Download Biology QUIZ: 13-2 and 13-3 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that

Biology QUIZ: 13-2 and 13-3
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
Figure 13-1
____
1. What does Figure 13-1 show?
a. gel electrophoresis
b. DNA sequencing
c. a restriction enzyme producing a DNA fragment
d. polymerase chain reaction
____
2. In Figure 13-1, between which nucleotides is the DNA cut?
a. adenine and thymine
b. cytosine and guanine
c. thymine and cytosine
d. adenine and guanine
____
3. One function of gel electrophoresis is to
a. separate DNA fragments.
b. cut DNA.
c. recombine DNA.
d. extract DNA.
____
4. The process of making changes in the DNA code of a living organism is called
a. selective breeding.
b. genetic engineering.
c. inbreeding.
d. hybridization.
____
5. A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is known as
a. a mutant.
b. a hybrid.
c. a polyploid.
d. recombinant DNA.
____
6. Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis allows researchers to
a. identify similarities and differences in the genomes of different kinds of organisms.
b. determine whether a particular allele of a gene is dominant or recessive.
c. compare the phenotypes of different organisms.
d. cut DNA with restriction enzymes.
____
7. On an electrophoresis gel, band B is closer to the positive end of the gel than is band A. Which of the
following statements is true?
a. Band B is more negatively charged than band A.
b. Band B moved faster than band A.
c. Band A is smaller than band B.
d. Band B consists of larger DNA fragments than does band A.
____
8. Genetic engineering involves
a. reading a DNA sequence.
b. editing a DNA sequence.
c. reinserting DNA into living organisms.
d. all of the above
____
9. Which of the following are NOT used to read DNA sequences?
a. nucleotides
b. gels
c. fluorescent dyes
d. double-stranded DNA molecules
____ 10. Suppose a restriction enzyme recognizes the six-base sequence
AAGCTT
TTCGAA
in a double strand of DNA. Between which two nucleotides on each strand would the enzyme have to cut to
produce a fragment with sticky ends that are four bases long?
a. GC
b. CT
c. AA
d. AG
____ 11. If two DNA samples showed an identical pattern and thickness of bands produced by gel electrophoresis, the
samples contained
a. the same amount of DNA.
b. fragments of the same size.
c. the same DNA molecules.
d. all of the above
____ 12. During transformation,
a.
b.
c.
d.
a prokaryote is changed into a eukaryote.
a cell takes in DNA from outside the cell.
foreign DNA is inserted into a plasmid.
a cell is mutated.
____ 13. A recombinant plasmid gets inside a bacterial cell by
a. inducing mutations.
b. injecting itself into the cell.
c. transformation.
d. recombining with the cell.
____ 14. Which of the following includes all the others?
a. plasmid
b. transformed bacterium
c. foreign gene
d. recombinant DNA
____ 15. Which of the following steps is NOT essential in producing recombinant DNA?
a. Cut out a piece of DNA from a DNA molecule.
b. Splice a piece of DNA into DNA from another organism.
c. Use a restriction enzyme to form sticky ends in DNA.
d. Read the DNA sequence of the piece of DNA to be cut and spliced.
____ 16. A gene that makes it possible to distinguish bacteria that carry a plasmid (and the foreign DNA) from those
that don’t is called a(an)
a. resistance gene.
b. antibiotic.
c. genetic marker.
d. clone.
____ 17. Which of the following is often used as a genetic marker?
a. a foreign gene
b. a gene for antibiotic resistance
c. a DNA sequence that serves as a bacterial origin of replication
d. a nucleotide labeled with a fluorescent dye
____ 18. The transformation of a plant cell is successful if
a. the plasmid that entered the cell reproduces inside the cell.
b. the foreign DNA is integrated into one of the cell’s chromosomes.
c. the cell reproduces.
d. a plasmid has entered the cell.
____ 19. Which of the following is an example of successful transformation?
a. injection of bacterial DNA into plant cells
b. a defective gene in a cell being replaced with a normal gene
c. bacterial cells taking in plasmids that have a genetic marker
d. none of the above
____ 20. Suppose a bacterial culture were mixed with recombinant plasmids containing a gene for resistance to
penicillin. The bacterial culture was then treated with penicillin. Which of the following statements is NOT
true?
a. Those bacteria that contain the plasmid will survive.
b. The penicillin will kill the bacteria that were transformed.
c. The gene for antibiotic resistance is expressed in the bacteria that survive.
d. Those bacteria that are successfully transformed will survive.
True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false. Mark “A” for true or “B” for false on the Scantron answer sheet.
