More women than men holding elected offices.
C) More men than women engaged in fighting and aggressive encounters.
D) Men and women sharing equally in the duties of childrearing.
197. In everyday behavior, men are less likely than women to:
A) smile at others.
B) stare at others.
C) interrupt others.
D) initiate touching others.
198. During the course of a conversation between Lola, Martha, and Gus, which of the
following events is most likely to occur?
A) Gus interrupts Lola.
B) Lola interrupts Martha.
C) Martha interrupts Gus.
D) All the above are equally likely to occur.
199. As people progress through adulthood, women become:
A) less assertive and men become less empathic.
B) less assertive and men become more empathic.
C) more assertive and men become more empathic.
D) more assertive and men become less empathic.
200. Girls typically play in ________ groups than do boys and, during their teens, girls spend
________ time with friends than do boys.
A) larger; more
B) smaller; less
C) larger; less
D) smaller; more
201. When looking for someone to whom they can confide their personal worries, women
usually turn to ________ and men usually turn to ________.
A) men; men
B) women; men
C) women; women
D) men; women
202. Women are more likely than men to:
A) stare at people who make them angry.
B) interrupt others while they are talking.
C) misperceive simple friendliness as a sexual come-on.
D) tend and befriend.
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203. A human egg contains ________ chromosome and a human sperm contains ________
chromosome.
A) a Y; either an X or a Y
B) either an X or a Y; an X
C) an X; either an X or a Y
D) either an X or a Y; a Y
204. Prenatal testosterone secretions exert one of their earliest influences on:
A) genes.
B) sexual norms.
C) gender schemas.
D) brain organization.
205. Gender differences in verbal fluency are consistent with evidence that part of the:
A) frontal lobes is thicker in men than in women.
B) parietal lobes is thicker in men than in women.
C) frontal lobes is thicker in women than in men.
D) parietal lobes is thicker in women than in men.
206. Behaviors expected of those who occupy a particular social position define a:
A) norm.
B) role.
C) schema.
D) temperament.
207. Gender role refers to:
A) one's biological sex.
B) a sense of being male or female.
C) a set of expected behaviors for males and females.
D) a sense of being homosexual or heterosexual.
208. When teased by his older sister, 9-year-old Waldo does not cry because he has learned
that boys are not expected to. Waldo's behavior best illustrates the importance of:
A) temperament.
B) gender roles.
C) testosterone.
D) collectivism.
209. The social roles assigned to women and men:
A) are virtually the same in all cultures.
B) have been virtually the same in all historical time periods.
C) differ widely across cultures.
D) differ widely across historical time periods but not across cultures.
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210. Gender identity refers to:
A) one's biological sex.
B) the sense of being male or female.
C) the set of expected behaviors for males and for females.
D) how masculine a boy is or how feminine a girl is.
211. A boy who consistently exhibits traditionally masculine interests and behavior patterns
demonstrates the impact of:
A) neuroticism.
B) collectivism.
C) the X chromosome.
D) gender-typing.
212. Ten-year-old Migdalia insists on wearing very feminine-looking clothes because she
wants to appear ladylike. This best illustrates the impact of:
A) individualism.
B) personal space.
C) collectivism.
D) gender-typing.
213. Social learning theorists emphasize that:
A) observation and imitation play a crucial role in the gender-typing process.
B) children will exhibit only those gender-typed behaviors for which they have been
directly rewarded.
C) children will not learn gender-typed behaviors if the same-sex parent is absent from
the home.
D) all of these answers are correct.
214. Mr. Eskenazi frowns when his son cries but hugs his daughter when she cries. Mr.
Eskenazi's contribution to the gender-typing of his children would most likely be
highlighted by:
A) twin studies.
B) social learning theorists.
C) adoption studies.
D) evolutionary psychologists.
215. Children's tendency to classify behavior and personality traits in terms of masculine and
feminine categories is of most direct relevance to:
A) Freudian psychology.
B) behavior genetics.
C) evolutionary psychology.
D) gender schema theory.
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216. When his mother offered to play leapfrog with him, Jorge protested, “I'm not going to
play a girl's game!” Jorge's reaction best illustrates psychological processes highlighted
by:
A) behavior genetics.
B) Freudian psychology.
C) gender schema theory.
D) a biopsychosocial approach.
217. Those who suggest that the choices we make today determine what our future will be
like are emphasizing the importance of:
A) behavior genetics.
B) human responsibility.
C) personal space.
D) natural selection.
