Download Practice MC Exam - Waterford Union High School

Spring 2012 Agriscience Final
Name (print large and clearly):
Date:
Hr:
Directions: Do NOT open this packet until instructed to do so. There should be absolutely NO TALKING during the exam
unless you have raised your hand and have been called on by the instructor. Failure to do so will result in one verbal
warning, and then a failed test grade.
Students should sit on opposite sides of the lab tables for this exam. DO NOT sit together on the same side.
Select the BEST answer to each question from the options given (more than one may sound right, but there is only one
entirely correct answer per question). Be sure to clearly mark your answers on the Scantron sheet. You may write on
your test packet, but only answers on the Scantron will be considered.
You may use one and only one 3x5” note card with your own handwritten note. This notecard must stay on the desk in
front of you at all times.
Exam test taking tips:
Treat each question like a short answer question if you can. Cover the answers, create an answer in your head, and then
match that answer to those given to find the best answer.
If you do not know an answer, skip it and come back later.
Use information from other questions to help you. One question may help you answer another question.
Cross off answers to eliminate and lower possibilities. If you cannot narrow the options to just one, select the answer
that sounds the best to you and makes the most sense.
Read each question AND each option carefully. Do not select an answer until you have read them all!
Good Luck!
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.
1. To sequence DNA, we would typically use
a. Red blood cells b. White blood cells c. Skin cells d. Plasma
2. The first step of isolating DNA is to centrifuge your blood, meaning we…
a. Shake it vigorously
b. Heat it quickly
c. Spin it rapidly
d. Insert it into bacteria
3. In order to access the nuclei inside of the cells, we must _____ the cells with a detergent
a. Boil b. Freeze c. Stir d. Lyse
4. Nuclei can be separated from the rest of the cell contents using…
a. Lysing agent b. Heat c. Enzymes d. Centrifugation
5. To separate DNA from the rest of the contents of the nucleus, we would use…
a. Water b. Alcohol c. Heat d. Centrifugation
6. To read DNA letter by letter, we would use the ___________ Method
a. Sanger b. Sequencer c. Separator d. Babcock
7. To break DNA into more manageable chunks, we would use a ….
a. Acid b. Base c. E. coli bacteria d. Restriction Enzyme
8. To copy the same piece of DNA many times, we would use a ….
a. Acid b. Base c. E. coli bacteria d. Restriction Enzyme
9. To denature DNA means to…
a. Multiply it b. Separate it into individual strands c. Cut it into pieces d. Purify it
10. A primer does which of the following?
a. Tells helicase where to open the DNA
b. Indicates where to add bases
c. Adds bases to the single stranded DNA
d. Stops the addition of bases in random places and dyes the strand
11. Polymerase does which of the following?
a. Tells helicase where to open the DNA
b. Indicates where to add bases
c. Adds bases to the single stranded DNA
d. Stops the addition of bases in random places and dyes the strand
12. A ddNTP does which of the following?
a. Tells helicase where to open the DNA
b. Indicates where to add bases
c. Adds bases to the single stranded DNA
d. Stops the addition of bases in random places and dyes the strand
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.
13. How is a ddNTP different from a normal base?
a. It is dyed
b. It stops the addition of any other bases
c. It indicates the last letter added in any sequence
d. All of the above
14. Why do we put the replicated DNA fragments into an electrified gel?
a. This purifies the DNA
b. This colors the DNA so we can read it
c. This separates the DNA chunks from longest to shortest so that they can be read
d. All of the above
15. How does a computer know how to read DNA?
a. The last base added colors the entire stretch of DNA; a laser excites the ddNTP to determine this color
b. A computer can see each DNA chunk and read it letter by letter
c. The computer can convert the molecular structure of each base into a color
d. The DNA uses E. coli bacteria to read the DNA
16. An intron is…
a. A section of DNA that codes for a protein
b. A section of DNA that codes for nothing
c. A tool used to separate useful DNA from useless DNA
d. A tool that determines whether or not DNA has an Open Reading Frame
17. An exon is…
a. A section of DNA that codes for a protein
b. A section of DNA that codes for nothing
c. A tool used to separate useful DNA from useless DNA
d. A tool that determines whether or not DNA has an Open Reading Frame
18. Which of the following would have an Open Reading Frame?
a. An intron b. An exon c. A polymerase d. A ddNTP
19. An Open Reading Frame can be identified by a lack of ______ between the beginning and end of the gene.
a. ddNTPs b. Proteins c. Stop commands d. Introns
20. The Human Genome Project has made it possible for us to…
a. Read every letter of the human genome
b. Identify the causes of thousands of genetic diseases
c. Create tests to check any individual for their risk of over a thousand diseases
d. All of the above
21. This test enables scientists to read the entire genome of DNA letter by letter.
a. Polymerase Chain Reaction b. Restriction Fragment Analysis c. Electrophoresis d. Sanger Method
22. This test enables scientists to cheaply and easily create many copies of a small piece of DNA.
a. Polymerase Chain Reaction b. Restriction Fragment Analysis c. Electrophoresis d. Sanger Method
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.