____ 21. During DNA sequencing, if all the bands on an electrophoresis gel are the same color, the single-stranded
DNA sample consisted of one kind of fragment.
____ 22. To transform a plant, scientists inject DNA into an adult plant.
____ 23. To produce a recombinant plasmid, the plasmid and the foreign DNA are cut with a different restriction
enzyme.
____ 24. Scientists use genetic markers to determine which animal cells have been successfully transformed.
____ 25. Bacterial cells that have been transformed with a plasmid that carries a genetic marker for resistance to the
antibiotic tetracycline will not survive in a culture treated with tetracycline.
Completion
Complete each statement using the word bank below. All of the words are not used.
a.
b.
c.
d.
genes
bacteria
size
colors
e. genetic marker
ab. plasmid
ac. antibiotics
ad. transformation
ae. fragment
bc. DNA replication
26. The sequence of a DNA fragment can be determined by observing the ____________________ of fluorescent
bands on an electrophoresis gel.
27. A DNA sample will form a single band on an electrophoresis gel if all the fragments are the same
____________________.
28. The process of polymerase chain reaction is similar to the process of _________________________, which
occurs in cells.
29. Plasmids are naturally found in some ____________________.
30. Some plasmids have genetic markers that make them resistant to ____________________.
Other
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
Figure 13-2
31. Interpreting Graphics In Figure 13-2, what do the bands shown in B consist of?
a. bands consist of a group of musicians
b. bands consist of DNA fragments
c. bands consist of plasmids
d. bands consist of RNA fragments
32. Interpreting Graphics Which group of bands in Figure 13-2 moved faster?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
33. Inferring What is occurring in A in Figure 13-2?
a. The restriction enzyme is putting the DNA fragments together.
b. The restriction enzyme is used as a genetic marker.
c. The restriction enzyme is cutting the DNA into fragments.
d. Cannot tell what is happening in A
34. Inferring In Figure 13-2, why are the bands in B moving toward the positive end of the gel?
a. The bands consist of DNA, which is negatively charged.
b. The bands consist of DNA, which is positively charged.
c. The bands consist of RNA, which is negatively charged.
d. The bands consist of RNA, which is positively charged.
35. Drawing Conclusions In Figure 13-2, were the three DNA samples shown in A identical?
a. yes
b. no
c. cannot tell
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
Figure 13-3
36. Interpreting Graphics What process is being illustrated in Figure 13-3?
a. restriction
b. transformation
c. replication
d. protein synthesis
37. Interpreting Graphics In Figure 13-3, during which numbered step(s) are bacteria reproducing?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
38. Interpreting Graphics During which numbered steps(s) in Figure 13-3 is a restriction enzyme used?
a. between steps 2 and 3
b. between steps 3 and 4
c. between steps 4 and 5
d. between steps 5 and 6
39. Inferring How might the bacterial cell produced in step 6 be useful?
a. The bacterial cell produced in step 6 contains the gene for human growth hormone.
b. As the bacterial cell replicates, it produces human growth hormone.
c. Other hormones can be produced like human insulin.
d. all of the above
40. Interpreting Graphics In Figure 13-3, which numbered step produces a recombinant plasmid?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
Biology Quiz: 14-1 and 14-2
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
1. How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype?
a. 2
b. 23
c. 44
d. 46
2. Which of the following are shown in a karyotype?
a. homologous chromosomes
b. sex chromosomes
c. autosomes
d. all of the above
3. Which of the following can be observed in a karyotype?
a. a change in a DNA base
b. an extra chromosome
c. genes
d. alleles
4. In humans, a male has
a. one X chromosome only.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
d. two Y chromosomes.
5. Human females produce egg cells that have
a. one X chromosome.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X or one Y chromosome.
d. one X and one Y chromosome.
6. What is the approximate probability that a human offspring will be female?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
7. What percentage of human sperm cells carry an X chromosome?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 100%
8. A human female inherits
a. one copy of every gene located on each of the X chromosomes.
b. twice as many sex chromosomes as a human male inherits.
c. one copy of every gene located on the Y chromosome.
d. all of the same genes that a human male inherits.
9. In a pedigree, a circle represents a(an)
a. male.
b. female.
____ 10.
____ 11.
____ 12.
____ 13.
____ 14.
____ 15.
____ 16.
____ 17.
____ 18.
c. child.
d. adult.
A pedigree CANNOT be used to
a. determine whether a trait is inherited.
b. show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next.
c. determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive.
d. none of the above
Which of the following would you be least likely to see in a pedigree?
a. All of the symbols are unshaded.
b. All of the symbols are shaded.
c. All of the symbols are half-shaded.
d. About half of the symbols are circles.