218. Professor Smith emphasizes that gender similarities and differences are products of a
continuous interplay among genetically predisposed traits, culturally shaped roles, and
personally constructed expectations and assumptions. The professor's emphasis best
illustrates:
A) collectivism.
B) individualism.
C) social learning theory.
D) a biopsychosocial approach.
3
3 5. Which of the following correctly describes the firing of neurons? (AP94)
(A) A protoplasmic transfer of ions
(B) A finely graded response
(C) An all-or-none response
(D) An osmotic process
(E) A symbiotic function
3 21. Activation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system results in (AP94)
(A) An increase in salivation
(B) An increase in digestion
(C) An increase in respiratory rate
(D) A decrease in heart rate
(E) A decrease in pupil dilation
3 67. The primary effect of the myelin sheath is to (AP94)
(A) Increase the velocity of conduction of the action potential along the axon
(B) Increase the velocity of conduction of the action potential across the synapse
(C) Facilitate the incoming stimulus signals at sensory receptors
(D) Reduce the amount of unused neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft
(E) Protect the terminal buttons of the neuron from destruction by enzymes
Page 34
3 92. Which of the following occurs when a neuron is stimulated to its threshold?
(A) The movement of sodium and potassium ions across the membrane creates an action
potential. (AP99)
(B) The neuron hyperpolarizes.
(C) Neurotransmitters are released from the dendrites.
(D) The absolute refractory period of the neuron prevents it from responding.
(E) The neuron's equilibrium potential is reached.
3 86. The role of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is to (AP99)
(A) Facilitate the body's fight-or-flight response
(B) Prepare the body to cope with stress
(C) Promote rapid cognitive processing
(D) Prompt the body to use its resources in responding to environmental stimuli
(E) Establish homeostasis after a fight-or-flight response
3 26. Which of the following are most involved in the action potential of a neuron? (AP04)
(A) Calcium and sodium
(B) Sodium and potassium
(C) Potassium and calcium
(D) Chloride and calcium
(E) Chloride and sodium
4 10. Painkilling substances produced by the brain are known as (AP94)
(A) cortisols
(B) Endorphins
(C) glucocorticoids
(D) Pheromones
(E) Hormones
4 or 3 44. Dopamine, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine are all (AP94)
(A) Hormones excreted by the endocrine glands
(B) Secretions of the exocrine glands
(C) Drugs used in the therapeutic treatment of memory disorders
(D) Enzymes involved with the degradation of interneuron signals
(E) Neurotransmitters that excite or inhibit a neural signal across a synapse
34 6. Which of the following is considered the fundamental building block of the nervous
system? (AP04)
(A)Nucleus
(B)Neuron
(C)Synapse
(D)Neurotransmitter
(E)Electrical impulse
4 10. Painkilling substances produced by the brain are known as (AP94)
(A) cortisols
Page 35
(B) Endorphins
(C) glucocorticoids
(D) Pheromones
(E) Hormones
4 38. The occipital lobes contain (AP94)
(A) The primary visual cortex
(B) The prefrontal cortex
(C) The somatosensory cortex
(D) The pons
(E) Sensory and motor connections to other brain Regions
4 or 3 44. Dopamine, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine are all (AP94)
(A) Hormones excreted by the endocrine glands
(B) Secretions of the exocrine glands
(C) Drugs used in the therapeutic treatment of memory disorders
(D) Enzymes involved with the degradation of interneuron signals
(E) Neurotransmitters that excite or inhibit a neural signal across a synapse
4 77. Which of the following allows the examination of living brain tissue visually without
performing surgery? (AP94)
(A) Computerized axial tomography
(B) Stereotaxic examination
(C) Retrograde degeneration
(D) Biofeedback
(E) Ablation
4 86. For most people, which of the following is an activity based in the right hemisphere of the
brain? (AP94)
(A) Muscular control of the right hand
(B) Simple spatial reasoning
(C) Arithmetic reasoning
(D) Language comprehension
(E) Speech
4 or 30 89. Which of the following is true of the reticular activating system? (AP94)
(A) It is the major system in the brain for controlling emotions.
(B) It functions primarily in the control of motor responses.
(C) It regulates levels of arousal.
(D) It regulates body temperature.
(E) It controls the uptake of pituitary hormones.