23. This process is when we pull DNA fragments through a gel to create a banding pattern.
a. Polymerase Chain Reaction b. Restriction Fragment Analysis c. Electrophoresis d. Sanger Method
24. This process is where we compare bands of DNA to other samples of DNA.
a. Polymerase Chain Reaction b. Restriction Fragment Analysis c. Electrophoresis d. Sanger Method
25. A DNA Fingerprint is where…
a. We examine the patterns on your fingertips to determine what genes you have in your body
b. We examine your DNA to determine the patterns created by your fingerprints
c. We examine variations in a person’s DNA to determine what aspects are unique to an individual
d. We use forensic methods to find traces of DNA at a crime scene
26. If we want to create a DNA fingerprint, we would most likely use ____ because they have the most variability.
a. Introns b. Exons c. Extrons d. All of the above
27. Your DNA is ________% the same as the DNA of any other person
a. 89.9 b. 94.9 c. 99.9 d. 100.0
28. What is a Short Tandem Repeat (STR)?
a. When short sections of DNA repeat over and over at varying locations in the genome
b. When exons repeat over and over, creating much more noticeable traits
c. When the exact same gene is found in many different people
d. When multiple people lacking in height get on the same bicycle over and over.
29. A crime scene investigator collected the following data. Based on this evidence, which suspect has the most
direct link to the crime scene?
a. Suspect 1
# Repeats, # Repeats,
Crime
Crime
# Repeats, # Repeats, # Repeats,
b. Suspect 2
STR
Scene
Scene
Victim's
Suspect 1's Suspect 2's
c. All of the above
Region
Sample 1
Sample 2
DNA
DNA
DNA
d. None of the above
1
14
7
14
14
7
2
3
5
3
7
5
30. For your answer above, does
3
7
19
7
12
19
this prove they committed
4
2
4
2
11
4
the crime?
5
11
3
11
5
3
a. Yes B. No
31. The main purpose of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is to….
a. Find genes of interest in an individual’s genome
b. Read the genome of an individual letter by letter
c. Create many copies of DNA so that it can be analyzed by other methods
d. Make it so that DNA is not denatured by heat
32. In order to create copies of DNA through PCR, we have to use _____ due to the heat used for denaturing.
a. Human polymerase b. Bt polymerase c. Taq polymerase d. DNA Helicase
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.
33. To denature DNA means to…
a. Create many copies
b. Separate the DNA into two single strands
c. Cut the DNA into pieces
d. Run the DNA through a gel
34. Why is it necessary to run the DNA through a gel after we have amplified it and cut it with a restriction enzyme?
a. To determine how much DNA was in that particular section that was copied
b. To create a specific banding pattern to identify the source of the DNA or a possible genetic disease
c. To separate the fragments on the basis of size
d. All of the above
35. After DNA has been run through a gel, we must _____ the gel to make the DNA visible.
a. Treat the gel with a restriction enzyme
b. Stain the DNA
c. Shine a laser through the gel
d. Add helicase to
36. In case A (on the final page), you can see DNA samples from blood found on the scene of a crime, DNA from two
suspects, and DNA from a murder victim. Case A clearly shows that the blood was from…
a. The victim b. The victim and suspect 1 c. The victim and suspect 2 d. Suspect 1 and Suspect 2
37. In case A, if blood from a suspect was found at the scene of the crime, does this prove they committed the
crime?
a. Yes B. No
38. In Case B, you can see genes for the hemoglobin gene that were cut by the MstII restriction enzyme. Based on
this gel, which of the following are homozygous recessive for the sickle cell anemia mutation?
a. Emma b. Josiah c. KC d. Mattie
39. In Case B, which of the following would be considered heterozygous carriers of this disease?
a. Emma & Josiah b. Emma and KC c. Josiah and KC d. Emma, Josiah, and Mattie
40. In Case B, which of the following would be homozygous dominant and not be a carrier of the disease?
a. Emma b. Josiah c. KC d. Mattie e. None of the above; all are either carriers or have the disease
41. Southern Blotting is a test that looks for a specific _____________
a. Protein b. Antigen c. Gene d. Enzyme
42. What must be performed before Southern Blotting can be performed?
a. Sanger Method b. PCR/Electrophoresis c. ELISA d. All of the above
43. Before Southern Blotting can be performed, DNA must be transferred to a ____________
a. Gel b. Centrifuge c. Membrane d. E. coli bacterium
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.
