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Name: ______________________ Class: _________________ Date: _________ ID: B DNA and Gene Expression (chaps 12-15) Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1 Who first confirmed that the replication of DNA was semiconservative? A. Watson, Crick, and Wilkins B. Avery and Griffith C. Chargaff and Hershey D. Watson and Crick E. Meselson and Stahl ____ 2 Which of the following types of processing does eukaryotic mRNA undergo before it becomes functional? A. polyadenylation B. capping C. splicing D. removal of introns E. All of these. ____ 3 In the experiments of Griffith, the conversion of nonlethal R-strain bacteria to lethal S-strain bacteria: A. was an example of conjugation. B. was the result of genetic mutation. C. was an example of the genetic exchange known as transformation. D. supported the case for proteins as the genetic material. E. could not be reproduced by other researchers. ____ 4 A new operon is discovered in a bacterium. The control of this operon is affected by a protein that is made by another gene, and is made in an active form that binds to the DNA near the operon to prevent transcription. This is an example of __________ control. A. negative B. activational C. positive D. repressing E. inducing 1 Name: ______________________ ID: B Figure 12-2 Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s). ____ 5 Refer to Figure 12-2. The segments labeled F are responsible for: A. unwinding the DNA double helix. B. initiating DNA synthesis. C. synthesizing the leading strand. D. forming the replication fork. E. linking short DNA segments. ____ 6 Refer to Figure 12-2. The correct designation for the DNA strand labeled C is: A. polymerase. B. 3!. C. the leading strand. D. Okazaki fragments. E. None of these. ____ 7 Refer to Figure 12-2. The structures represented by the letter E are called: A. replication forks. B. leading fragments C. DNA polymerases. D. nucleosomes. E. Okazaki fragments. ____ 8 Refer to Figure 12-2. The enzyme represented by the letter D is responsible for: A. forming the replication fork. B. synthesizing the leading strand. C. forming nucleosomes. D. linking short DNA segments. E. unwinding the DNA double helix. 2 Name: ______________________ ID: B ____ 9 ____ 10 Regulation of gene expression can be accomplished by controlling: A. the rate of translation of mRNA. B. the activity of a protein product. C. the amount of mRNA that is available. D. the rate of mRNA degradation. E. All of these. ____ 11 The gene that codes for the repressor protein of the E. coli lactose operon is: A. downstream from the operator. B. constitutive. C. turned off most of the time. D. downstream from the promoter region. E. located between the operator and the promoter. ____ 12 Primase is the enzyme responsible for: A. forming a replication fork in the DNA double helix. B. making short strands of RNA at the site of replication initiation. C. introducing nicks into the DNA double strand in order to prevent the formation of knots. D. hydrolyzing ATP to facilitate DNA unwinding. E. unwinding the DNA double strand to allow DNA polymerase access to the template DNA. ____ 13 A __________ is required to transfer genes from one organism to another. A. PCR device B. genetic probe C. reverse transcriptase D. vector E. transport molecule ____ 14 Repressible genes are usually actively transcribed when: A. quantities of precursor materials are high. B. tryptophan accumulates in the cell. C. there is no other substrate that can be used by the cell. D. repressor molecules bind to the promoter. E. the supply of the end product formed by the enzymes encoded by these genes is low. Retroviruses or RNA tumor viruses use __________ to make DNA. A. reverse transcriptase B. DNA polymerase C. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase D. RNA polymerase E. primase 3 Name: ______________________ ____ ID: B 15 Two chains of DNA must run in __________ direction(s) and must be __________ if they are to bond with each other. A. parallel; uncomplementary B. the same; uncomplementary C. opposite; uncomplementary D. parallel; complementary E. antiparallel; complementary Figure 13-2 Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s). ____ 16 Refer to Figure 13-2. The portion of the molecule labeled 5 is: A. a single-stranded region. B. a double-stranded region. C. the attached amino acid. D. the anticodon. E. the codon. 