Download Exam 2 practice questions organized by lecture topic

Cloning
36. Clones can be described as:
A. genetically identical individuals
D. A and B are correct
B. Identical cells derived from a single cell
E. A, B, and C are correct
C. Identical molecules derived from a single molecule
37. What was unique and important about the cloning of the sheep "Dolly" in
1997?
A. nucleus inserted into an enucleated egg came from embryonic stem cell
B. nucleus inserted into an enucleated egg came from a haploid gamete
C. nucleus inserted into an enucleated egg came from a polar body
D. nucleus inserted into an enucleated egg came from a somatic cell
E. none of the above
34. Nuclear transfer to clone cattle is done by which of the following techniques?
A. 8-cell embryo is divided into two four-cell embryos and implanted into a
surrogate mother
B. 16-cell embryo is divided into two four-cell embryos and implanted into a
surrogate mother
C. 2-cell embryo is divided into two four-cell embryos and implanted into a
surrogate mother
D. 16-cell embryo is divided into 16 cells, fused with enucleated eggs and
implanted into surrogate cows.
E. none of the above
8. An early embryo made up of about 100 cells is called a:
A. trophoblast
B. embryoblast
C. fetalblast
D. blastocyst
E. none of the above
Sex Determination
1. The absence of a Y chromosome in an early embryo causes the:
A. embryonic testis to become an ovary
B. Wolffian duct system to develop
C. Mullerian duct system to degenerate
D. indifferent gonad to become an ovary
E. indifferent gonad to become a testis
2. What is the phenotype of an individual with a non-functional (mutation) SRY gene?
A. female
B. male
C. hermaphrodite
D. pseudohermaphrodite
4. There are normal males with XX karyotypes and normal females with XY karyotypes.
Which of the following best describes these conditions?
A. One of the X chromosomes in the male has picked up the SRY gene from the Y
chromosome via recombination or translocation.
B. The Y chromosome in the female has lost the SRY gene via deletion or mutation
C. Its all in the hormones, has nothing to do with SRY. XX males have high levels of
testosterone and XY females have high levels of estrogen.
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
5. A couple who are non-bald have a son who is bald? What are the genotypes of the
parents?
Female
Male
A.
BB
BB
B.
Bb
Bb
C.
Bb
bb
D.
bb
Bb
E.
bb
bb
6. Pattern baldness is described as a:
A. sex-linked dominant trait
B. sex-linked recessive trait
C. sex-influenced trait
D. sex-limited trait
E. none of the above
44. A person that suffers from testicular feminization
A. Is born XY
D. A and B are correct
B. Is born XYY
E. A and C are correct
C. Has a defect in the androgen receptor
DNA Experiments, Structure, Replication
9. The genetic code of life is composed of 4 nucleotides (G:C:A:T). A single codon is
composed of _______nucleotides
A. 1
D. 4
B. 2
E. 6
C. 3
14. DNA replication occurs during ____ phase of the cell cycle.
A. GO
D. G2
B. G1
E. M
C. S
15. Enzyme that forms a new DNA chain using single-stranded DNA as a template
A. RNA polymerase
D. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymerase
E. None of the above
C. DNA ligase
16. Enzyme that covalently links DNA strands together
A. DNA polymerase
D. DNA ligase
B. Helicase
E. None of the above
C. Primase
23. Microbiologist who demonstrated that DNA was the genetic material.
A. Oswald Avery
B. Herbert Boyer
C. Rosalind Franklin
D. Barbara McClintock
E. James Watson
29. In DNA, the base adenine always pairs with what other base
A guanine
C. thymine
B cytosine
D. adenine
35. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
A. method for amplifying DNA
B. method for amplifying mRNA
C. method for amplifying tRNA
D. method for amplifying rRNA
E. method for amplifying amino acids
1. Which scientist is credited with showing that bacteria form a conjugation tube
and then transfer DNA from one bacterium to another?
A. Lineus Pauling
B. Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase (Hershey-Chase)
C. Fredrick Griffith
D. Erwin Chargaff
E. Joshua Lederberg
4.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The experiments of Avery and co-workers in 1946 led to the conclusion that:
bacterial transformation occurs only in the laboratory
capsule proteins can attach to uncoated cells
DNA is the transforming agent and is the genetic material
DNA must be complexed with protein in bacterial chromosomes
none of the above
15. The ratio of DNA bases was discovered by: (A: T ratio was 1:1 and the G: C
ratio was 1:1)
A. Lineus Pauling
B. Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase (Hershey-Chase)
C. Fredrick Griffith
D. Erwin Chargaff
E. Joshua Lederberg
16. What contribution did Dr.Rosalind Franklin provide to the discovery of the
DNA double helix?
