Download genes: genetics, gemonics, an evolution

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GENES:
GENETICS, GEMONICS, AN EVOLUTION
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. Which of the following is most logical from a health perspective?
a. Light skin and little exposure to sun.
b. Light skin and extensive exposure to sun.
c. Dark skin and little exposure to sun.
d. Dark skin and lots of exposure to sun.
e. Light skin and little sun, or dark skin and lots of sun.
____
2. The probability of producing a normal child by two parents who are carriers for an autosomal recessive
disorder is
a. 0%.
b. 25%.
c. 50%.
d. 75%.
e. 100%.
____
3. The Punnett square illustration above shows that theoretically
a. half of human sperm carry a Y chromosome.
b. half of human zygotes are XY.
c. all zygotes carry an X chromosome.
d. gender depends upon which type of sperm fertilizes the egg.
e. all of these are true.
____
4. Concerning the sex chromosomes, which of the following is correct?
a. The Y chromosome carries a greater number of genes for nonsexual traits than does the X.
b. X and Y are different in size but carry nearly equal numbers of genes.
c. The X chromosome carries more genes for nonsexual traits than does the Y.
d. The X chromosome carries only gender-related genes.
e. The X chromosome carries the SRY gene.
____
5. An X-linked carrier is a
a. homozygous dominant female.
b. heterozygous female.
c. homozygous recessive female.
d. homozygous male.
e. heterozygous male.
____
6. A woman heterozygous for color blindness (an X-linked recessive allele) marries a man with normal color
vision. What is the probability that their first child will be color blind?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
e. none of these
____
7. If a daughter expresses an X-linked recessive gene, she inherited the trait from
a. her mother.
b. her father.
c. both parents.
d. neither parent.
e. her grandmother.
____
8. Chromosomal aberrations can be produced by exposure to
a. viruses.
b. radiation.
c. various chemicals.
d. viruses and radiation only.
e. viruses, radiation, and various chemicals.
____
9. A chromosome's gene sequence that was ABCDEFG before modification and ABCDCDEFG afterward is an
example of
a. inversion.
b. deletion.
c. duplication.
d. translocation.
e. aneuploidy.
____ 10. Polyploidy
a. can occur naturally.
b. occurs when there are more than two sets of chromosomes.
c. can be artificially induced by colchicine.
d. is responsible for some of our major foods.
e. is all of these.
____ 11. The failure of chromosomes to separate during mitosis or meiosis is called
a. genetic displacement.
b. trisomy.
c. crossing over.
d. nondisjunction.
e. disjunction.
____ 12. The sex chromosome composition of a person with Turner syndrome is
a. XXX.
b. XO.
c. XXY.
d. XYY.
e. none of these.
____ 13. Amniocentesis is
a. a surgical means of repairing deformities.
b. a form of chemotherapy that modifies or inhibits gene expression or the function of gene
products.
c. used in prenatal diagnosis to detect chromosomal mutations and metabolic disorders in
embryos.
d. a form of gene replacement therapy.
e. all of these.
____ 14. What fraction of your DNA is the same as every other human being?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 95%
e. 99%
____ 15. Bacteria use restriction enzymes to
a. integrate viral DNA.
b. destroy viral DNA.
c. prevent mutation of their DNA.
d. copy their genes.
e. inhibit the expression of some of their genes.
____ 16. Small circular molecules of "extra" DNA in bacteria
a. are plasmids.
b. are DNA fragments from their main chromosome.
c. result from the activity of restriction enzymes.
d. are eventually degraded.
e. are none of these.
The following questions refer to the figure above illustrating the initial steps in the formation of recombinant
DNA.
____ 17. The scissors in the figure represent
a. restriction enzymes.
b. reverse transcriptases.
c. DNA polymerases.
d. RNA polymerases.
e. DNA ligases.
____ 18. The circles in "B" are
a. fragments of the main bacterial DNA.
b. plasmids.
c. cDNA molecules.
d. DNA templates.
e. none of these.
____ 19. RNA can be used as a template for the production of DNA through the action of
a. DNA polymerase.
b. RNA polymerase.
c. reverse transcriptase.
d. ligase.
e. restriction endonuclease.
____ 20. cDNA
a. does not contain introns.
b. is produced from mRNA.
c. production utilizes reverse transcriptase.
d. begins as a hybrid molecule with an mRNA.
e. fits all of these descriptions.
____ 21. A collection of host cells that house different cloned fragments of DNA is a
a. cDNA library.
b. transcribed DNA library.
c. genomic library.
d. gene library.
e. plasmid library.
____ 22. For the polymerase chain reaction to occur,
a. isolated DNA molecules must be primed.
b. all DNA fragments must be identical.
c. the DNA must remain double stranded.
d. a sticky end must be available for the ligase enzyme to function.
e. all of these must occur.
____ 23. Gel electrophoresis separates the DNA fragments according to
a. their length.
b. their mass.
c. their speed of travel through the gel.
d. the number of nucleotides in the fragment.
e. all of these.