4 Name: ______________________ ID: B ____ 17 Which of the following nucleotide sequences represents the complement to the DNA strand 5! " AGATCCG- 3!? A. 3! " CTCGAAT- 5! B. 5! " CTCGAAT- 3! C. 5! " AGATCCG- 3! D. 3! " TCTAGGC- 5! E. 3! " AGATCCG- 5! ____ 18 Interrupted coding sequences include long sequences of bases that do not code for amino acids. These noncoding sequences, called __________, are found in __________ cells. A. introns; prokaryotic B. exons; prokaryotic C. exons; eukaryotic D. introns; eukaryotic E. None of these. ____ 19 Initiation of transcription requires: A. Okazaki fragments. B. a promoter sequence. C. DNA polymerase. D. an RNA primer. E. a DNA primer. ____ 20 The bacteriophages used in Alfred Hershey's and Martha Chase's experiments showed that: A. proteins were responsible for the production of new viruses within the bacteria. B. DNA and protein were injected into bacteria. C. DNA was injected into bacteria. D. proteins were injected into bacteria. E. DNA remained on the outer coat of bacteria. ____ 21 How does the lactose repressor block transcription of the lactose operon? A. by slowing the uptake of lactose into the cell B. by binding allosterically to the appropriate genes C. by "turning off" the appropriate genes in the intron D. by regulating the activity of the enzymes that the operon codes for E. by binding to the operator ____ 22 The chain termination method is used in: A. Southern blotting. B. DNA ligation. C. gel electrophoresis. D. polymerase chain reaction. E. DNA sequencing. 5 Name: ______________________ ID: B ____ 23 Bacterial gene regulation occurs mainly at the __________ level. A. posttranslational B. feedback inhibition C. translational D. posttranscriptional E. transcriptional ____ 24 The tRNA: A. must have an attachment site for the amino acid. B. must have an anticodon. C. must be recognized by ribosomes. D. must be recognized by a specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that adds the correct amino acid. E. All of these. ____ 25 __________, the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes, shorten with every cell replication event. A. Telomeres B. Kinetochores C. Primosomes D. Centromeres E. Nucleosomes ____ 26 The main reason scientists thought that proteins, rather than DNA, were the carriers of genetic material in the cell was: A. their abundance within the cell. B. their presence within the nucleus. C. the large number of possible amino acid combinations. D. their ability to be exported from the cell. E. their ability to self replicate within the cytoplasm. ____ 27 Substitution of one base pair for another can result in a __________ mutation that results in the conversion of an amino acid specifying codon to a termination codon. A. nonsense B. chromosomal C. frameshift D. missense E. None of these. ____ 28 An inducible operon is usually controlled by: A. an active repressor that keeps it in the "off" state. B. being active at all times. C. allolactose. D. being turned "off," usually by the end product of the pathway. E. an inducer molecule that keeps it in the "off" state. 6 Name: ______________________ ID: B ____ 29 Frameshift mutations result from: A. the substitution of more than one base pair. B. the substitution of a stop codon for an amino acid-specifying codon. C. the substitution of one base pair for another. D. the insertion or deletion of one or two base pairs. E. the substitution of a start codon for an amino acid codon. ____ 30 Which of the following bits of information can be inferred from the ratio of different-colored fluorescent dyes in a microarray? A. identification of disease-causing proteins B. comparison of drug activity C. identification of disease-causing genes D. patterns of gene expression E. All of these. ____ 31 The codon is found in the: A. template strand of DNA. B. tRNA. C. nontemplate strand of DNA. D. rRNA. E. mRNA. ____ 32 Which of the following statements about DNA is false? A. DNA is double-stranded rather than single-stranded. B. DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose. C. DNA contains thymine instead of uracil. D. DNA is only found in eukaryotic cells. E. DNA is capable of forming many different sequences. ____ 33 Feedback inhibition of the first enzyme of a pathway by the end product of the pathway is an example of: A. posttranslational control. B. transcriptional control. C. repression. D. inhibiting control. E. translational control. ____ 34 The first experimenters to use Griffith's transformation assay to identify the genetic material were: A. