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Quiz 4
1) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes an irreversible reaction?
a) Glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
b) Enolase
c) Phosphoglycerate mutase
d) Pyruvate kinase
e) Aldolase
2) FADH2 is a product of which of the following reactions?
a) Succinate  malate
b) Succinate  fumarate
c) Pyruvate  acetyl CoA
d) Succinyl CoA  Succinate
e) Malate  Oxaloacetate
3) The regulated enzymes of the citric acid cycle include?
a) Fumarase
b) Succinate thiokinase
c) Malate dehydrogenase
d) Citrate lyase
e) Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
4) Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
a) Is an indicator of high cellular glucose concentration.
b) Is formed by PFK-1
c) Activates aldolase
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above.
5) Gluconeogenesis occurs primarily in the
a) Pancreas
b) Liver
c) Heart
d) Brain
e) Muscle
6) Which of the following citric acid cycle enzymes are closely regulated?
a) Citrate synthase
b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
c) a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above.
7) Which of the following processes are driven by the hydrolysis of ATP?
a) Biosynthesis of biomolecules
b) Active transport of substances across membranes.
c) Mechanical work such as muscle contraction.
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above.
8) In anaerobic organisms, pyruvate is used to regenerate cellular ______
a) ADP
b) NAD+
c) FADH
d) NADP+
e) FAD
9) Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by high concentrations of which of the following
compounds?
a) Lactate
b) Glycerol
c) Amino acids
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above.
10) Acetyl CoA that is consumed by the citric acid cycle is produced from which of the
following biochemical pathways?
a) Glycolysis
b) Fatty acid oxidation
c) Purine catabolism
d) Urea cycle
e) Both A and B.
Quiz 5
1) The activity of phosphorylase b in muscle cels is regulated by
a) ATP
b) AMP
c) Glucose-6-phosphate
d) A and B
e) A, B, and C
2) During glycogen synthesis, branching enzyme produces which of the following bonds?
a) B(1,6)
b) a(1,6)
c) a(1,4)
d) B(1,4)
e) C and D
3) The binding of insulin to receptors on the surface of liver cells stimulates which of the
following processes?
a) Formation of cAMP.
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
b) Release of ATP
c) Glycogenolysis
d) Release of glucagon
e) Glycogenesis
Which of the following is not true of glycogen phosphorylase?
a) It conserves 1 ATP when glucose derived from glycogen is oxidized by glycolysis.
b) It degrades glycogen to within 4 glucose units of a branch point.
c) It produces glucose-6-phosphate
d) It removes glucose units from the non-reducing end of glycogen.
e) All of the above are true of glycogen phosphorylase.
Phosphorylase Kinase
a) Converts phosphorylase b to phosphorylase a.
b) Converts phosphorylase a to phosphorylase b.
c) Phosphorylates glycogen synthase.
d) Converts ADP to ATP
e) B and C.
How is phosphorylase a converted to phosphorylase b?
a) Dephosphorylation of a serine residue.
b) Cleavage of 10 amino acids from the C-terminal end of the protein (zymgogen
activations).
c) Phosphorylation of a serine residue.
d) Dephosphorylation of a tyrosine residue.
e) Phosphorylation of a tyrosine residue.
The conversion of glucose-1-phosphate to UDP-glucose has a delta Go’ of near zero.
Which of the following reactions is coupled with the above reaction to drive it to
completion?
a) Hydrolysis of UDP.
b) Hydrolysis of ADP.
c) Hydrolysis of PPi
d) Hydrolysis of UMP.
e) Hydrolysis of ATP.
Activated protein phosphatase 1 (PP1) __________
a) Activates glycogen synthase.
b) Inactivates phosphorylase a.
c) Inactivates phosphorylase kinase.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
Which of the following is required for the conversion of UDP-glucose to glycogen?
a) Glycogen synthase.
b) Branching enzyme.
c) Glucose phosphorylase.
d) Debranching enzyme.
e) A and B.
10) The major site of glycogen storage is (are) ________.
a) Adipose tissue
b) Muscle
c) Liver
d) A, B, and C.
e) B and C.
