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Name: _________________ Genetics Practice Test (H) Date: __________ 1. An organism with genotype QqRr only produces two gamete genotypes, QR and qr. This violates which principle of Mendelian genetics? A) Codominance B) Dominance C) Independent Assortment D) Linkage E) Segregation Base your answers to questions 2 and 3 on the information given below. A heterozygous red-eyed female fruit fly mates with a white-eyed male. Their offspring are one red-eyed female, one white-eyed female and one red-eyed male. 2. What is the probability of their next offspring being a red-eyed male? A) 0% B) 100% C) 50% D) 25% E) 75% 3. The white-eyed allele is A) recessive and autosomal B) dominant and sex-linked C) dominant and autosomal D) a genetic mutation in the female E) recessive and sex-linked 4. In fruit flies (Drosophila), vestigial wings (v) are recessive to normal wings (V). What phenotype(s) of offspring would you expect from the following cross, Vv x vv? A) Four vestigial wings B) Two vestigial and two normal wings C) Three normal and one vestigial D) Three vestigial and one normal E) Four normal wings Page 1 Ms. Kavner Genetics Practice Test (H) Base your answers to questions 5 and 6 on the following pedigree chart for a sex-linked disorder. 5. If Individual 9 marries a woman with one recessive allele, what are their chances of having a normal daughter? A) 75% B) 100% C) 0% D) 25% E) 50% C) XNXN D) XnXn E) nn 6. The genotype of Individual 1 is A) X N X n B) Nn Base your answers to questions 7 and 8 on the diagram below. 7. This trait could be A) polydactyly B) color blindness C) cystic fibrosis D) rickets E) Tay-Sachs disease Page 2 Ms. Kavner Genetics Practice Test (H) 8. The inheritance pattern for the depicted trait is most likely A) sex-linked recessive B) polygenic C) autosomal recessive D) autosomal dominant E) sex-linked dominant 9. According to Mendel, true breeding refers to which of following? A) A homozygous organism. 12. Base your answer to the following question on Base your answer to this question on the karyotype shown below. B) An organism whose pair of alleles will separate independently during gamete formation. C) The offspring that inherited the dominant phenotype. D) A heterozygous organism. E) An organism having two different alleles for a trait. 10. Which of the following is used to determine an unknown genotype of a parent? A) Self-cross The results of the karyotype indicate that this individual has which of the following genetic disorders? B) Test-cross C) Any of the above D) Back-cross E) Front-cross A) Klinefelter Syndrome 11. Which of the following is recessive? B) Sickle-cell anemia A) B blood type C) Phenylketonuria B) Turner’s syndrome D) Down Syndrome C) Five fingers D) Down’s syndrome E) Huntington’s disease E) Turner Syndrome 13. If blond hair, green eyes, and freckles were consistently inherited together, the best explanation would be that A) these traits are codominant B) the genes for these traits are linked on the same chromosome C) these traits are recessive to others D) these traits are dominant to others E) a genetic mutation occurred Page 3 Ms. Kavner Genetics Practice Test (H) 14. When two inherited alleles are expressed at the same time, which of the following is exhibited? 18. A couple has two boys and two girls. If half of their sons are hemophiliacs and the father is normal, the mother must be A) Incomplete Dominance A) either a carrier or a hemophiliac B) Linkage B) either normal or a carrier. C) Epistasis C) a carrier D) Multiple Alleles D) normal E) Codominance E) a hemophiliac 15. Base your answer to the following question on the following information. A man gets into a serious car accident and is bleeding severely. He is taken to the hospital, where they find out his blood type is the universal acceptor. 19. If a Drosophila melanogaster female who expresses a sex-linked recessive trait is mated with a wildtype D. melanogaster male, which of the following is expected to occur? A) 100% of the males will express the trait and 100% of the females will express the trait. B) 50% of the males will express the trait and 50% of the females will express the trait. The inheritance of type AB blood is evidence of C) 0% of the males will express the trait and 100% of the females will express the trait. A) Epistasis B) Pseudodominance D) 100% of the males will express the trait and 0% of the females will express the trait. C) Codominance D) Blending inheritance E) Independent assortment 16. In a cross between a heterozygous pink flower (Rw) and a homozygous white flower (WW), what is the probability that you will have a white flower? Assume incomplete dominance occurs in these flowers. E) 0% of the males and 0% of the females will express the trait. 