Which of the following is caused by a dominant allele?
a. Huntington’s disease
b. PKU
c. Tay-Sachs disease
d. none of the above
Which of the following is determined by multiple alleles?
a. Rh blood group
b. ABO blood group
c. PKU
d. Huntington’s disease
A person who has PKU
a. inherited the recessive allele for the trait from one parent.
b. inherited the recessive allele for the trait from both parents.
c. is heterozygous for the trait.
d. will not pass the allele for the trait to his or her offspring.
Which of the following genotypes result in the same phenotype?
a. IAIA and IAIB
b. IBIB and IBi
c. IBIB and IAIB
d. IBi and ii
If a man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B produce an offspring, what might be the
offspring’s blood type?
a. AB or O
b. A, B, or O
c. A, B, AB, or O
d. AB only
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. A person with Huntington’s disease might not pass the allele for the disease to his or her
offspring.
b. A person with Huntington’s disease might be homozygous for the disease.
c. Huntington’s disease is caused by a recessive allele.
d. A person who inherits one allele for Huntington’s disease will develop the disease.
Sickle cell disease is caused by a
a. change in one DNA base.
b. change in the size of a chromosome.
c. change in two genes.
d. change in the number of chromosomes in a cell.
____ 19. In cystic fibrosis, a change in a single gene causes the protein called CFTR to
a. become less soluble.
b. fold improperly.
c. destroy the cell membrane.
d. transport sodium ions instead of chloride ions.
____ 20. Compared with normal hemoglobin, the hemoglobin of a person with sickle cell disease
a. is longer.
b. is shorter.
c. has a different sequence of amino acids.
d. is wider.
____ 21. Which of the following does NOT lead to cystic fibrosis?
a. missing codon in mRNA
b. shorter CFTR polypeptide chain
c. point mutation
d. absence of CFTR in cell membrane
____ 22. People who are heterozygous for sickle cell disease are generally healthy because
a. they are resistant to malaria.
b. they usually have some normal hemoglobin in their red blood cells.
c. their abnormal hemoglobin usually doesn’t cause their red blood cells to become sickleshaped.
d. they do not produce abnormal hemoglobin.
____ 23. The sequencing of human chromosomes 21 and 22 showed that
a. some regions of chromosomes do not code for proteins.
b. all of the DNA of chromosomes codes for proteins.
c. different chromosomes have the same number of genes.
d. different chromosomes contain the same number of DNA bases.
____ 24. Alleles found on the same chromosomes
a. are dominant.
b. are never separated by recombination.
c. are linked.
d. contain repetitive DNA.
____ 25. The long stretches of repetitive DNA in chromosomes 21 and 22 are unstable sites
a. that contain genes.
b. where rearrangements occur.
c. that cause genetic disorders.
d. that do not allow crossing-over to occur.
____ 26. Many sex-linked genes are located on
a. the autosomes.
b. the X chromosome only.
c. the Y chromosome only.
d. both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.
____ 27. Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because
a. fathers pass the allele for colorblindness to their sons only.
b. the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome.
c. the allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome.
d. males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness.
____ 28. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Females cannot have hemophilia.
b. The father of a colorblind boy may be colorblind.
____ 29.
____ 30.
____ 31.
____ 32.
____ 33.
____ 34.
____ 35.
c. A sex-linked allele cannot be dominant.
d. The mother of a colorblind boy must be colorblind.
Which of the following form(s) a Barr body?
a. the Y chromosome in a male cell
b. the X chromosome in a male cell
c. one of the X chromosomes in a female cell
d. both of the X chromosomes in a female cell
The formation of a Barr body
a. causes the genes on one of the X chromosomes in a female cell to be switched off.
b. always causes the same X chromosome in a female’s cells to be switched off.
c. switches on the Y chromosome in a male cell.
d. none of the above
A cat that has spots of only one color
a. has no Barr bodies.
b. must be a male.
c. must be a female.
d. may be a male or a female.
The failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis is called
a. nondisjunction.
b. X-chromosome inactivation.
c. Turner’s syndrome.
d. Down syndrome.
Because the X chromosome contains genes that are vital for normal development, no baby has been born
a. with one X chromosome.
b. with three X chromosomes.
c. without an X chromosome.
d. with four X chromosomes.
If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis,
a. only two gametes may form instead of four.
b. some gametes may have an extra copy of some genes.
c. the chromatids do not separate.
d. it occurs during prophase.
