Download Genetics Practice Test (H)

Name: _________________
Genetics Practice Test (H)
Date: __________
1. An organism with genotype QqRr only produces
two gamete genotypes, QR and qr. This violates
which principle of Mendelian genetics?
A) Codominance
B) Dominance
C) Independent Assortment
D) Linkage
E) Segregation
Base your answers to questions 2 and 3 on the
information given below.
A heterozygous red-eyed female fruit fly mates
with a white-eyed male. Their offspring are one
red-eyed female, one white-eyed female and one
red-eyed male.
2. What is the probability of their next offspring
being a red-eyed male?
A) 0%
B) 100% C) 50%
D) 25% E) 75%
3. The white-eyed allele is
A) recessive and autosomal
B) dominant and sex-linked
C) dominant and autosomal
D) a genetic mutation in the female
E) recessive and sex-linked
4. In fruit flies (Drosophila), vestigial wings (v) are
recessive to normal wings (V). What
phenotype(s) of offspring would you expect from
the following cross, Vv x vv?
A) Four vestigial wings
B) Two vestigial and two normal wings
C) Three normal and one vestigial
D) Three vestigial and one normal
E) Four normal wings
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Ms. Kavner
Genetics Practice Test (H)
Base your answers to questions 5 and 6 on the following pedigree chart for a sex-linked
disorder.
5. If Individual 9 marries a woman with one recessive allele, what are their chances of having a
normal daughter?
A) 75%
B) 100%
C) 0%
D) 25%
E) 50%
C) XNXN
D) XnXn
E) nn
6. The genotype of Individual 1 is
A) X N X n
B) Nn
Base your answers to questions 7 and 8 on the diagram below.
7. This trait could be
A) polydactyly
B) color blindness
C) cystic fibrosis
D) rickets
E) Tay-Sachs disease
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Ms. Kavner
Genetics Practice Test (H)
8. The inheritance pattern for the depicted trait is most likely
A) sex-linked recessive
B) polygenic
C) autosomal recessive
D) autosomal dominant
E) sex-linked dominant
9. According to Mendel, true breeding refers to
which of following?
A) A homozygous organism.
12. Base your answer to the following question on
Base your answer to this question on the
karyotype shown below.
B) An organism whose pair of alleles will
separate independently during gamete
formation.
C) The offspring that inherited the dominant
phenotype.
D) A heterozygous organism.
E) An organism having two different alleles for
a trait.
10. Which of the following is used to determine an
unknown genotype of a parent?
A) Self-cross
The results of the karyotype indicate that this
individual has which of the following genetic
disorders?
B) Test-cross
C) Any of the above D) Back-cross
E) Front-cross
A) Klinefelter Syndrome
11. Which of the following is recessive?
B) Sickle-cell anemia
A) B blood type
C) Phenylketonuria
B) Turner’s syndrome
D) Down Syndrome
C) Five fingers
D) Down’s syndrome
E) Huntington’s disease
E) Turner Syndrome
13. If blond hair, green eyes, and freckles were
consistently inherited together, the best
explanation would be that
A) these traits are codominant
B) the genes for these traits are linked on
the same chromosome
C) these traits are recessive to others
D) these traits are dominant to others
E) a genetic mutation occurred
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Ms. Kavner
Genetics Practice Test (H)
14. When two inherited alleles are expressed at
the same time, which of the following is
exhibited?
18. A couple has two boys and two girls. If half of
their sons are hemophiliacs and the father is
normal, the mother must be
A) Incomplete Dominance
A) either a carrier or a hemophiliac
B) Linkage
B) either normal or a carrier.
C) Epistasis
C) a carrier
D) Multiple Alleles
D) normal
E) Codominance
E) a hemophiliac
15. Base your answer to the following question on
the following information.
A man gets into a serious car accident and is
bleeding severely. He is taken to the hospital,
where they find out his blood type is the
universal acceptor.
19. If a Drosophila melanogaster female who
expresses a sex-linked recessive trait is mated
with a wildtype D. melanogaster male, which of
the following is expected to occur?
A) 100% of the males will express the trait
and 100% of the females will express the
trait.
B) 50% of the males will express the trait and
50% of the females will express the trait.
The inheritance of type AB blood is evidence of
C) 0% of the males will express the trait and
100% of the females will express the trait.
A) Epistasis
B) Pseudodominance
D) 100% of the males will express the trait
and 0% of the females will express the
trait.
C) Codominance
D) Blending inheritance
E) Independent assortment
16. In a cross between a heterozygous pink flower
(Rw) and a homozygous white flower (WW),
what is the probability that you will have a
white flower? Assume incomplete dominance
occurs in these flowers.
E) 0% of the males and 0% of the females will
express the trait.
20. DNA is the polymer for which class of
compounds?
A) 75% B) 100% C) 25% D) 50% E) 0%
B) RNA
C) Amino acids
D) Genes
E) Nucleic acids
17. A pink (Rw) and a red (RR) flower mate.
Assuming incomplete dominance, the chance of
obtaining a red-colored offspring is
A) 50% B) 0%
A) Proteins
21. A DNA strand in a double helix has a base
sequence of TATCGT. The base sequence of its
DNA complement is
C) 100% D) 25% E) 75%
A) ATAGCA
B) AUAGCA
C) ACGAUA
D) TGCTAT
E) TATCGT
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Ms. Kavner
Genetics Practice Test (H)
22. Which of the following statements is true?
25. Before a molecule of mRNA can leave the
nucleus it must
A) DNA has a deoxyribose sugar, while
RNA has a ribose sugar
A) splice together the 5'cap and the polyA
tail
B) The nitrogenous bases classified as purines
include adenine and cytosine
B) excise the exons and attach the polyA tail
C) Cytosine pairs with thymine
C) be translated by the RNA polymerase
D) Both DNA and RNA contain the bases
adenine and thymine
D) excise the introns and splice the exons
together
E) Both DNA and RNA are double-stranded
E) remove the noncoding regions called exons
23. Which of the following does NOT describe
RNA?