20. DNA is the polymer for which class of compounds? A) 75% B) 100% C) 25% D) 50% E) 0% B) RNA C) Amino acids D) Genes E) Nucleic acids 17. A pink (Rw) and a red (RR) flower mate. Assuming incomplete dominance, the chance of obtaining a red-colored offspring is A) 50% B) 0% A) Proteins 21. A DNA strand in a double helix has a base sequence of TATCGT. The base sequence of its DNA complement is C) 100% D) 25% E) 75% A) ATAGCA B) AUAGCA C) ACGAUA D) TGCTAT E) TATCGT Page 4 Ms. Kavner Genetics Practice Test (H) 22. Which of the following statements is true? 25. Before a molecule of mRNA can leave the nucleus it must A) DNA has a deoxyribose sugar, while RNA has a ribose sugar A) splice together the 5'cap and the polyA tail B) The nitrogenous bases classified as purines include adenine and cytosine B) excise the exons and attach the polyA tail C) Cytosine pairs with thymine C) be translated by the RNA polymerase D) Both DNA and RNA contain the bases adenine and thymine D) excise the introns and splice the exons together E) Both DNA and RNA are double-stranded E) remove the noncoding regions called exons 23. Which of the following does NOT describe RNA? A) RNA is transcribed in the cytoplasm of a cell 26. What would be the sequence of mRNA bases transcribed from that DNA base sequence TACGGTCA? A) ATGCCAGT B) TUCGGTCU B) Single-stranded C) AUGCCAGU D) AUCGGACU C) Transcribed from a DNA template by RNA polymerase E) TACGGTCA D) Is made up of a nitrogenous base, a five carbon sugar, and a phosphate group E) May contain any of the these phosphate groups - adenine, guanine, uracil, cytosine 24. Following the elongation phase of transcription, what happens to the template DNA strands? A) They are removed from the nucleus to prevent double replication. 27. The triplet of nucleotides of mRNA that corresponds to another unit of nucleotides in tRNA is the A) cistron B) anticodon C) peripheral D) anticistron E) codon 28. Which of the following processes can be referred to as semiconservative? B) They are capped with a poly (A) tail to inhibit degradation. A) Recombination C) They are rewound into a double helix. C) RNA transcription D) They are modified and released from the nucleus. D) Translocation E) They are spliced and packaged into ribosomes. B) Translation E) DNA replication 29. What is the function of DNA ligase? A) Bind nucleotides together during translation B) Unwind the double helix C) Bind nucleotides together during transcription D) Bring together the Okazaki fragments E) Cut and rejoin the helix Page 5 Ms. Kavner Genetics Practice Test (H) 30. What is the role of DNA polymerase? 34. Which of the following occurs in semiconservative DNA replication? A) Bind ribonucleotides together during transcription B) Cut and rejoin the helix A) Pieces of parent and daughter DNA are mixed together in the new generation. C) Bind DNA nucleotides together during transcription B) Neither strand of the parent DNA is replicated. D) Bring together the Okazaki fragments C) Each strand of the double helix serves as a template for the synthesis of its new partner. E) Unwind the double helix into two strands 31. Which of the following statements about translation is INCORRECT? A) Protein synthesis occus on ribosomes. D) The parent duplex is left intact and an entirely new double-stranded molecule is formed. B) rRNAs carry the amino acids to the mRNA strand. E) Only one strand of the double helix replicates. C) A strand of mRNA dictates the amino acids that will be incorporated into protein. D) The mRNA has codons which form base pairs with the anticodons on the tRNA. 35. Which of the following is a result of the defective separation of sister chromatids during meiosis? E) All three types of RNA (messenger, transfer, and ribosomal) are involved in translation. B) 3 C) 45 D) 15 E) 30 B) DNA polymerase C) mRNA D) rRNA E) DNA C) Translocation D) Deletion 36. If a chromosome fragment becomes attached to a nonhomologous chromosome, the result is known as a 33. Anticodons are part of which of the following molecules A) tRNA B) Mutation E) Nondisjunction 32. Fifteen nucleotides code for a protein which contains how many amino acids? A) 5 A) Synapsis A) inversion B) duplication C) transcription D) translocation E) point mutation 37. Which of the following does not lead to genetic variation? A) Anaphase of meiosis I B) Random union of egg and sperm C) Anaphase of mitosis D) Fertilization E) Crossing over Page 6 Ms. Kavner Genetics Practice Test (H) 38. Viruses are not classified as prokaryotes because 40. In viruses, all of the following are associated with reproduction EXCEPT A) they lack genetic material A) each virus forms a protein coat using its own genetic machinery B) they lack ribosomes B) the virus uses host cell machinery to reproduce C) they contain membrane bound organelles D) they are unable to carry out cellular metabolic processes independently C) lysis occurs when increasing viral progeny produces enzymes causing the cell to burst E) they contain a capsid D) a virus binds to a "host" cell 39. Each of the following accurately describes viruses EXCEPT A) they lack many normal cellular structures E) the virus injects nucleic acid into the host cell B) they reproduce asexually C) they contain their own genetic material D) they depend on a host cell for many metabolic processes E) they often are only a few nanometers in length Page 7 Ms. Kavner Answer Key Genetics Practice Test 1. C 32. A 2. D 33. A 3. A 34. C 4. B 35. E 5. D 36. D 6. A 37. C 7. A 38. D 8. D 39. B 9. A 40. A 10. B 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. E 15. C 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. E 21. A 22. A 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. E 28. E 29. D 30. C 31. B Page 8 Ms. Kavner