Nondisjunction can involve
a. autosomes.
b. sex chromosomes.
c. homologous chromosomes.
d. all of the above
Chapter 13 QUEST (13-1, 13-2, 13-3)
DO NOT WRITE ON THE QUEST FORM. MARK ALL OF YOUR ANSWERS ON THE SCANTRON SHEET.
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Darken the letter on the
Scantron sheet.
____
____
____
____
____
____
1. Which of the following have been produced by selective breeding?
a. horse breeds
b. cat breeds
c. dog breeds
d. all of the above
2. Selective breeding produces
a. more offspring.
b. fewer offspring.
c. desired traits in offspring.
d. transgenic organisms.
3. Which of the following is NOT an example of selective breeding?
a. allowing only the best milk-producing cows to reproduce
b. crossing disease-resistant plants with plants that produce high food yields
c. mating cats that have long hair with cats that have long tails
d. allowing dogs to mate only once a year
4. Which of the following is most likely to bring together two recessive alleles for a genetic defect?
a. inbreeding
b. hybridization
c. genetic engineering
d. transformation
5. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Inbreeding and hybridization are opposite processes.
b. A hybrid plant has all the characteristics of both its parents.
c. Inbreeding can produce an offspring that has a defect that neither parent shows.
d. Hybridization is used to produce new varieties of plants and animals.
6. Mutations are useful in selective breeding because they
a. help maintain the desired characteristics of animal breeds.
b. are usually found in hybrids.
c. are usually beneficial.
d. can be used to enhance the process of hybridization.
Figure 13-1
____
____
____
____
____
7. What does Figure 13-1 show?
a. gel electrophoresis
b. DNA sequencing
c. a restriction enzyme producing a DNA fragment
d. polymerase chain reaction
8. In Figure 13-1, between which nucleotides is the DNA cut?
a. adenine and thymine
b. cytosine and guanine
c. thymine and cytosine
d. adenine and guanine
9. One function of gel electrophoresis is to
a. separate DNA fragments.
b. cut DNA.
c. recombine DNA.
d. extract DNA.
10. The process of making changes in the DNA code of a living organism is called
a. selective breeding.
b. genetic engineering.
c. inbreeding.
d. hybridization.
11. A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is known as
a. a mutant.
b. a hybrid.
c. a polyploid.
d. recombinant DNA.
____ 12. Knowing the sequence of an organism’s DNA allows researchers to
a. reproduce the organism.
b. mutate the DNA.
c. study specific genes.
d. cut the DNA.
____ 13. Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis allows researchers to
a. identify similarities and differences in the genomes of different kinds of organisms.
b. determine whether a particular allele of a gene is dominant or recessive.
c. compare the phenotypes of different organisms.
d. cut DNA with restriction enzymes.
____ 14. On an electrophoresis gel, band B is closer to the positive end of the gel than is band A. Which of the
following statements is true?
a. Band B is more negatively charged than band A.
b. Band B moved faster than band A.
c. Band A is smaller than band B.
d. Band B consists of larger DNA fragments than does band A.
____ 15. Genetic engineering involves
a. reading a DNA sequence.
b. editing a DNA sequence.
c. reinserting DNA into living organisms.
d. all of the above
____ 16. Suppose a restriction enzyme recognizes the six-base sequence
AAGCTT
TTCGAA
in a double strand of DNA. Between which two nucleotides on each strand would the enzyme have to cut to
produce a fragment with sticky ends that are four bases long?
a. GC
b. CT
c. AA
d. AG
____ 17. If two DNA samples showed an identical pattern and thickness of bands produced by gel electrophoresis, the
samples contained
a. the same amount of DNA.
b. fragments of the same size.
c. the same DNA molecules.
d. all of the above
____ 18. During transformation,
a. a prokaryote is changed into a eukaryote.
b. a cell takes in DNA from outside the cell.
c. foreign DNA is inserted into a plasmid.
d. a cell is mutated.
____ 19. Scientists can transform plant cells by
a. using the bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
b. removing the plant cell walls and then mixing the cells with DNA.
c. injecting DNA into the plant cells.
d. all of the above
____ 20. A recombinant plasmid gets inside a bacterial cell by
a. inducing mutations.
b. injecting itself into the cell.
____ 21.
____ 22.
____ 23.
____ 24.
____ 25.
c. transformation.
d. recombining with the cell.
Which of the following steps is NOT essential in producing recombinant DNA?
a. Cut out a piece of DNA from a DNA molecule.
b. Splice a piece of DNA into DNA from another organism.
c. Use a restriction enzyme to form sticky ends in DNA.
d. Read the DNA sequence of the piece of DNA to be cut and spliced.