A. provided critical X-ray diffraction analyses of the structure of highly purified
DNA
B. provided critical chemical analyses of the sugar composition of DNA
C. provided critical chemical analyses of the phosphate composition of DNA
D. provided critical chemical analyses of the sequence of DNA base nucleotides
E. none of the above
17. DNA is composed of:
A. deoxyribose sugar
B. ribose sugar
C. purines A and G and pyrimidines T and C
D. purines A and G and pyrimidines U and C
E. A and C are correct
39. Watson and Crick received the Nobel Prize for:
A. generating x-ray crystallographic data of DNA structure
B. establishing that DNA replication is semiconservative
C. solving the structure of DNA
D. proving that RNA is the genetic material
E. showing that the amount of A equals the amount of T
40. Which of the following is a nucleotide of DNA?
A. deoxyribose + thymine + phosphate group
B. deoxyribose + nitrogenous base
C. ribose + pyrimidine + phosphate group
D. deoxyribose + uracil + phosphate group
E. none of the above
From genes to proteins
41. RNA polymerase is active in:
A. replication
D. all of the above
B. transcription
E. none of the above
C. translation
42. In replication, each double-stranded daughter DNA is composed of one
strand which is old and one which is newly synthensized, thus replication:
A. is bidirectional
D. has fidelity
B. is conservative
E. none of the above
C. is semiconservative
21. The process of going from DNA to DNA is called:
A. replication
D. translation
B. transcription
E. transfection
C. transformation
22. The process of going from DNA to mRNA is called:
A. replication
D. translation
B. transcription
E. transfection
C. transformation
23. The process of going from mRNA to protein is called:
A. replication
D. translation
B. transcription
E. transfection
C. transformation
10. During transcription, the following RNA(s) will be involved in the process
A. ribosomal RNA
D. B and C are correct
B. transfer RNA
E. A, B, and C are correct
C. message RNA
11. Are any of the statements below incorrect? If yes, which one?
A. DNA is composed of A,T,C,G nucleotides
B. RNA is composed of A,U,C,G nucleotides
C. DNA is composed of a double helix
D. RNA is composed of deoxyribose sugar
E. All are correct
13. Pre-message RNA (mRNA) is
A. found in the nucleus
D. found in the mitochondria
B. found in the cytoplasm
E. none of the above
C. found associated with endoplasmic reticulum
14. The nucleotide sequence of mRNA is: AUA GCG AGC GCC. A tRNA with
an anticodon of UCG will exhibit complementary base paring with which codon?
A. AUA
B. GCG
C. AGC
D. GCC
10. An anticodon is found on
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA
E. None of the above
11. Which of the following is/are start codon(s)?
A GUC
B AUG
C CCA
D CAG
E AGC
12. Which of the following is/are stop or termination codons?
A. UAC
B. UGA
C. UAA
D. UAG
E. B, C and D are correct
13. Beta hemoglobin chain has 143 amino acids. How many nucleotides are involved
in coding for the beta hemoglobin chain?
A. 143
B.
C.
D.
E.
286
429
572
715
17. A gene has 6 exons and 5 introns. Exon 1 has 12 nucleotides, exon 2 has 21
nucleotides, exon three has 15 nucleotides, exon four has 5 nucleotides, exon five has 22
nucleotides, exon six has 21 nucleotides intron 1 has 30 nucleotides, intron 2 has 15
nucleotides, intron 3 has 12 nucleotides,intron 4 has 15 nucleotides and intron 5 has 17
nucleotides. This gene will code for a protein that has __________ amino acids.
A. 12
B. 18
C. 27
D. 32
E. 62
18. During transcription, the following RNA(s) will be involved in the process
A. ribosomal RNA
B. transfer RNA
C. message RNA
D. B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
19. The size of a gene is defined by
A. start codon
B. stop codon
C. Introns
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C are correct
24. Regions of genes that do not code for a protein are called
A Primers
B introns
C okazaki fragments
D. exon
25. RNA polymerase uses --------- as a template to synthesize --------A RNA, protein
B RNA, DNA
C DNA, RNA
D DNA, protein
E. protein, DNA
26. The information carried by DNA is used as a template to produce a _____which then
moves to the ribosome for protein synthesis
A tRNA
B rRNA
C double stranded RNA
D mRNA
E. single stranded DNA
28. mRNA:
A. contains ribose sugar
B is found only in prokaryotes
C contains uracil instead of thymine
D is synthesized using the enzyme ligase
E. A and C are correct
Metabolic pathways
29. Enzymes are:
A. proteins
B. act as biological catalysts
C. converts substrates into products
D. B and C are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
30. The genetic metabolic block in PKU individuals is inability to convert amino
acid phenylalanine to:
A. histidine
D. valine
B. cysteine
E. tyrosine
C. alanine
31. At birth, PKU babies:
A. express high levels of amino acid tyrosine in their blood
B. express high levels of amino acid phenylalanine in their blood
C. express high levels of amino acid histidine in their blood
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
32.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
If untreated, the phenotype of PKU individuals will be characterized by:
short stature
multiple skin folds on the neck
low IQ
abnormal finger prints
all of the above
33. Consider the metabolic pathway Po-----P1------P2------P3. The conversion of
P0 to P1 is by enzyme 1, the conversion of P1 to P2 is by enzyme 2, and the
conversion of P2 to P3 is by enzyme 3. What would be the consequences of an
individual with a mutant (non-functional) enzyme 1?
