Download Special Study Project III

Special Study Project III
1. The sequence of nitrogen bases on one strand of DNA could determine the:
a. Sequence of nitrogen bases in mRNA
b. Sequence of amino acids in protein
c. Sequence of nitrogen bases in the other DNA strand
d. All of the above choices are correct
e. Sequence of amino acids in the mRNA
2. When comparing DNA and RNA, we find:
a. No sugar is present in either molecule
b. Hydrogen bonding is important only in DNA
c. Only DNA has a backbone of sugars and phosphates
d. Adenine pairs with different bases in DNA and RNA
e. Thymine pairs with different bases in DNA and RNA
3. Which of these is found in RNA but not in DNA?
a. Adenine
b. Uracil
c. Thymine
d. Phosphate groups
e. Deoxyribose sugar
4. The number of consecutive mRNA bases needed to specify an amino acid is:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 20
d. 64
e. A variable number
5. The number of different possible codons is:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 20
d. 64
6. If a bacterial protein has 30 amino acids, how many nucleotides are needed to code for it?
a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
d. 120
e. 600
7. Which of the following molecules functions to transfer information from one generation to the
next?
a. DNA
b. mRNA
c. tRNA
d. Proteins
e. Lipids
8. If the sequence of bases in a section of DNA is TAGGCTAA, what is the corresponding
sequence of bases in mRNA?
a. ATCCGATT
b. TAGGCTAA
c. CGAAUCGG
d. AATCGGAT
e. AUCCGAUU
9. The number of nucleotides in a codon is:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 20
d. 64
e. A variable number
10. The process of copying genetic information from DNA to RNA is called:
a. Translation
b. Transformation
c. Replication
d. Transcription
e. Polymerization
11. Transcription is the process of
a. synthesizing a DNA molecule from an RNA template.
b. assembling an RNA molecule without a template.
c. synthesizing an RNA molecule using a DNA template.
d. synthesizing a protein using information from a mRNA.
e. replicating a single-stranded DNA molecule.
12. If a tRNA molecule specialized for transfer of the amino acid valine has the anticodon CAG,
with what codon will it couple?
a. GAC
b. GTC
c. TUG
d. GUC
e. CAG
13. An anticodon is:
a. 4 consecutive nucleotides in tRNA
b. 3 consecutive nucleotides in tRNA
c. The beginning of a DNA molecule
d. 3 consecutive nucleotides in mRNA
e. 3 consecutive amino acids in a protein
14. In the sequence: DNA 1 RNA 2 protein
Step (1) is called
a. Translation
b. Amino acid synthesis
c. DNA replication
d. Transcription
e. Dehydration synthesis
15. The site of protein synthesis is the:
a. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Nucleus
c. Nucleolus
d. Ribosome
e. Eukaryotic chromosome
16. Each new amino acid is attached to the growing chain by:
a. An ionic bond
b. A physical bond
c. Hydrogen bonds
d. An RNA bond
e. A peptide bond
17. What is the minimum number of tRNA molecules required to produce a 60-amino acid
polypeptide made up of only ten different kinds of amino acids?
a. 15
b. 10
c. 30
d. 60
e. 120
18. A gene may encode information needed by a cell to produce:
a. Enzymes
b. Structural proteins
c. Hormones
d. RNA
e. All the above choices are correct
19. Which of the following is not a goal of biotechnology?
a. Generating economic benefits
b. Efficiently producing biologically important molecules
c. Improving agriculturally important food plants
d. More effectively treating disease
e. Creating humans with higher intelligence levels
20. Manipulating the molecular basis of inheritance by recombinant DNA technology is called:
a. Mendelian genetics
b. Biotechnology
c. DNA fingerprinting
d. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
e. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
21. Biotechnology cannot be used to:
a. Produce large quantities of particular human proteins
b. Produce effective and safe vaccines
c. Identify human fetuses with particular genetic diseases
d. Alter food plants to increase yield
e. Alter the intelligence levels of newborn infants
22. Naturally occurring methods of recombining DNA within a species include:
a. Mitosis
b. Crossing over during meiosis I only
c. Sexual reproduction only
d. In-vitro fertilization
e. Crossing over and sexual reproduction
23. In biotechnology research, DNA fragments created by restriction enzyme action are
separated from one another by:
a. Crossing over
b. Gel electrophoresis
c. Centrifugation
d. Filtering
e. The polymerase chain reaction
24. The enzymes used to cut genes in recombinant DNA research are called:
a. DNA polymerases
b. RNA polymerases
c. Spliceosomes
d. Replicases
e. Restriction enzymes (restriction endonucleases)
25. In recombinant DNA technology, plasmids:
a. Are used to insert foreign DNA into bacteria
b. Show restriction enzymes where to cut bacterial DNA
c. Are necessary for cellular respiration in bacteria
d. Are where protein synthesis occurs in bacteria
e. Are found in the blood of bacteria
26. Which pair of enzymes is necessary to make recombinant DNA?
a. DNA polymerase and ligase
b. Ligase and restriction enzyme
c. Restriction enzyme and DNA polymerase
d. DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase
e. Those that cause dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis
27. Choosing from the list below, which is a reasonable sequence of steps for cloning a piece of
foreign DNA into a plasmid vector?