A gene that makes it possible to distinguish bacteria that carry a plasmid (and the foreign DNA) from those
that don’t is called a(an)
a. resistance gene.
b. antibiotic.
c. genetic marker.
d. clone.
Which of the following is often used as a genetic marker?
a. a foreign gene
b. a gene for antibiotic resistance
c. a DNA sequence that serves as a bacterial origin of replication
d. a nucleotide labeled with a fluorescent dye
The transformation of a plant cell is successful if
a. the plasmid that entered the cell reproduces inside the cell.
b. the foreign DNA is integrated into one of the cell’s chromosomes.
c. the cell reproduces.
d. a plasmid has entered the cell.
Which of the following is an example of successful transformation?
a. injection of bacterial DNA into plant cells
b. a defective gene in a cell being replaced with a normal gene
c. bacterial cells taking in plasmids that have a genetic marker
d. none of the above
Genetics: 13-4 and 14-1 Quest
DO NOT WRITE ANYWHERE ON THE QUEST FORM. MARK ALL OF YOUR ANSWERS ON THE
SCANTRON SHEET.
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. Darken the letter of your choice
on the Scantron sheet.
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
1. One function of gel electrophoresis is to
a. separate DNA fragments.
b. cut DNA.
c. recombine DNA.
d. extract DNA.
2. The process of making changes in the DNA code of a living organism is called
a. selective breeding.
b. genetic engineering.
c. inbreeding.
d. hybridization.
3. A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is known as
a. a mutant.
b. a hybrid.
c. a polyploid.
d. recombinant DNA.
4. On an electrophoresis gel, band B is closer to the positive end of the gel than is band A. Which of the
following statements is true?
a. Band B is more negatively charged than band A.
b. Band B moved faster than band A.
c. Band A is smaller than band B.
d. Band B consists of larger DNA fragments than does band A.
5. Genetic engineering involves
a. reading a DNA sequence.
b. editing a DNA sequence.
c. reinserting DNA into living organisms.
d. all of the above
6. During transformation,
a. a prokaryote is changed into a eukaryote.
b. a cell takes in DNA from outside the cell.
c. foreign DNA is inserted into a plasmid.
d. a cell is mutated.
7. The transformation of a plant cell is successful if
a. the plasmid that entered the cell reproduces inside the cell.
b. the foreign DNA is integrated into one of the cell’s chromosomes.
c. the cell reproduces.
d. a plasmid has entered the cell.
8. Suppose a bacterial culture were mixed with recombinant plasmids containing a gene for resistance to
penicillin. The bacterial culture was then treated with penicillin. Which of the following statements is NOT
true?
a. Those bacteria that contain the plasmid will survive.
____
9.
____ 10.
____ 11.
____ 12.
____ 13.
____ 14.
____ 15.
____ 16.
____ 17.
b. The penicillin will kill the bacteria that were transformed.
c. The gene for antibiotic resistance is expressed in the bacteria that survive.
d. Those bacteria that are successfully transformed will survive.
What kind of technique do scientists use to make transgenic organisms?
a. hybridization
b. inbreeding
c. inducing of mutations
d. genetic engineering
What is an advantage of using transgenic bacteria to produce human proteins?
a. The human proteins produced by transgenic bacteria work better than those produced by
humans.
b. Transgenic bacteria can produce human proteins in large amounts.
c. The human proteins produced by transgenic bacteria last longer than those produced by
humans.
d. Transgenic bacteria can produce human proteins used to make plastics.
What has been an advantage of producing transgenic plants?
a. increasing the food supply
b. using more pesticides
c. producing clones
d. studying human genes
To produce transgenic bacteria that make insulin, which of the following steps did scientists have to take
first?
a. Insert the human insulin gene into a plasmid.
b. Extract the insulin from the bacterial culture.
c. Use a restriction enzyme to cut out the insulin gene from human DNA.
d. Transform bacteria with the recombinant plasmid.
What are scientists more likely to learn from transgenic animals than from transgenic bacteria or transgenic
plants?
a. the structure of human proteins
b. the process of cloning
c. how human genes function
d. how plasmids reproduce
The Scottish scientist Ian Wilmut cloned a
a. bacterium.
b. sheep.
c. plant.
d. cow.