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty. B. Hershey and Chase. C. Meselson and Stahl. D. Franklin and Wilkins. E. Watson and Crick. 7 Name: ______________________ ID: B ____ 35 __________ used x-ray diffraction to provide images of DNA. A. Frederick Griffith B. Francis Crick C. Rosalind Franklin D. James Watson E. Erwin Chargaff ____ 36 Uracil forms a complementary pair with __________ in RNA and __________ in DNA. A. thymine; thymine B. adenine; thymine C. uracil; adenine D. adenine; adenine E. adenine; uracil ____ 37 The 3! end of eukaryotic pre-mRNAs are changed by: A. adding a "cap." B. removing the last phosphate group. C. phosphorylation of the mRNA molecule. D. copying the last few bases so that it can form a duplex structure. E. cutting and adding 100"250 adenine nucleotides. ____ 38 The enzyme peptidyl transferase, which catalyzes the transfer of the polypeptide chain attached to the tRNA in the __________ site to the aminoacyl-tRNA in the __________ site, is thought to be a(n) __________ molecule and not a protein. A. P; A; sugar B. P; A; rRNA C. A; P; mRNA D. P; A; tRNA E. A; P; rDNA 8 Name: ______________________ ID: B Figure 15-1 Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s). ____ 39 Refer to Figure 15-1. The use of antibiotic medium at the end of this process: A. prevents contamination of the medium. B. selects for plasmids containing particular DNA fragments. C. selects for bacteria containing plasmids. D. selects for bacteria lacking plasmids. E. selects against plasmids containing human DNA fragments. ____ 40 What process or enzyme was used for Step 1 in Figure 15-1? A. a bacteriophage B. a reverse transcriptase C. a restriction enzyme D. a DNA ligase E. PCR 9 Name: ______________________ ID: B ____ 41 If a protein-coding gene is identified, its function can be studied by using RNA interference to __________. A. turn the gene off B. turn the gene on C. produce a RFLP D. induce a mutation E. produce an EST ____ 42 A cell may meet the need for large quantities of a specific protein by: A. increasing the half-life of the mRNA that specifies the protein. B. having multiple copies of the gene that codes for that protein. C. continuously synthesizing the mRNA molecule that specifies that protein. D. All of these. E. None of these. ____ 43 DNA sequences that are methylated by a cell are usually genes that: A. are constitutive. B. are inactive. C. are repressed. D. are actively expressed. E. have been replicated ____ 44 The information carried by DNA is incorporated in a code specified by the: A. size of a particular chromosome. B. number of bases in a DNA strand. C. specific nucleotide sequence of the DNA molecule. D. phosphodiester bonds of the DNA strand. E. number of separate strands of DNA. ____ 45 The total DNA in a cell is referred to as the: A. library. B. genome. C. chromosomal DNA. D. cDNA. E. None of these. ____ 46 In all organisms, the AUG codon codes for: A. a termination tRNA molecule. B. the termination of chain elongation. C. the initiation of translation. D. the amino acid valine. E. the termination of transcription. 10 Name: ______________________ ID: B ____ 47 One of the mRNA codons specifying the amino acid leucine is 5!-CUA-3!. Its corresponding anticodon is: A. 5!-GAU-3!. B. 3!-GAT-5!. C. 3!-AUC-5!. D. 3!-GAU-5!. E. 5!