A) RNA is transcribed in the cytoplasm of
a cell
26. What would be the sequence of mRNA bases
transcribed from that DNA base sequence
TACGGTCA?
A) ATGCCAGT
B) TUCGGTCU
B) Single-stranded
C) AUGCCAGU
D) AUCGGACU
C) Transcribed from a DNA template by RNA
polymerase
E) TACGGTCA
D) Is made up of a nitrogenous base, a five
carbon sugar, and a phosphate group
E) May contain any of the these phosphate
groups - adenine, guanine, uracil, cytosine
24. Following the elongation phase of transcription,
what happens to the template DNA strands?
A) They are removed from the nucleus to
prevent double replication.
27. The triplet of nucleotides of mRNA that
corresponds to another unit of nucleotides in
tRNA is the
A) cistron
B) anticodon
C) peripheral
D) anticistron
E) codon
28. Which of the following processes can be
referred to as semiconservative?
B) They are capped with a poly (A) tail to
inhibit degradation.
A) Recombination
C) They are rewound into a double helix.
C) RNA transcription
D) They are modified and released from the
nucleus.
D) Translocation
E) They are spliced and packaged into
ribosomes.
B) Translation
E) DNA replication
29. What is the function of DNA ligase?
A) Bind nucleotides together during
translation
B) Unwind the double helix
C) Bind nucleotides together during
transcription
D) Bring together the Okazaki fragments
E) Cut and rejoin the helix
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Ms. Kavner
Genetics Practice Test (H)
30. What is the role of DNA polymerase?
34. Which of the following occurs in
semiconservative DNA replication?
A) Bind ribonucleotides together during
transcription
B) Cut and rejoin the helix
A) Pieces of parent and daughter DNA are
mixed together in the new generation.
C) Bind DNA nucleotides together during
transcription
B) Neither strand of the parent DNA is
replicated.
D) Bring together the Okazaki fragments
C) Each strand of the double helix serves
as a template for the synthesis of its
new partner.
E) Unwind the double helix into two strands
31. Which of the following statements about
translation is INCORRECT?
A) Protein synthesis occus on ribosomes.
D) The parent duplex is left intact and an
entirely new double-stranded molecule is
formed.
B) rRNAs carry the amino acids to the
mRNA strand.
E) Only one strand of the double helix
replicates.
C) A strand of mRNA dictates the amino acids
that will be incorporated into protein.
D) The mRNA has codons which form base
pairs with the anticodons on the tRNA.
35. Which of the following is a result of the
defective separation of sister chromatids
during meiosis?
E) All three types of RNA (messenger,
transfer, and ribosomal) are involved in
translation.
B) 3
C) 45
D) 15
E) 30
B) DNA polymerase
C) mRNA
D) rRNA
E) DNA
C) Translocation
D) Deletion
36. If a chromosome fragment becomes attached
to a nonhomologous chromosome, the result is
known as a
33. Anticodons are part of which of the following
molecules
A) tRNA
B) Mutation
E) Nondisjunction
32. Fifteen nucleotides code for a protein which
contains how many amino acids?
A) 5
A) Synapsis
A) inversion
B) duplication
C) transcription
D) translocation
E) point mutation
37. Which of the following does not lead to genetic
variation?
A) Anaphase of meiosis I
B) Random union of egg and sperm
C) Anaphase of mitosis
D) Fertilization
E) Crossing over
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Ms. Kavner
Genetics Practice Test (H)
38. Viruses are not classified as prokaryotes
because
40. In viruses, all of the following are associated
with reproduction EXCEPT
A) they lack genetic material
A) each virus forms a protein coat using its
own genetic machinery
B) they lack ribosomes
B) the virus uses host cell machinery to
reproduce
C) they contain membrane bound organelles
D) they are unable to carry out cellular
metabolic processes independently
C) lysis occurs when increasing viral progeny
produces enzymes causing the cell to burst
E) they contain a capsid
D) a virus binds to a "host" cell
39. Each of the following accurately describes
viruses EXCEPT
A) they lack many normal cellular structures
E) the virus injects nucleic acid into the host
cell
B) they reproduce asexually
C) they contain their own genetic material
D) they depend on a host cell for many
metabolic processes
E) they often are only a few nanometers in
length
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Ms. Kavner
Answer Key
Genetics Practice Test
1.
C
32.
A
2.
D
33.
A
3.
A
34.
C
4.
B
35.
E
5.
D
36.
D
6.
A
37.
C
7.
A
38.
D
8.
D
39.
B
9.
A
40.
A
10.
B
11.
C
12.
D
13.
B
14.
E
15.
C
16.
D
17.
A
18.
C
19.
D
20.
E
21.
A
22.
A
23.
A
24.
C
25.
D
26.
C
27.
E
28.
E
29.
D
30.
C
31.
B
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Ms. Kavner