What kind of cell (or cells) was used to make Dolly?
a. body cell only
b. egg cell only
c. egg cell and sperm cell
d. body cell and egg cell
Why is Dolly a clone?
a. The source of her DNA was a single body cell.
b. The DNA molecules in all her cells are identical.
c. She was produced using the DNA from an adult’s egg cell.
d. She is genetically identical to her offspring.
How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype?
a. 2
____ 18.
____ 19.
____ 20.
____ 21.
____ 22.
____ 23.
____ 24.
____ 25.
____ 26.
____ 27.
b. 23
c. 44
d. 46
Which of the following are shown in a karyotype?
a. homologous chromosomes
b. sex chromosomes
c. autosomes
d. all of the above
Which of the following can be observed in a karyotype?
a. a change in a DNA base
b. an extra chromosome
c. genes
d. alleles
In humans, a male has
a. one X chromosome only.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
d. two Y chromosomes.
Human females produce egg cells that have
a. one X chromosome.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X or one Y chromosome.
d. one X and one Y chromosome.
What is the approximate probability that a human offspring will be female?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
What percentage of human sperm cells carry an X chromosome?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 100%
A human female inherits
a. one copy of every gene located on each of the X chromosomes.
b. twice as many sex chromosomes as a human male inherits.
c. one copy of every gene located on the Y chromosome.
d. all of the same genes that a human male inherits.
In a pedigree, a circle represents a(an)
a. male.
b. female.
c. child.
d. adult.
A pedigree CANNOT be used to
a. determine whether a trait is inherited.
b. show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next.
c. determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive.
d. none of the above
Which of the following would you be least likely to see in a pedigree?
____ 28.
____ 29.
____ 30.
____ 31.
____ 32.
____ 33.
____ 34.
____ 35.
____ 36.
a. All of the symbols are unshaded.
b. All of the symbols are shaded.
c. All of the symbols are half-shaded.
d. About half of the symbols are circles.
Which of the following is caused by a dominant allele?
a. Huntington’s disease
b. PKU
c. Tay-Sachs disease
d. none of the above
Which of the following is determined by multiple alleles?
a. Rh blood group
b. ABO blood group
c. PKU
d. Huntington’s disease
A person who has PKU
a. inherited the recessive allele for the trait from one parent.
b. inherited the recessive allele for the trait from both parents.
c. is heterozygous for the trait.
d. will not pass the allele for the trait to his or her offspring.
Which of the following genotypes result in the same phenotype?
a. IAIA and IAIB
b. IBIB and IBi
c. IBIB and IAIB
d. IBi and ii
If a man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B produce an offspring, what might be the
offspring’s blood type?
a. AB or O
b. A, B, or O
c. A, B, AB, or O
d. AB only
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. A person with Huntington’s disease might not pass the allele for the disease to his or her
offspring.
b. A person with Huntington’s disease might be homozygous for the disease.
c. Huntington’s disease is caused by a recessive allele.
d. A person who inherits one allele for Huntington’s disease will develop the disease.
Sickle cell disease is caused by a
a. change in one DNA base.
b. change in the size of a chromosome.
c. change in two genes.
d. change in the number of chromosomes in a cell.
In cystic fibrosis, a change in a single gene causes the protein called CFTR to
a. become less soluble.
b. fold improperly.
c. destroy the cell membrane.
d. transport sodium ions instead of chloride ions.
Compared with normal hemoglobin, the hemoglobin of a person with sickle cell disease
a. is longer.
b. is shorter.
____ 37.
____ 38.
____ 39.
____ 40.
c. has a different sequence of amino acids.
d. is wider.
People who are heterozygous for sickle cell disease are generally healthy because
a. they are resistant to malaria.
b. they usually have some normal hemoglobin in their red blood cells.
c. their abnormal hemoglobin usually doesn’t cause their red blood cells to become sickleshaped.
d. they do not produce abnormal hemoglobin.
Which of the following combinations of sex chromosomes represents a female?
a. XY
b. XXY
c. XXXY
d. XX
The Human Genome Project is an attempt to
a. make a DNA fingerprint of every person’s DNA.
b. sequence all human DNA.
c. cure human diseases.
d. identify alleles in human DNA that are recessive.
The purpose of gene therapy is to
a. cure genetic disorders.
b. determine the sequences of genes.
c. remove mutations from genes.
d. change dominant alleles to recessive alleles.
Biology QUEST: 14-1, 14-2 and 14-3
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
____
1. How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype?
a. 2
b. 23
c. 44
d. 46
2. Which of the following are shown in a karyotype?
a. homologous chromosomes
b. sex chromosomes
c. autosomes
d. all of the above
3. In humans, a male has
a. one X chromosome only.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
d. two Y chromosomes.