-GAT-3!. ____ 48 RNA differs from DNA in all the following except: A. RNA contains uracil and DNA contains thymine. B. RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded. C. RNA contains ribose and DNA contains deoxyribose. D. RNA is a larger molecule than DNA. E. None of the above. ____ 49 Hydrogen bonds can form between guanine and __________, and between adenine and __________. A. cytosine; thymine B. thymine; cytosine C. sugar; phosphate D. adenine; guanine E. phosphate; sugar ____ 50 The ends of eukaryotic chromosomes can be lengthened by: A. primase. B. DNA polymerase. C. reverse transcriptase. D. apoptosis. E. telomerase. ____ 51 Which of the following adds new nucleotides to a growing DNA chain? A. DNA polymerase B. DNA helicase C. RNA polymerase D. RNA primer E. primase ____ 52 Increasing the stability of a particular mRNA __________ the expression of that gene. A. decreases B. does not affect C. increases D. eliminates E. None of these. 11 Name: ______________________ ID: B ____ 53 In eukaryotes, some DNA sequences act as introns in some cells and as exons in other cells. This is an example of __________. A. gene processing B. gene amplification C. gene repression D. differential mRNA processing E. mRNA splicing ____ 54 Translational controls regulate: A. the uptake of nucleic acids into the cell. B. the attachment of phosphate groups to polypeptides. C. the rate at which an mRNA molecule is synthesized. D. the rate at which an mRNA molecule is translated. E. the activity of a protein end-product that is produced. ____ 55 Chargaff determined that DNA from any source contains about the same amount of guanine as __________. A. cytosine B. adenine C. thymine D. guanine E. uracil ____ 56 In replication, once the DNA strands have been separated, reformation of the double helix is prevented by: A. GTP. B. ATP. C. DNA polymerases. D. single-strand binding proteins. E. DNA helicase enzyme. ____ 57 A mutation that replaces one amino acid in a protein with another is called a __________ mutation. A. neutral B. recombinant C. nonsense D. missense E. frameshift 12 Name: ______________________ ID: B Figure 12-1 Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s). ____ 58 The portion of the molecule in box 5 of Figure 12-1 is: A. a protein. B. a nucleotide. C. a pyrimidine. D. a hydrogen bond. E. a phosphate. ____ 59 The portion of the molecule in box 3 of Figure 12-1 is: A. a nucleotide. B. a protein. C. a sugar. D. a pyrimidine. E. a purine. 13 Name: ______________________ ID: B ____ 60 Which of the following serves as an "adapter" in protein synthesis and bridges the gap between mRNA and proteins? A. rRNA B. cDNA C. promoter sequences D. tRNA E. DNA ____ 61 The focus of gene regulation in multicellular organisms is on: A. the specificity of products in different tissues. B. economizing resources at all levels. C. rapid turnover of RNA molecules. D. operons. E. All of these. ____ 62 __________ determined the structure of the molecule DNA. A. Franklin B. Franklin and Crick C. Watson and Crick D. Crick and Wilkins E. Watson, Crick, and Wilkins ____ 63 To avoid the introduction of introns into the vector, a __________ copy of mature mRNA is made, using the enzyme __________. A. cDNA; DNA ligase B. cDNA; reverse transcriptase C. sDNA; reverse transcriptase D. sDNA; RNA polymerase E. cDNA; DNA polymerase ____ 64 What prevents knot formation in replicating DNA? A. protosomes B. chromatin C. scaffolding proteins D. topoisomerases E. histones ____ 65 A chromosome library is a collection of all of the DNA: A. that would be found in the chromosomes of a typical cell of a particular organism. B. that occurs in one species. C. that codes for functional enzymes in a chromosome of a particular organism. D. contained in one chromosome. E. in a recombinant gene. 14 Name: ______________________ ID: B ____ 66 Cancer cells differ from noncancerous cells in that: A. they have the ability to resist apoptosis. B. they are virtually immortal. C. they can maintain telomere length as they divide. D. they have elevated levels of telomerase. E. All of these. ____ 67 Genes that encode proteins that are always needed are called: A. constitutive genes. B. operons. C. repressible genes. D. inducible genes. E. promoter genes. ____ 68 An mRNA "5! cap": A. decreases the half-life of the mRNA. B. facilitates binding of ribosomes. C. marks the mRNA for degradation. D. prevents translation. E. protects newly synthesized mRNA from degradation. ____ 69 __________ is a technique that can be used to separate DNA molecules on the basis of their size. A. PCR B. Selective sorting C. Separation gradient D. Cloning E. Electrophoresis ____ 70 