4 100. The thalamus processes information for all of the following senses EXCEPT (AP99)
(A) Smell
(B) Hearing
(C) Taste
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(D) Vision
4 10. Which of the following parts of the brain is most active in decision-making? (AP99)
(A) Reticular formation
(B) Corpus callosum
(C) Hypothalamus
(D) Cerebral cortex
(E) Pituitary gland
4 79. Which of the following is a brain-imaging technique that produces the most detailed picture
of brain structure? (AP99)
(A) Electroencephalography (EEG)
(B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(C) Positron emission tomography (PET)
(D) Computerized axial tomography (CAT)
(E) Electromyography (EMG)
4 71. People who have experienced severe damage to the frontal lobe of the brain seldom regain
their ability to (AP99)
(A) Make and carry out plans
(B) Recognize visual patterns
(C) Process auditory information
(D) Process olfactory information
(E) Integrate their multiple personalities
4 84. Stimulation of portions of the left temporal lobe of the brain during surgery will cause the
patient to (AP99)
(A) See lights
(B) Lose the sense of smell
(C) Jerk the left arm
(D) Extend the tongue
(E) Hear sounds]
4 83. Which of the following areas of the body has the largest number of sensory neurons?
(AP99)
(A) Back
(B) Foot
(C) Ear
(D) Lips
(E) Wrist
4 16. Neurosurgeons cut the corpus callosum in the brain disrupting communication between the
right and left hemispheres to(AP04)
(A) Prevent the spread of epileptic seizures
(B) Reduce anxiety attacks and phobic reactions
(C) Reduce the incidence of violent behaviors
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(D) Treat schizophrenia
(E) Reduce mood swings
4 or 21 28. Which component of the limbic system has an essential role in the formation of new
memories? (AP04)
(A) Amygdala
(B) Hippocampus
(C) Pituitary gland
(D) Hypothalamus
(E) Thalamus
4 20. A person who has a brain injury is having difficulty seeing and hearing. These symptoms
indicate that damage has occurred in the (AP04)
(A) Parietal and occipital lobes
(B) Occipital and temporal lobes
(C) Frontal and temporal lobes
(D) Temporal lobe only
(E) Frontal lobe only
4 76. A researcher studies the effects of brain lesions in rats. This research study reflects which
of the following perspectives? (AP04)
(A) Cognitive
(B) Biological
(C) Behavioral
(D) Humanistic
(E) Psychoanalytic
4 or 42? 74. Prozac functions as an antidepressant medication because it (AP04)
(A) Enhances production of acetylcholine
(B) Blocks the reuptake of the neurotransmitter serotonin
(C) Causes select memory loss for depression producing events
(D) Produces a steady, mild state of euphoria
(E) Inhibits frontal lobe activity related to depression
4 50. The human brain differs from the brains of most other animals by the relative amount of
brain mass devoted to which of the following? (AP04)
(A) The occipital lobe
(B) The cerebellum
(C) The cerebral cortex
(D) The homunculus
(E) The pituitary gland
4 91. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most directly associated with Alzheimer’s
disease? (AP04)
(A) Dopamine
(B) Serotonin
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(C) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
(D) Acetylcholine (ACh)
(E) Glutamate
4 or 26 56. Which of the following structures of the brain has been linked with the regulation of
hunger and thirst? (AP04)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Probably in brain section24 or 4 70. For most people, speech functions are primarily localized in
the (AP99)
(A) Right cerebral hemisphere
(B) Left cerebral hemisphere
(C) Occipital lobe
(D) Corpus callosum
(E) Cerebellum
5
5 23. A genetically programmed action pattern is the ethologist's definition of (AP99)
(A) Habit
(B) Instinct
(C) Adaptation
(D) Altruism
(E) Releasing mechanism
5 30. The result of the evolutionary process that preserves traits that enhance the adaptation of an
organism and suppresses traits that do not is called (AP99)
(A) Habituation
(B) Accommodation
(C) Natural selection
(D) Eugenics
(E) Species assimilation
5 58. Assume that R represents a dominant gene in rats for normal running and that r represents a
recessive gene in rats for an abnormal gait called waltzing. Mating a female Rr rat with a male
RR rat will produce offspring that are (AP99)
(A) 50% runners and 50% waltzers
(B) 25% runners and 75% waltzers
(C) 75% runners and 25% waltzers
(D) 100% waltzers
(E) 100% runners
5 81. The evolutionary perspective (sociobiology) argues that (AP04)
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(A) Humans are motivated by a desire to maintain optimum hormonal levels
(B) Humans are genetically programmed to ensure that there is a new generation of the species
(C) Humans strive to minimize inconsistent thoughts and actions
(D) There is a relationship among task difficulty, physical arousal, and task performance
(E) Conditioning explains most human behavior
5 41. Which of the following reflects the inborn and stable rudiments of personality, such as
excitability? (AP04)
(A) Imprinting
(B) Social referencing
(C) Individuation
(D) Temperament
(E) Accommodation
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