1. Transform competent cells
2. Select for the lack of antibiotic resistance gene #1 function
3. Select for the plasmid antibiotic resistance gene #2 function
4. Digest vector and foreign DNA with EcoRI, which inactivates
antibiotic resistance gene #1
5. Ligate the digested DNA together
a.4, 5, 1, 3, 2
b.4, 5, 1, 2, 3
c.1, 3, 4, 2, 5
d.3, 2, 1, 4, 5
e. None of the above
28. Restriction enzymes are useful in recombinant DNA studies because they:
a. Cut DNA at specific locations
b. Join the cut ends of small DNA molecules
c. Can reproduce in bacteria
d. Give plasmids antibiotic properties
e. Can separate pieces of DNA and RNA from each other
29. A readily accessible, easily duplicated assemblage of all the DNA of a particular organism
is:
a. Found in a chromosome
b. Called a "gene pool"
c. Possible only using bacterial DNA
d. Called a "polymerase chain reaction" assemblage
e. Called a "DNA library" or genomic library
30. Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) techniques are useful in:
a. Isolating a gene whose location and function are already known
b. Prenatal diagnosis of certain genetic defects if the nucleotide sequence of the gene is
known
c. "DNA fingerprinting" in forensic medicine
d. Providing DNA for PCR analysis
e. Both choices b and c are correct
31. Differences in RFLP banding patterns indicate that
a. the two different DNAs being tested possess different base pairs.
b. mRNA is not transcribed.
c. the genes map to different chromosomes.
d. a and c.
e. None of the above.
32. DNA migrates in an electric field because
a. it is positively charged.
b. it is negatively charged.
c. organisms only have a few chromosomes.
d. different chromosomes carry different charges.
e. none of the above.
33. Controversy has arisen about using genetically engineered bovine growth hormone to
increase milk yield in cattle. This points out that:
a. Recombinant DNA technology is inherently a bad idea and should be abandoned
b. Humans are not wise enough to use this technique properly
c. Society should let scientists decide the proper uses of recombinant DNA technology
d. Society as a whole should decide the proper uses of recombinant DNA technology
e. Citizens should not be allowed to decide such issues since they tend to make
decisions based on emotion
34. Which of the following is not a goal of biotechnology?
a. To understand more about the process of inheritance and gene expression
b. To provide better understanding and treatment of various human diseases
c. To generate improved agricultural plants and domestic animals
d. To prevent the inheritance of human genes judged to be undesirable
e. All the above choices are valid goals of biotechnology
35. For a freebie, mark “C”. Take a break and seek answers to the following. These can all be
found in Chaps 10-12.
36. Semiconservative replication of DNA involves
a. each of the original strands acting as a template for a new strand.
b. only one of the original strands acting as a template for a new strand.
c. the complete separation of the original strands, the synthesis of new strands and the
reassembly of double-stranded molecules.
d. the use of the original double-stranded molecule as a template, without unwinding.
e. none of the above.
37. The feature of the Watson-Crick model of DNA structure that explains its ability to
function in replication is
a. that each strand contains all the information present in the double helix.
b. the structural and functional similarities of DNA and RNA.
c. that the double helix is right-handed and not left-handed.
d. that DNA replication does not require enzymes.
e. the fact that the nitrogen bases are exposed on the outside of the molecule.
38. Which of the following are NOT involved in the DNA replication process?
a. DNA helicase
b. DNA ligase
c. RNA polymerase
d. DNA polymerase
e. All of the above are involved.
39. During which part of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Interphase
d. Cytokinesis
e. All of the above
40. If cytosine makes up 22% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism, then
adenine would make up what percent of the bases?
a. 22
b. 44
c. 28
d. 56
e. It cannot be determined with the information given
41. Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as
nucleotides?
a. a nitrogen base and a phosphate group
b. a nitrogen base and a five-carbon sugar
c. a nitrogen base, a phosphate group and a five-carbon sugar
d. a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate group and a purine
e. a pyrimidine, a purine and a five-carbon sugar
42. It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that DNA
molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in its
a. sequence of bases
b. phosphate-sugar backbone
c. complementary base pairing
d. side groups of nitrogenous bases
e. different five-carbon sugars
43. In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA to see which bases are equivalent in
concentration, which of the following would be true?
a. A = C
b. A = G and C = T
c. A + C = G + T
d. A + T = C + G
e. Both b and c are correct
44. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is useful in:
a. Analyzing a person's fingerprints
b. Cutting DNA into many small pieces
c. Allowing restriction enzymes to cut DNA at palindromes
d. Creating recombinant plasmids
e. Making many copies of a small amount of DNA
45. In Griffith's experiments, what happened when heat-killed S strain pneumococcus were
injected into a mouse along with live R strain pneumococcus?
a. DNA from the live R was taken up by the heat-killed S, converting them to R and killing
the mouse.
b. DNA from the heat-killed S was taken up by the live R, converting them to S and killing
the mouse.
c. Proteins released from the heat-killed S killed the mouse.
d. RNA from the heat-killed S was translated into proteins that killed the mouse.
e. Nothing.
46. For the DNA sequence GCCTAT in one polynucleotide chain, the sequence found
in the other polynucleotide chain is:
a. CGGATA
b. GCCATA
c. CGGAUA
d. ATTCGC
e. GCCTAT
47. The process of converting the "message" of mRNA into a sequence of amino acids is called:
a. Translation
b. Transcription
c. Activation
d. Replication
e. Repression
48. Heart, nerve cells and skin cells owe their differences in structure and function to:
a. having different genes
b. having different chromosomes
c. using different genetic codes
d. expressing different genes
49. A part of a mRNA molecule with the following sequence (5¨-CCG ACG-3¨) is being
translated by a ribosome. The following activated tRNA molecules are available. Two of
them can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form
tRNA anticodon
Amino acid
GGC
proline
CGU
alanine
UGC
threonine
CCG
glycine
ACG
cysteine
CGG
alanine
The dipeptide that will form will be
a. cysteine-alanine
b. proline-threonine
c. glycine-cysteine
d. alanine-alanine
e. threonine-glycine
50. A type of RNA that binds to a specific amino acid is:
a. Messenger RNA
b. Ribosomal RNA
c. Transfer RNA
d. Nuclear RNA
e. Cytoplasmic RNA