____ 24. In automated DNA sequencing, eventually there will be millions of DNA fragments all tagged at
a. one end.
b. both ends.
c. every nucleotide.
d. the most numerous nucleotide.
e. the least numerous nucleotide.
____ 25. Which area of biology is concerned with studying gene maps, looking for similarities and differences that
point to evolutionary connections?
a. structural genomics
b. Darwinian genomics
c. phylogenetic genomics
d. comparative genomics
e. classical genomics
____ 26. Genetic engineering started with
a. bacteria.
b. viruses.
c. fungi.
d. plants.
e. animals.
____ 27. One of the first successful applications of genetic engineering was the commercial production of
a. clotting factor.
b. insulin.
c. hemoglobin.
d. collagen.
e. human growth factor.
____ 28. Seed banks
a. provide a source of seeds for farmers.
b. preserve seeds for museums.
c. preserve plant genetic diversity to be tapped by genetic engineers.
d. distribute seeds to member seed companies.
e. do all of these.
____ 29. The term "biotech barnyards" commonly refers to
a. the production of human products by farm animals.
b. the development of new species of farm animals.
c. the increase of milk, egg, and wool production.
d. ultramodern methods of rearing more animals on less feed.
e. creation of transgenic animals that can produce more of their natural products.
____ 30. Genetic engineering has produced which of the following animals?
a. freeze-resistant salmon
b. low-fat pigs
c. extra hefty sheep
d. cows resistant to mad cow disease
e. all of these
____ 31. Which of the following statements is true?
a. There is no danger involved in recombinant DNA research in humans.
b. There is no danger involved in recombinant DNA research in bacteria.
c. There is no danger in releasing recombinant organisms into the environment.
d. Stringent safety rules make the use of recombinant DNA research possible.
e. None of these staements is true.
____ 32. Gene therapy
a. has not yet been used successfully with mammals.
b. is a surgical technique that replaces defective genes with normal genes.
c. has been used successfully to treat victims of autosomal dominant disorders by replacing
the dominant allele with a recessive allele.
d. is a genetic engineering technique that replaces defective alleles with normal ones.
e. is none of these.
____ 33. The results of the treatment of 20 boys with SCID-X1 showed that
a. SCID-X1 can be cured through genetic engineering.
b. most of the treated boys were cured of the disease.
c. a transplanted normal IL2RG gene can cure SCID-X1.
d. our understanding of the human genome lags behind our ability to modify it.
e. all of these are true.
____ 34. The goal of eugenics is to
a. selectively engineer and change normal human traits into what some perceive to be more
desirable characteristics.
b. eliminate genetic disorders.
c. produce genetically identical humans.
d. eliminate genes for abnormal behavior.
e. accomplish all of these.
____ 35. Which of the following statements is NOT true about asteroids?
a. They have had little influence on the history of life.
b. They do not emit light and are difficult to see.
c. Their impacts have produced craters visible in satellite images.
d. One asteroid impacted our planet just prior to the mass extinctions at the K-T boundary.
e. An asteroid impact releases an enormous quantity of energy.
____ 36. Scientists began to question the perfection of the Chain of Being because of
a. the discovery of new organisms in new parts of the world.
b. the presence of body parts with no apparent function in some organisms.
c. the existence of fossil forms.
d. similarities in the structures found in different forms of life.
e. all of these.
____ 37. The study of the distribution of animals and plants around the world is
a. diversity.
b. biogeography.
c. ecology.
d. natural history.
e. environmentalism.
____ 38. Fossils
a. are found in underground layers of rock.
b. are distributed underground, with the oldest forms near the top.
c. have more complex structures the deeper they are buried.
d. are the same throughout the world no matter where they are found.
e. that are most like living organisms are found deepest in the ground.
____ 39. The tailbone of humans is an example of:
a. a developing feature.
b. an accidental feature.
c. a vestigial feature.
d. an example of the great chain of being.
e. none of these.
____ 40. Cuvier, an anatomist and paleontologist, proposed that
a. all present-day organisms have descended, with adaptations, from one--or possibly a
few--original organisms.
b. the earth's history has been marked by several periods when destruction of populations
was widespread and that, after each such period, the earth was repopulated.
c. evolutionary changes in organisms are caused by use and disuse.
d. although evolution is responsible for all the changes that happen to species, one center of
creation resulted in the original members of each species.
e. none of these are true.
____ 41. Which of the following would be a modern example of Lamarckianism?
a. A strain of houseflies resistant to insecticides emerges.
b. Squirrels separated by a river are found to be unable to interbreed.
c. A son is born with a portion of his right index finger missing--the same portion that was
severed from his father's hand in an accident.
d. A strain of houseflies resistant to insecticides emerges, and squirrels separated by a river
are found to be unable to interbreed.
e. A strain of houseflies resistant to insecticides emerges; squirrels separated by a river are
found to be unable to interbreed, and a son is born with a portion of his right index finger
missing--the same portion that was cut off from his father's hand in an accident.