Quiz 6
1) ______ is the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis. (Does anyone forget this
one? Haha)
a) Phosphomevalonate kinase
b) Mevalonate kinase
c) HMG-CoA reductase phosphatase
d) HMG-CoA reductase kinase
e) None of the above
2) The intermediates in fatty acid synthesis are linked through a _______ linkage to ACP.
a) Acetal
b) Ether
c) Thioester
d) Amide
e) Ester
3) The conversion of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA is inhibited by _________.
a) Palmitoyl-CoA
b) Glucagon
c) Epinephrine
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
4) The conversion of squalene to cholesterol requires _________.
a) O2
b) Isopentenyl pyrophosphate
c) NADPH
d) A and B
e) A and C
5) Cholesterol is a precursor of ___________.
a) Testosterone.
b) Estrogen.
c) Cortisol.
d) Aldosterone.
e) All of the above.
6) _____ is used to transport fatty acids into the mitochondria.
a) Phytate
b) Creatine
c) Carnitine
d) Acyl carrier protein
e) Carrone
7) Fatty acid synthesis begins with the carboxylation of acetyl CoA to form ________.
a) Acetoacetyl-CoA
b) Butyryl-CoA
c) Propionyl-CoA
d) Malonyl-CoA
e) None of the above.
8) The B-oxidation of fatty acids requires _________.
a) Coenzyme A
b) FAD
c) NAD+
d) A and C
e) All of the above.
9) The conversion of acyl-CoA to acylcarnitine is inhibited by __________.
a) Malonyl-CoA
b) Citrate
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) Insulin
e) A and B
10) The conversion of phosphatidylethanolamine to phosphatidylcholine requires ________.
a) SAM
b) Serine
c) Base exchange enzyme
d) Acyl carrier protein
e) SAH
Active Learning I
1) Genes in prokaryotes that are arranged in groups of related genes under the control of a
single promoter are called ______.
a) Opersons.
b) Decathlons.
c) Klingons.
d) Genons (referred to as genoffs when in the inactive configuration).
2)
3)
4)
5)
e) All of the above.
Compared to gene regulation in prokaryotes, gene regulation in eukaryotes _______.
a) Is faster
b) Is less complex
c) Is more complex
d) Is less important
e) All of the above.
In contrast to prokaryotes which only have one RNA polymerase, eukaryotes have _____
RNA polymerases.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
In order to enhance transcription in eukaryotes, the C-terminal domain of RNA
polymerase II must be _________.
a) Degraded
b) Acetylated
c) Glycosylated
d) Phosphorylated
e) All of the above
(jokester) The scariest thing about RNA transcription in eukaryotes is ________.
a) That it occurs in the nucleus, which is a deep, dark, mysterious place.
b) Almost all the RNA transcribed in eukaryotes is subsequently degraded.
c) It is harder to learn than RNA transcription in prokaryotes.
d) Without it, we’d be dead.
e) All of the above are pretty scary.
Quiz 7
1) According to the central dogma of molecular biology, genetic information flows in the
following direction:
a) DNA  Protein  RNA
b) RNA  Protein  DNA
c) Protein  RNA  DNA
d) DNA  RNA  Protein
e) None of the above.
2) Methotrexate is a structural analog of _______.
a) Mercapturic acid
b) Thiamine
c) GABA
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
d) Dihydrofolate
e) dUMP
The classic experiment that demonstrated that radioactively labeled viral DNA transforms
bacterial cells was performed by
a) Watson and Crick
b) Kossel and Levene
c) Griffith
d) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
e) Hershey and Chase
All of the following are purine bases except ________.
a) Thymine
b) Hypoxanthine
c) Guanine
d) Adenine
e) All of the above are purine bases.
All of the following are involved in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides except ______.
a) Thioredoxin reductase
b) Thioredoxin
c) HGPRT
d) Ribonucleotide reductase
e) NADPH
________ is (are) so highly condensed that it is transcriptionally inactive.
a) Consensus sequences
b) Primers
c) Promoters
d) Euchromatin
e) Heterochromatin
The DNA “backbone” is composed of
a) An amide bond between deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base
b) A glycosidic bond between deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base
c) A phosphodiester bond between the 3’- and the 5’-hydroxyl groups of adjacent
deoxyribose residues.
d) A phosphodiester bond between the 2’- and the 5’-hydroxyl groups of adjacent
deoxyribose residues.
e) None of the above.