During protein synthesis, ribosomes: A. attach to the mRNA molecule and travel along its length. B. translate mRNA into DNA. C. transcribe mRNA to tRNA. D. translate mRNA into tRNA. E. attach to the DNA molecule and travel along its length to produce an mRNA molecule. ____ 71 Which of the following cause the unwinding of the DNA double helix? A. RNA polymerase B. DNA polymerase C. DNA helicase D. RNA primer E. primosome 15 Name: ______________________ ID: B ____ 72 Transformation is a process whereby: A. bacteria are transferred into plasmid cells. B. plasmids are transferred into bacterial cells. C. viruses are transferred into bacterial cells. D. plasmids are transferred into viral cells. E. bacteria are transferred into viral cells. ____ 73 The DNA strand that is replicated smoothly and continuously is called the: A. lagging strand. B. first strand. C. leading strand. D. primary strand. E. alpha strand. Figure 13-3 Use the figure to answer the corresponding question(s). ____ 74 The process illustrated in Figure 13-3 is: A. protein synthesis. B. transcription. C. a frame shift mutation. D. DNA synthesis. E. translation. ____ 75 A gene can now be defined as: A. a DNA sequence that carries information to produce a specific RNA or protein product. B. a DNA or RNA sequence that carries information to produce a single polypeptide. C. a DNA nucleotide sequence that carries information to produce a specific polypeptide. D. a DNA or RNA sequence that carries information to produce a specific polypeptide. E. a DNA nucleotide sequence that carries information to produce an enzyme. 16 Name: ______________________ ____ ID: B 76 PCR: A. has applications for archaeology and crime scene analysis. B. is used to amplify tiny quantities of DNA in vitro. C. can only be carried out if DNA polymerase is heat resistant. D. replicates specific DNA sequences. E. All of these. 17 Name: ______________________ ID: B Essay 77 1. Describe the biochemical composition, structure, and replication of DNA. Discuss what drives the adding on nucleotides. 2. Describe the steps of protein synthesis, beginning with the attachment of a messenger RNA molecule to the small subunit of a ribosome and ending generalized with the release of the polypeptide from the ribosome. Include in your answer a discussion of how the different types of RNA function in this process. 3. Describe the operon hypothesis and discuss how it explains the control of messenger RNA production and the regulation of protein synthesis in bacterial cells. 4. The diagram below shows a segment of DNA with a total length of 4,900 base pairs. The arrows indicate reaction sites for two restriction enzymes (enzyme X and enzyme Y). 1. Explain how the principles of gel electrophoresis allow for the separation of DNA fragments. 2. Describe the results you would expect from the electrophoresis separation of fragments from the following treatments of the DNA segment above. Assume that the digestions occurred under appropriate conditions and went to completion. 1. DNA digested with only enzyme X 2. DNA digested with only enzyme Y 3. DNA digested with enzyme X and enzyme Y combined 4. Undigested DNA 3. Explain both of the following. 1. The mechanism of action of restriction enzymes. 2. The different results you would expect if a mutation occurred at the recognition site for enzyme Y. 18 ID: B DNA and Gene Expression (chaps 12-15) Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1 ANS: E 2 ANS: E 3 ANS: C 4 ANS: A 5 ANS: B 6 ANS: E 7 ANS: E 8 ANS: D 9 ANS: A 10 ANS: E 11 ANS: B 12 ANS: B 13 ANS: D 14 ANS: E 15 ANS: E 16 ANS: C 17 ANS: D 18 ANS: D 19 ANS: B 20 ANS: C 21 ANS: E 22 ANS: E 23 ANS: E 24 ANS: E 25 ANS: A 26 ANS: C 27 ANS: A 28 ANS: A 1 ID: B 29 ANS: D 30 ANS: E 31 ANS: E 32 ANS: D 33 ANS: A 34 ANS: A 35 ANS: C 36 ANS: D 37 ANS: E 38 ANS: B 39 ANS: C 40 ANS: C 41 ANS: A 42 ANS: D 43 ANS: B 44 ANS: C 45 ANS: B 46 ANS: C 47 ANS: D 48 ANS: D 49 ANS: A 50 ANS: E 51 ANS: A 52 ANS: C 53 ANS: D 54 ANS: D 55 ANS: A 56 ANS: D 57 ANS: D 58 ANS: E 59 ANS: E 60 ANS: D 2 ID: B 61 ANS: A 62 ANS: C 63 ANS: B 64 ANS: D 65 ANS: D 66 ANS: E 67 ANS: A 68 ANS: E 69 ANS: E 70 ANS: A 71 ANS: C 72 ANS: B 73 ANS: C 74 ANS: B 75 ANS: A 76 ANS: E ESSAY 77 ANS: answers will vary 3