____ 42. The value to Darwin of Lyell's ideas on the geologic history of the earth was the
a. evidence from fossils.
b. record of catastrophic changes that encouraged evolution.
c. confirmation of Lamarck's theories.
d. enormous lengths of time required for geologic events.
e. proof of several sites of creation.
____ 43. Thomas Malthus proposed that
a. the food supply increased faster than the population.
b. the population increased faster than the food supply.
c. the food supply and population increased at the same rate.
d. artificial selection was the key to evolution.
e. natural selection was the key to evolution.
____ 44. Which of the following was NOT one of Darwin's observations?
a. Most individuals have an equal chance to survive and reproduce.
b. Changes in populations are gradual and take place over long periods of time.
c. Members of the same species may exhibit considerable variation.
d. Some characteristics are heritable and passed on to offspring.
e. Some characteristics afford their possessor a better chance of survival.
____ 45. One part of Darwin's theory is that individuals with certain traits have an increased competitive edge. The
source of these traits is
a. adaptation to stress.
b. development over a lifetime.
c. inheritance.
d. mutation after birth.
e. all of these.
____ 46. Which of the following evolve?
a. populations
b. genera
c. kingdoms
d. both populations and genera
e. populations, genera, and kingdoms
____ 47. The fossil record is incomplete because
a. very few organisms were preserved as fossils.
b. organisms tend to decay before becoming a fossil.
c. animals with hard parts are preserved more easily.
d. geologic processes may destroy fossils.
e. all of these are true.
____ 48. Radiometric dating
a. is based on the premise that each isotope decays at a constant rate.
b. is unpredictable because changes in temperature and pressure alter the results.
c. can be used to date sedimentary rock.
d. has a large error factor.
e. is used for dating only recent fossils.
____ 49. Plate tectonic theory is based on
a. a thermal convection model in which cool material in the earth's mantle rises and spreads
laterally beneath the crustal plates.
b. the idea that the earth's crust is fragmented into rigid crusts that are sinking slowly beneath
crustal plates.
c. the idea that coacervate formation causes continents to drift apart slowly on their crustal
plates.
d. observations that the sea floor is slowly spreading away from oceanic ridges due to
thermal convection in the mantle.
e. all of these.
____ 50. The distribution of living organisms would be increased by
a. continental drift.
b. the formation of Pangea.
c. the sea-floor spreading.
d. the movement of Gondwana.
e. all but "the formation of Pangea."
____ 51. The geologic time scale is subdivided on the basis of
a. the appearance of different radioactive isotopes in different strata.
b. levels of background extinction.
c. periods of mass extinction.
d. the appearance of different radioactive isotopes in different strata and levels of
background extinction.
e. the appearance of different radioactive isotopes in different strata, levels of background
extinction, and periods of mass extinction.
Matching
Matching. Match the cause with the disorder.
a. autosomal recessive inheritance; lactose metabolism is blocked
b. nondisjunction of the twenty-first chromosomal pair
c. X-linked recessive inheritance
d. nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes
____ 52. galactosemia
____ 53. red-green color blindness
____ 54. hemophilia A
____ 55. Turner syndrome
Classification. To answer the following questions refer to the five items listed below:
a. restriction enzymes
b. recombinants
c. plasmids
d. clones
e. restriction sites
____ 56. These are bacterial populations containing thousands or millions of identical copies of one to several genes.
____ 57. The use of the techniques of genetic engineering to move a novel or foreign piece of DNA into the DNA of an
organism produces DNA __________.
____ 58. The pieces of DNA that are moved by a genetic engineer from one organism to another are first incorporated
into these.
____ 59. The function of these is to cut apart foreign DNA molecules.
Classification. To answer the following questions refer to the four items listed below.
a. cDNA
b. restriction enzyme
c. reverse transcriptase
d. gene library
____ 60. This is from a viral source and catalyzes reactions to construct DNA strands from mRNA.
____ 61. This is any DNA made from mRNA transcripts.
____ 62. This is a nuclease whose only function is to cut apart foreign DNA entering a cell.
____ 63. These are collections of host cells that house cloned DNA.
____ 64. This is an enzyme used to produce cDNA.
Matching. Select the most appropriate choice for each person.
a. wrote Principles of Geology
b. developed the theory of catastrophism
c. believed that giraffes have long necks because their short-necked ancestors stretched their
necks and passed this change on to their offspring
d. was a naturalist who sailed on the Beagle and studied finches
e. wrote an essay relating population size to competition for limited resources
f. natural historian and author; early ideas of Chain of Being
____ 65. Aristotle
____ 66. Cuvier
____ 67. Darwin
____ 68. Lamarck
____ 69. Lyell
____ 70. Malthus
Problem
71. An X-linked recessive gene (c) produces red-green color blindness. A normal woman whose father was color
blind marries a color-blind man.
(a) What are the possible genotypes for the mother of the color-blind man?
(b) What are the possible genotypes for the father of the color-blind man?
(c) What are the chances that the first son will be color blind?
(d) What are the chances that the first daughter will be color blind?