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MCMP 208 Exam IV - 1 Examination IV Key MCMP 208 – Biochemistry for Pharmaceutical Sciences I May 2, 2012 Correct answers in multiple choice questions are indicated in RED and underlined. Correct answers to essay questions are indicated in RED in comic book font. In some cases and explanation is provided in BLUE/BLUE MULTIPLE CHOICE. For problems 1 to 24, select from the list immediately following each question the single most correct choice to complete the statement, solve the problem, or answer the question. Mark that answer on your answer sheet. [3 points each] 1. A dsDNA that is 30bp long in 1M NaCl pH 7.4 buffer had a TM of 55°C. Which change in the sequence of this dsDNA would increase the TM measured in the same conditions? Replace all As with Ts and all Ts with As Replace all Cs with Gs and all Gs with Cs Rearrange the base-pairs so all the purines in one strand, but keep the base-pairs the same Rearrange the base-pairs so exactly half of the purines are in each strand but keep the base-pairs the same Replace some A-T base-pairs with G-C base pairs Replace some G-C base-pairs with A-T base pairs Put all the A-T base-pairs at the ends and the G-C base-pairs in the middle Put all the G-C base-pairs at the ends and the A-T base-pairs in the middle Rearranging the locations of base pairs (4, 7, and 8) or inverting the pairs between trands (1, 2, and 3) without changing the fraction of base-pairs that are GC will not significantly alter the melting temperature. Only increasing the GC content will increase the melting temperature. 2. One aspect of positively supercoiled DNA when compared to relaxed DNA that is always true is Positively supercoiled DNA is always bound to protein, while relaxed DNA may be free of protein. In positively supercoiled DNA, the DNA is a left-handed helix, while in relaxed DNA, the DNA always has a right-handed helix Positively supercoiled DNA is always circular while relaxed DNA can be linear Positively supercoiled DNA is caused by under-winding the DNA, which results in fewer helices per unit length than normal, while relaxed DNA always has a normal helical pitch of one turn per 10.5 bp Positively supercoiled DNA is caused by over-winding the DNA, which adds more helices per unit length than normal, while relaxed DNA always has a normal helical pitch of one turn per 10.5 bp B-DNA is always right handed, eliminating 3. Choice 1 cannot be correct because circular DNA can be positively supercoiled without it being bound to proteins MCMP 208 Exam IV - 2 3. During Southern blot DNA hybridization analysis, the unknown DNA is cut into pieces, separated on a gel and transferred (by blotting) onto nitrocellulose prior to hybridization with labeled probe DNA labeled and hybridized with the immobilized probe DNA labeled and spotted onto a surface where it is immobilized, prior to hybridization with probe DNA cut into pieces, labeled, separated on a gel, and transferred by blotting onto nitrocellulose prior to hybridization with probe DNA. hybridized with immobilized labeled probe DNA What DNA is labeled is never immobilized, which eliminates all be choices 1 and 2. In a blot, the unknown is immobilized, usually after gel separation. Choice 2 describes a DNA microarray. 4. In humans, double strand breaks in DNA are repaired via nucleotide excision repair transcription-coupled repair base-excision repair restriction endonucleases mismatch repair non-homologous end joining 5. Not considering polymorphisms, how many different chromosomes do humans have? 1 2 22 23 24 Two sex chromosomes and 22 autosomes 44 46 6. Approximately what percent of the human genome is involved in encoding protein? 80% or more 40 to 60% 15 to 25% 5 to 10% 1 to 2% less than 0.1% MCMP 208 Exam IV - 3 7. An anti-codon is added onto the 3′ end of each tRNA found in every amino-acyl tRNA synthetase found once in every tRNA found once in every intron found once in every mRNA found twice in every intron (one at each end) found twice in every exon (one at each end) found in the largest two rRNAs (one in each subunit) found in mRNA once for every amino acid encoded by that mRNA 8. If PCR amplification using human genomic DNA as template is working properly, it produces a lot of the entire human genomic DNA one of the human chromosomes the two parts of human DNA that are complementary to the sequences found in the primers used the human DNA that is in between the sequences that are complementary to the primers used the human DNA that lies outside the sequences that are complementary to the primers used 9. In humans homologous recombination is primarily associated with DNA repair. The primary useful outcome for migration (rolling) of Holliday junctions during homologous recombination is to exchange a short length of one strand of each of the DNAs exchange a short length of double-stranded DNA exchange large amounts of double-stranded DNA make it possible to resolve the junction in the opposite way from which it was formed extend the chromosomes at the telomeres The only thing accomplished by rolling is exchange of a single strand. Resolution options are not affected by rolling, and telomere extension has nothing to do with rolling Holliday junctions. 