44. To identify a gene in question, we must use a probe. How does the probe find the gene in question?
a. The probe has a complementary sequence that binds to the gene.
b. The probe has an identical sequence to that gene and travels the same distance in the gel.
c. The probe stops the addition of bases to a strand of DNA.
d. All of the above
45. Southern blotting only works for ___________ disease.
a. Infectious b. Incurable c. Genetic d. Curable
46. ELISA is a test that only works for ___________ disease.
a. Infectious b. Incurable c. Genetic d. Curable
47. ELISA works by detecting ______________
a. Genes b. Polymerases c. Proteins d. White blood cells
48. ___________ is the protein produced by the disease while __________ is the protein that recognizes the
disease.
a. Antibody, Antigen
b. Antigen, Antibody
c. Gene, Enzyme
d. Enzyme, Gene
49. If an individual has a disease, their blood will always contain _________ specific to that disease
a. Antigens b. Antibodies c. All of the above
50. If a disease is present in a blood sample, the well of the ELISA plate containing that sample will _______
a. Glow b. Not change c. Move the furthest d. Change color
51. The severity of a disease can be determined through the ELISA test by …
a. Measuring how dark the color is
b. How much the bands of DNA move
c. Whether or not the probe binds a gene
d. All of the above
52. Case C is an example of….
a. Sanger Method b. PCR-Electrophoresis c. Southern Blotting d. ELISA
53. In Case C, we are testing for recessive genetic disease. The mother (Megan) is _______ for this disease.
a. Heterozygous b. Homozygous Recessive c. Homozygous Dominant d. None of the above
54. The father (Greg) is _______ for this disease.
a. Heterozygous b. Homozygous Recessive c. Homozygous Dominant d. None of the above
55. The fetus is _______ for this disease.
a. Heterozygous b. Homozygous Recessive c. Homozygous Dominant d. None of the above
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.
56. The unborn fetus _____________________
a. Does not have the disease and does not carry it
b. Carries the disease but does not have it
c. Has the disease and carries it
d. None of the above
57. In Case C, the black dashes on the test results represent…
a. DNA that was copied repeatedly
b. Probes for genes that bind to DNA and “light up” if the gene is present
c. Antibodies
d. Antigens
58. Case D is an example of….
a. Sanger Method b. PCR-Electrophoresis c. Southern Blotting d. ELISA
59. In Case D, a woman named Katrice contracted HIV from her boyfriend in high school who was an active drug
user. She was not aware of her infection until after she was married and had a child. In this test, you can see
blood samples from Katrice, her husband (father) and her daughter Latranya at both 3 months and 6 months of
age. You can also see a negative (lane 6) and a positive control (lane 1). Who is HIV positive?
a. The father and Latranya (infant)
b. Katrice and her husband (the father)
c. Katrice and Latranya (infant)
d. Katrice only
e. None of the above
60. What is the purpose of a positive and negative control?
a. A positive control always tests positive and tells us if we performed the test correctly
b. A negative control always tests negative and tells us if we performed the test correctly
c. Each control provides a comparison, allowing use to better read the results of individual tests
d. All of the above
61. Why do the wells in Case D turn color?
a. Because of dyed antigens or antibodies
b. Because of ddNTPs
c. Because of the blood sample
d. Because of a tagged probe
62. The substances in our bodies that identify diseases and foreign substances are called…
a. Antigens b. Antibodies c. Primers d. Open Reading Frames
63. A zygote is….
a. A sperm or egg cell
b. An enucleated egg
c. A fertilized egg cell
d. A modified cell
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.
64. Hans Spemann worked on which experiment? He…
a. Tied a fertilized salamander zygote in half with a hair and created two identical salamander embryos
b. Removed the nucleus of a frog zygote and inserted into an unfertilized frog egg cell
c. Took the nucleus from a frog intestinal cell and inserted it into an unfertilized egg cell
d. Took the nucleus from the mammary cell and inserted into an enucleated egg cell
65. In their experiment Briggs and King…
a. Tied a fertilized salamander zygote in half with a hair and created two identical salamander embryos
b. Removed the nucleus of a frog zygote and inserted into an unfertilized frog egg cell
c. Took the nucleus from a frog intestinal cell and inserted it into an unfertilized egg cell
d. Took the nucleus from the mammary cell and inserted into an enucleated egg cell
66. John Gurdon worked on which experiment? He…
a. Tied a fertilized salamander zygote in half with a hair and created two identical salamander embryos
b. Removed the nucleus of a frog zygote and inserted into an unfertilized frog egg cell
c. Took the nucleus from a frog intestinal cell and inserted it into an unfertilized egg cell
d. Took the nucleus from the mammary cell and inserted into an enucleated egg cell
67. The scientists who worked on Dolly the Sheep did which of the following? They…
a. Tied a fertilized salamander zygote in half with a hair and created two identical salamander embryos
b. Removed the nucleus of a frog zygote and inserted into an unfertilized frog egg cell
c. Took the nucleus from a frog intestinal cell and inserted it into an unfertilized egg cell
d. Took the nucleus from the mammary cell and inserted into an enucleated egg cell