SSBs are
a) Proteins that bind to single-stranded DNA.
b) Molecules that bind to DNA.
c) Substrates for DNA ligase.
d) A series of nucleases that degrade RNA primers.
e) Enzymes that catalyze okazaki fragment formation.
9) DNA is synthesized in which of the following directions?
a) In the 3’  5’ direction on the leading strand and the 5’  3’ direction on the lagging
strand.
b) In the 5’  3’ direction on both DNA strands.
c) The direction differs depending on the genes being duplicated.
d) In the 5’  3’ direction on the leading strand and the 3’  5’ direction in the lagging
strand.
e) None of the above are correct.
10) When gout patients are treated with allopurinol their blood and urine levels of ____ rise.
a) Hypoxanthine
b) Uric acid
c) Xanthine
d) A and C
e) All of the above.
Quiz 8
1) _______ catalyzes the transcription of the precursor for tRNAs and 5S rRNA.
a) RNA Polymerase II
b) RNA Polymerase III
c) RNA directed DNA polymerase
d) RNA polymerase I
e) None of the above
2) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a
a) Eukaryotic rRNA sequence that binds the AUG codon of mRNA
b) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds IF-3
c) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds the 16S rRNA of the small ribosomal subunit
d) Prokaryotic mRNA sequence that binds the 16S rRNA of the big ribosomal subunit
e) None of the above
3) _____ is the enzyme that generates the 5’ terminus of all tRNA molecules.
a) Ribonuclease P
b) Ribonuclease III
c) RNA Polymerase
d) 5’ Phosphatase.
e) Ribonuclease II
4) The initiation phase of prokaryotic translation ends as the GTP molecule bound to _____
is hydrolyzed to GDP and Pi.
a) IF-3
b) IF-4
c) IF-2
d) IF-1
e) None of the above
5) During the elongation phase of prokaryotic translation the aminoacyl-tRNA must first
bind ______ before it can be positioned in the A site.
a) EF-Tu-GTP
b) EF-TS-DDP
c) EF-Ts
d) EF-Tu
e) EF-TS-GTP
6) In the absence of its inducer the lac operon remains repressed because of the binding of
lac repressor to the _____.
a) Catabolic gene activator protein.
b) Operator.
c) Antagonists.
d) Klingons.
e) Promoters.
7) Molecules that bind to a receptor and activate a signal transduction pathway are called
________.
a) Agonists
b) Operons
c) Antagonists
d) Klingons
e) Promoters
8) Non-coding regions of RNA are called _______.
a) Mobilons
b) Introns
c) Virons
d) Exons
e) Klingons
9) The interaction of several different protein factors to stimulate or repress transcription is
called _______.
a) Symbiosis
b) Hypomethylation effect
c) Combinatorial control
d) Synergy
e) None of the above
10) Many promoters for RNA polymerase II contain a consensus sequence called the _____.
a) TATA box
b) Pribnow box
c) CAAT box
d) Okazaki box
e) GC box
Active Learning II
1) The proteome is ________.
a) The collection of genes present in a cell or organism.
b) A ciliated protozoan that contains an unconventional genetic code.
c) The collection of proteins present in a cell or organism.
d) A ribosome that is specialized for the synthesis of ribosomal proteins.
e) Much like a nucleoid, in that it sequesters DNA from the rest of the cell.
2) Tools for proteomic research include ___________.
a) All of the below
b) Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis, to separate proteins by mass.
c) Isoelectric focusing separates proteins by charge.
d) Two-dimensional gel electrophoresis (2D page).
e) Cell fractionation.
f) Various methods for protein purification
g) Protein sequencing
h) Mass spectrometry of peptides and intact proteins.
i) Yeast two-cell hybrid system to study protein-protein interactions.
3) Sodium dodecylsulfate (SDS) is an ionic detergent found in
a) Toothpaste
b) Dish detergent
c) SDS gels
d) Shampoo
e) All of the above
4) A picture, I don’t have a scanner! It is a picture of an SDS page, and asks which protein
has the largest molecular weight, the choices are:
a) Top
b) Middle
c) Middle-bottom
d) Bottom
5) Picture of what looks like a whole lot of random dots everywhere. The following data
were obtained by _______.
a) Shotgun DNA sequencing
b) Two-dimensional polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis.
c) Random luck by a desperate post-doc.
d) Intelligent design.
e) Evolution