10. HIV particles include three virally encoded enzymes. Of these three viral enzymes, the one that acts first during the infection process is gp120 env protein p17 capsid protein reverse transcriptase DNA polymerase integrase RNA polymerase protease lipase flipase The other two virally encoded enzymes in the capsid are the integrase and protease. Gp1209 and p17 are not enzymes. Flipase, lipase, RNA and DNA polymerases are cellular enzymes and are not encoded in the viral genome. MCMP 208 Exam IV - 4 11. A DNA helicase is an enzyme that relaxes supercoils in DNA adds supercoils to DNA makes a primer for DNA polymerase to use dissociates the two strands of DNA remodels chromatin by altering modifications of nucleosome proteins remodels chromatin by methylating DNA keeps single stranded DNA from re-annealing with its complementary strand reversibly ligates nicks in single stranded DNA 12. During translation, the synthesis of the peptide bond occurs when the next amino acid is transferred off of its tRNA and onto the end of the growing polypeptide the polypeptide is transferred off of its tRNA and onto the incoming amino acid attached to its tRNA the polypeptide, temporarily covalently attached to the rRNA, is transferred onto the incoming amino acid attached to its tRNA the next amino acid is transferred off of its tRNA to form a temporary covalent bond with the rRNA, and then it is added to the end of the growing polypeptide 13. The activity of RNA polymerase does not require NTPs as magnesium chelates a single stranded DNA template a properly base-paired primer none of the above (that is, all of the above are required by RNA polymerase) 14. Which one of these dsDNA sequences (only one strand is shown) has an inverted repeat that is 4 basepairs long and has no intervening sequence? GGGGTTTT GAGACTCT AGCTTCGA AAGGAAGG TGGCGCCA Draw all 6 choices out as a dsDNA and put arrows above the first 4 nt and look for them in the next 4 nt on the other strand. TGCAGTAC none of the above 15. Complementary DNA is the parts of each gene which bind regulatory transcription factors the part of each gene which binds general transcription factors, such as TATA box-binding protein the strand of DNA that is complementary to the coding strand of DNA in genes made from mRNA using an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase made as a primer for Okazaki fragments during DNA replication the template used by telomerase any two dsDNAs that share the same sequence MCMP 208 Exam IV - 5 16. An operon is a region of DNA where retroviral proviral DNA integrates into the chromosomal DNA phage DNA integrates into the chromosomal DNA transcription of a single protein-coding gene occurs, including the regulation of its expression synthesis of a single polycistronic mRNA occurs, including the regulation of its expression replication originates in bacteria replication originates in eukaryotes DNA-protein interactions result in DNA compaction 17. Which organ system, organ, or tissue has the most diverse set of roles in metabolism? the kidney the liver adipose tissue muscle tissue the vasculature the gastrointestinal tract the brain the immune system the skin 18. Deficiency of vitamin C intake causes scurvy because vitamin C is essential for bone mineralization calcium absorption carboxylation of glutamyl residues in proteins hydroxylation of prolyl residues in proteins phosphorylation of tyrosyl residues in proteins heme synthesis nucleotide synthesis regeneration of methionine from homocystenine producing thyroid hormone N-linked protein glycosylation 19. If in the coding strand of DNA that encodes a protein, the sequence GCTAGTCTTGTG was mutated so that it became GCTAGTCGTGTG, and the first nucleotide of this sequence is the first nucleotide of the triplet of nucleotides that encodes an amino acid, what is the consequence of this mutation on the protein’s amino acid sequence? No change in the amino acid sequence substitution of leucine to proline substitution of leucine to arginine The codons involved are CTT mutated to CGT. They are CUU and CGU, respectively in the mRNA because the coding strand of DNA is the same sequence as the mRNA. For this problem, the genetic code table on page 2 is very useful. substitution of histidine to arginine substitution of threonine to lysine substitution of threonine to arginine substitution of isoleucine to arginine substitution of isoleucine to lysine MCMP 208 Exam IV - 6 20. There are many small molecules that selectively inhibit prokaryotic ribosome function, without having significant inhibition of eukaryotic ribosome function. Given that ribosomes do the same function in all organisms, how is this possible? The process of translation is completely different in prokaryotes compared to eukaryotes The energetics of translation is very different in prokaryotes compared to eukaryotes Prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomes have different numbers of subunts The genetic code is completely different in prokaryotes compared to eukaryotes Prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomes have similar large scale structural organization but very different molecular structures 21. The role of signal recognition particle (SRP) is to recognize the sequence that signals the sites for N-linked protein glycosylation a structure that regulates targeted protein degradation (proteosomal degradation) an amino acid sequence in proteins being made that targets them to the secretory pathway the amino acid sequence that is phosphorylated by protein kinases that a viral particle has bound to the cell surface and initiates cellular defense processes damage in DNA and activates DNA repair processes splice junctions during RNA splicing 22. Which is not a component of metabolic syndrome? obesity diabetes metabolic syndrome is a risk factor for diabetes and does not involve diabetes directly. hypertension dyslipidemia insulin resistance 23. Why is methotrexate such an effective inhibitor of dTMP synthesis? Methotrexate is a substrate analog competitive inhibitor of thymidylate synthase Methotrexate directly blocks the enzyme that makes formyl-tetrahydrofolate Methotrexate directly blocks the enzyme that makes methylene-tetrahydrofolate Thymidylate synthase oxidizes tetrahydrofoloate to dihydrofolate Thus converting THF to DHF and thus requiring DHFR for every reaction that is catalyzed by thymidylate synthase. Methotrexate blocks utilization of the vitamin form of folic acid 24. The symptoms of gout are caused by xanthine β-alanine β-aminobutyrate acetate urate cholate β-hydroxybutyrate MCMP 208 Exam IV - 7 ESSAY PROBLEMS. Write your answers to problems 25 to 30 in the space immediately below each problem. 