68. Why was the re-nucleated sheep egg cell jolted with electricity after inserting the nucleus of a mammary cell?
a. To induce it to start dividing
b. To seal the membrane shut after it was broken to insert the nucleus
c. To raise the temperature to body temp
d. Because electricity is cool
69. How many attempts did it take to create Dolly?
a. 1 b. 10 c. 120 d. 277
70. Which of the following problems did Dolly have?
a. Enlarged organs b. Obesity c. Arthritis d. All of the above
71. How did the telomeres of Dolly compare to those of other sheep’s cells?
a. Her telomeres were longer
b. Her telomeres were shorter
c. Her telomeres were the same size
d. She did not have any telomeres
72. How does the length of telomeres relate to the age of a cell?
a. The older the cell, the shorter the telomeres
b. The older the cell, the longer the telomeres
c. The older the cell, the wider the telomeres
d. The size of telomeres does not relate to the age of the cell
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.
73. Telomeres are most like…
a. A lock and a key b. The color of a T-shirt c. The lip of a soda can d. The plastic caps on shoelaces
74. Is it scientifically accurate to argue that a cloned animal will look and behave like its original?
a. No – not all DNA is found in the nucleus; some is also in the mitochondria and some traits are affected
by the environment more than by DNA
b. Yes - if two organisms have the same DNA, they will look and behave the same
c. No – no two organisms can ever have the same genes
d. Yes – to clone means to make an exact copy
75. Why did the first cloned cat, CC, have different colored fur than her original, Rainbow?
a. In the process of cloning, sometimes the genes are changed
b. CC’s mitochondrial DNA was different than rainbows
c. The color of fur in cats is decided randomly based on which X-chromosome is expressed; because CC
came from a cell that already “chose” an X-chromosome, she had only one color – black (instead of
black and orange)
d. CC was not actually a clone of Rainbow – she just had some of her genes
76. Which of the following is shown on upper left?
a. Zygote b. Morulla c. Blastocyst
77. Which of the following is shown on the lower right?
a. Zygote b. Morulla c. Blastocyst
78. At what stage is the inner cell mass formed
a. Zygote b. Morulla c. Blastocyst
79. Which of the following does the mesoderm create?
a. nerve cells, skin cells, spinal cord, and brain
b. blood, muscle, and bone cells.
c. gut, bladder, liver, pancreas, and lungs.
80. Which of the following does the endoderm create?
a. nerve cells, skin cells, spinal cord, and brain
b. blood, muscle, and bone cells.
c. gut, bladder, liver, pancreas, and lungs.
81. Which of the following does the ectoderm create?
a. nerve cells, skin cells, spinal cord, and brain
b. blood, muscle, and bone cells.
c. gut, bladder, liver, pancreas, and lungs.
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.
82. Embryonic Stem Cells differ from Adult Stem Cells how?
a. Adult Stem Cells can become any cell in the body
b. Adult Stem Cells are not found in people under 18
c. Adult Stem Cells have a limited ability to differentiate into different kinds of tissue
d. Adult Stem Cells are legal; Embryonic Stem Cells are illegal
83. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an embryonic stem cell?
a. They can divide and renew themselves over very long periods of time
b. They can become any kind of tissue in the body
c. If grown into a donor organ, they would not be rejected by the transplant patient’s body
d. They do not have a specific function unless directed otherwise
84. Embryonic Stem Cells come from…
a. A zygote, or fertilized egg
b. A morulla (a ball of cells that forms shortly after fertilization)
c. The inner cell mass of the blastocyst
d. The bone marrow of unborn fetuses
85. Which of the following is pluripotent?
a. Embyronic stem cells
b. Adult stem cells
c. Somatic stem cells
d. All of the above
86. President Bush signed legislation into law that did which of the following?
a. Banned all stem cell research
b. Banned adult stem cell research
c. Banned embryonic stem cell research
d. Banned the use of federal funds for some kinds of embryonic stem cell research
87. What individual is recognized for developing the science of embryonic stem cells?
a. Stephen Babcock b. James Watson c. James Thomson d. Tom Jameson
88. What institution was the first to develop primate embryonic stem cell lines?
a. Stanford
b. Harvard
c. Michigan State
d. University of Wisconsin-Madison
89. What institution was the first to develop human embryonic stem cell lines?
a. Stanford
b. Harvard
c. Michigan State
d. University of Wisconsin-Madison
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.
90. Which individual created embryonic stem cells from skin cells?
a. Stephen Babcock b. James Watson c. James Thomson d. Tom Jameson
You may tear this page off from the rest of the packet.
b.
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.
Copyright 2012 by Craig Kohn, Agricultural Sciences, Waterford WI. This source may be freely used and distributed provided the author is cited.