4. Human females produce egg cells that have
a. one X chromosome.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X or one Y chromosome.
d. one X and one Y chromosome.
5. A pedigree CANNOT be used to
a. determine whether a trait is inherited.
b. show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next.
c. determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive.
d. none of the above
6. Which of the following would you be least likely to see in a pedigree?
a. All of the symbols are unshaded.
b. All of the symbols are shaded.
c. All of the symbols are half-shaded.
d. About half of the symbols are circles.
7. Which of the following is determined by multiple alleles (i.e. codominance)?
a. Rh blood group
b. ABO blood group
c. PKU
d. Huntington’s disease
8. If a man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B produce an offspring, what might be the
offspring’s blood type?
a. AB or O
b. A, B, or O
c. A, B, AB, or O
d. AB only
9. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. A person with Huntington’s disease might not pass the allele for the disease to his or her
____ 10.
____ 11.
____ 12.
____ 13.
____ 14.
____ 15.
____ 16.
____ 17.
____ 18.
offspring.
b. A person with Huntington’s disease might be homozygous for the disease.
c. Huntington’s disease is caused by a recessive allele.
d. A person who inherits one allele for Huntington’s disease will develop the disease.
In cystic fibrosis, a change in a single gene causes the protein called CFTR to
a. become less soluble.
b. fold improperly.
c. destroy the cell membrane.
d. transport sodium ions instead of chloride ions.
People who are heterozygous for sickle cell disease are generally healthy because
a. they are resistant to malaria.
b. they usually have some normal hemoglobin in their red blood cells.
c. their abnormal hemoglobin usually doesn’t cause their red blood cells to become sickleshaped.
d. they do not produce abnormal hemoglobin.
Alleles found on the same chromosomes
a. are dominant.
b. are never separated by recombination.
c. are linked.
d. contain repetitive DNA.
Many sex-linked genes are located on
a. the autosomes.
b. the X chromosome only.
c. the Y chromosome only.
d. both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.
Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because
a. fathers pass the allele for colorblindness to their sons only.
b. the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome.
c. the allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome.
d. males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness.
The formation of a Barr body
a. causes the genes on one of the X chromosomes in a female cell to be switched off.
b. always causes the same X chromosome in a female’s cells to be switched off.
c. switches on the Y chromosome in a male cell.
d. none of the above
The failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis is called
a. nondisjunction.
b. X-chromosome inactivation.
c. Turner’s syndrome.
d. Down syndrome.
Because the X chromosome contains genes that are vital for normal development, no baby has been born
a. with one X chromosome.
b. with three X chromosomes.
c. without an X chromosome.
d. with four X chromosomes.
If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis,
a. only two gametes may form instead of four.
b. some gametes may have an extra copy of some genes.
c. the chromatids do not separate.
____ 19.
____ 20.
____ 21.
____ 22.
____ 23.
____ 24.
____ 25.
d. it occurs during prophase.
Nondisjunction can involve
a. autosomes.
b. sex chromosomes.
c. homologous chromosomes.
d. all of the above
Scientists test for alleles that cause human genetic disorders by
a. making karyotypes.
b. making DNA fingerprints.
c. detecting the DNA sequences found in those alleles.
d. making pedigrees.
The process of DNA fingerprinting is based on the fact that
a. the most important genes are different among most people.
b. no two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA.
c. most genes are dominant.
d. most people have DNA that contains repeats.
The Human Genome Project is an attempt to
a. make a DNA fingerprint of every person’s DNA.
b. sequence all human DNA.
c. cure human diseases.
d. identify alleles in human DNA that are recessive.
The purpose of gene therapy is to
a. cure genetic disorders.
b. determine the sequences of genes.
c. remove mutations from genes.
d. change dominant alleles to recessive alleles.
Which of the following is the first step in gene therapy?
a. splicing the normal gene to viral DNA
b. allowing recombinant viruses to infect human cells
c. using restriction enzymes to cut out the normal gene from DNA
d. identifying the faulty gene that causes the disease
Gene therapy is successful if the
a. viruses carrying the replacement gene infect the person’s cells.
b. replacement gene is replicated in the person’s cells.
c. replacement gene is transcribed in the person’s cells.
d. replacement gene is successfully spliced to viral DNA.
Completion
For # 26 - 40, complete each sentence or statement using the word bank below. If the answer is a letter combination be
sure to darken ALL the letters that make up that combination.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
DNA sequence
mother
two
50%
complimentary
ab.
ac.
ad.
ae.
bc.