25. [6 points] Consider nucleosomes and chromatosomes a. [2 points] What is the generic name for the proteins that are present in chromatosomes and nucleosomes? What is their unusual characteristic that gives rise to the nucleosome structure? Histones They are unusually basic (rich in lysine), which is how they bind to DNA (electrostatically) b. [2 points] What is the other macromolecule involved in nucleosomes and chromatosomes? What structural characteristic does it have when it is part of a nucleosome or chromatosome that it generally does not have when it is not involved in one of these structures? DNA It is wound around the core histones in a negative (toroidal) supercoil c. [2 points] Nucleosomes and chromatosomes have three distinct functions in cells. List two of these functions. Any 2 of these three are acceptable: Compaction of DNA Introduction of negative supercoils Regulation of transcription or gene expression 26. [5 points] During DNA replication, explain why one strand of template DNA is not replicated at exactly the same time as the other template strand is replicated. [Hint: This is why one strand is called the “lagging strand.”] One of the template strands can be replicated in the same direction that the fork is opening, so its site of replication can be very near the fork. The other strand must be synthesized in the opposite direction relative to the fork since (a) DNA is anti-parallel (and thus the two template strands are in opposite directions) and (b) DNA is always synthesized in the 5′ to 3′ direction. The strand that is synthesized in the other direction is synthesized starting at the fork and going back in the direction that the fork came from. This synthesis cannot start until a primer is made very near the fork. For this reason, the region that is being replicated (the Okazaki fragment) is always replicating DNA in a region where the other strand has already been replicated. MCMP 208 Exam IV - 8 27. [3 points] In Sanger DNA sequencing, DNA is synthesized by the typical primer extension reaction. Other than this primer extension reaction and labeling of the DNA so it can be detected, what are the two key methodological steps in Sanger DNA sequencing that make it possible to use this simple primer extension reaction to determine the sequence of DNA? 1) Dideoxy nucleotides are used in the extension reaction to stop the extension reaction at a particular nucleotide. These are done in 4 separate reactions, one for each base, creating four sets of extension products that differ in which base is at their 3′ end. 2) Separation of the extension products by electrophoresis on a gel that can resolve differences in length of just one nucleotide. 28. [3 points] Explain how it is known with certainty that nucleotide excision repair is essential in humans for repairing pyrimidine dimmers in DNA. People with xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) have the heritable triat of being sensitive to UV light induced skin pathologies, including cancer. All the XP patients have a inherited a defective allele of one of the enzymes involved in nucleotide excision repair. 29. [5 points] The initial transcript of a human gene encoding a protein is 22,920nt long. This initial transcript has seven exon/intron segments (numbered 1 to 7, 5′ to 3′) with the following lengths: Segment 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Length (nt) 4500 5500 120 10100 160 2460 180 a. [3 points] Which segments are exons and how do you know this? How long is the mature mRNA? [Show your work for partial credit] Segments 1, 3, 5, and 7 are exons because the transcript must start and end with an exon, because introns are removed by splicing together adjacent exons. The mature mRNA is 4500+120+160+180 = 4960 nt long. (This is the sum of the lengths of the exon segments) b. [2 points] If the start codon is after 4300 of the first exon and the stop codon is located immediately after 30 nt in the last exon, how long is the ORF (not inclucding the stop codon)? [Show your work for partial credit] 510 nt There are two ways to get to the answer: MCMP 208 Exam IV - 9 One way: Sum the translated regions of the first and last exons with the lengths of the two middle exons, which are completely translated: 200+120+160+30= 510 nt Other way: Subtract the untranslated regions from the full length of the initial transcript. The 5′ UTR is 4500-200 long = 4300nt. The 3′ UTR is 180-30 = 150 nt long. The ORF is thus 4960 – 4300 – 150 = 510nt 30. [6 points] Not all of the purine and pyrimidine bases are synthesized (as nucleotides) de novo. Those not made de novo are made by inter-conversion reactions. Indicate which nucleotide bases are made de novo and then, for each of those made de novo, indicate which other nucleotide bases are made from them by inter-conversion reactions. Note: Either the base name or the nucleotide name/abbreviation can be used for the answer. Both are not required. However, the correct nucleotide must be indicated. (For purines:) hypoxanthine (as IMP) is made de novo then guanine (as GMP) and adenine (as AMP) are made from hypoxanthine (as IMP) by inter-conversion reactions (For pyrimidines:) uracil (as UMP) is made de novo then cytosine (as CTP) is made from uracil (as UTP) and thymine (as dTMP) is made from uracil (as dUMP) by interconversion reactions