A. build up of Po compound
B. build up of P1 compound
C. absence of P3 compound
D. A and C are correct
E. B and C are correct
41. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive trait where amino acid ____ is not
converted to amino acid _____.
A. valine, isovaline
B. methionine, leucine
C. phenylalanine, leucine
D. phenylalanine, tyrosine
E. phenylalanine, methionine
42. A PKU child at birth would be expected to have elevated levels of:
A. valine
B. isovaline
C. methionine
D. phenylalanine
E. tyrosine
43. A PKU female who received nutritional intervention starting at birth to 10-11 years
of age, reducing adverse effects becomes pregnant at the age of 21. Her husband is
homozygous normal for this trait.
A. the expected child is not expected to express the PKU trait, therefore, no need for
special diet during pregnancy.
B. the expected child is not expected to express the PKU trait; however, a special diet
during pregnancy is needed.
C. When born, special diet is needed during nursing (mother's milk)
D. Special diet for child is needed after nursing stops
E. B and C are correct
Mutation
31. A frameshift mutation occurs when
A an adenine is inserted into the DNA sequence of an organism
B a thymine replaces a guanine in the DNA sequence of an organism
C three new bases are inserted into the DNA strand
D three bases are deleted from the DNA strand
32. Mutation in the hemoglobin beta chain resulting in sickle cell anemia is called:
A. missense
B. sense
C. nonsense
D. frameshift
E. trinucleotide repeats
33. Mutation causing Fragile X Syndrome is called:
A. missense
B. sense
C. nonsense
D. frameshift
E. trinucleotide repeats
34. _____, former UT Professor, demonstrated that x-irradiation caused mutations.
A. H. J. Muller
B. T. H. Morgan
C. F. Griffith
D. Rosalind Franklin
E. Lineus Pauling
35. Ultra violet light (UBV) induces ______dimers in DNA. Defect in DNA repair gene
results in skin cancer called xeroderma pigmentosum.
A.
B.
C.
D.
uracil dimers
adenine dimers
cytosine dimers
thymine dimers
36. Which of the following is/are known chemical mutagens?
A. aspartame
B. caffeine
C. aflatoxin B
D. benzo(A)pyrene
E. C and D are correct
39. A protein derived from a gene with as sense mutation would:
A. have no effect on the size of the resulting protein
B. resulting protein would contain fewer number of amino acids
C. resulting protein would contain greater number of amino acids
D. resulting protein would have an amino acid substitution
E. none of the above
49. Teratogens:
A. a substance that causes missense mutations
B. a substance that causes frame shift mutations
C. a substance that causes a birth defect
D. A and C are correct
E. B and C are correct
50. Which of the following can be described as teratogens?
A. Exposure of embryo/fetus to irradiation
B. vitamin A during first three months of embryonic/fetal development
C. alcohol
D. german measles
E. all of the above
48. In 1927, U.T. Austin Scientist H. J. Muller irradiated male drosophilia and
showed that radiation induced lethal genes in the X chromosome. The
drosophilia model used by Muller is referred to as the:
A. ABC model
B. ClB model
C. HJM model
D. IRC model
E. none of the above
49. Frameshift mutations, addition or deletion of a single nucleotide:
A. changes the amino acid sequence of the protein from the site of the mutation
to the end of the protein
B. can result in a nonfunctional gene product
C. changes only a single amino acid in the resulting protein
D. results in a functional gene product
E. A and B are correct
50. Bacteria assay for screening chemicals for mutagenic activity is called:
A. Adams PHE negative assay
B. Ames HIS negative assay
C. Arnold MET negative assay
D. Rubin GLU negative assay
E. none of the above
51. Bonus question (2 points).
A mutation that originates in meiosis and affects all cells of an individual is called:
A. conditional mutation
B. dominant-negative mutation
C. germline mutation
D. somatic mutation
E. none of the above