O
X
pedigree
Y
karyotype
bd.
be.
cd.
ce.
de.
Klinefelter’s
PKU
Turner’s
gene therapy
IB
26. A(An) ____________________ can be used to determine whether a person has inherited the normal number
of chromosomes.
27. In humans, sex is determined by the X and ____________________ chromosomes.
28. If a couple has five boys, the probability that the next child will be a boy is ____________________.
29. A(An) ____________________ is a diagram that follows the inheritance of a single gene through several
generations of a family.
30. A person who has ____________________ is unable to break down the amino acid phenylalanine.
31. The alleles IA and ____________________ for the ABO blood group are codominant.
32. A person who has blood type O can receive a blood transfusion only from a person who has blood type
____________________.
33. People who have sickle cell disease inherited ____________________ copies of the sickle cell allele.
34. A boy who has hemophilia inherited the disorder from his ____________________.
35. A Barr body is a turned-off ____________________ chromosome.
36. A female with the disorder _________________________ syndrome inherits only one X chromosome and
has the genotype XO.
37. Nondisjunction in males can lead to the disorder called ______________________________ syndrome.
38. A person can be tested for the allele that causes Huntington’s disease because the
_________________________ of that allele is different from that of the normal allele.
39. In DNA fingerprinting, the DNA probe that is used is ____________________ to the DNA sequence of the
repeats.
40. The process of _________________________ replaces a faulty gene with a normal working gene.
Other
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
Figure 14-1
41. Inferring In the human karyotype in Figure 14-1, what are the chromosomes in each numbered group called
____________ chromosomes?
a. homozygous
b. heterozygous
c. analogous
d. homologous
42. Comparing and Contrasting In Figure 14-1, how are the chromosomes that make up each numbered pair
similar?
a. in shape
b. in size
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of the above
43. Classifying Which chromosomes in Figure 14-1 are autosomes?
a. # 1-22
b. # 23
c. # 1-23
d. none of the above
44. Interpreting Graphics In the human karyotype in Figure 14-1, how many chromosomes are shown?
a. 23
b. 46
c. 47
d. cannot tell
45. Drawing Conclusions Identify the sex chromosomes in Figure 14-1. Does the karyotype show the normal
number of sex chromosomes?
a. yes
b. no
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
The pedigree shows the inheritance of free earlobes and attached earlobes in five generations of a family.
Attached earlobes are caused by a recessive allele (f). Half-shaded symbols are NOT used in this pedigree to
show carriers of the allele.
Figure 14-2
46. Inferring Is individual 2 in Figure 14-2 homozygous or heterozygous for free earlobes?
a. homozygous
b. heterozygous
c. cannot tell
47. Interpreting Graphics In Figure 14-2, how many children of individuals 4 and 5 have attached earlobes?
a. none
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 100%
48. Inferring Can you be certain of the genotype of individual 5 in Figure 14-2?
a. yes
b. no
49. Predicting Predict the genotype and phenotype of individual 14 in Figure 14-2.
a. homozygous, dominant
b. homozygous, recessive
c. heterozygous, dominant
d. heterozygous, recessive
50. Inferring In Figure 14-2, are any of the descendants of individuals 1 and 2 homozygous for free earlobes?
a. yes
b. no
USING SCIENCE SKILLS
To determine a person’s blood type, a drop of anti-A serum and a drop of anti-B serum are placed at either
end of a microscope slide. Then, a drop of the person’s blood is added to each drop of serum. Clumping in
anti-A serum or anti-B serum indicates the presence of antigen A or antigen B in the blood, respectively.
Figure 14-3
51. Interpreting Graphics Which numbered slide in Figure 14-3 shows type B blood?
a. Slide 1
b. Slide 2
c. Slide 3
d. Slide 4
52. Inferring In Figure 14-3, which slide shows the blood of a person who can safely receive any type of blood
in a transfusion?
a. Slide 1
b. Slide 2
c. Slide 3
d. Slide 4
53. Interpreting Graphics Which slide in Figure 14-3 shows blood that contains no antigens?
a. Slide 1
b. Slide 2
c. Slide 3
d. Slide 4
54. Inferring In Figure 14-3, what is the genotype or genotypes of the person whose blood is shown in slide 1?
a. IAIA
b. IAi
c. IBIB
d. Either (a) or (b)
55. Inferring Anti-sera are extracted from blood. Based on what is shown in Figure 14-3, what type of blood
does not contain anti-A or anti-B serum?
a. Blood type A
b. Blood type B
c. Blood type AB
d. Blood type