Download Biology 105 Midterm Exam 2

Midterm 1 Sample Questions
Scientific method
1.In the scientific method, you design and carry out experiments which will test ______
based on your _________.
a. conclusions/hypothesis
b. predictions/conclusions
c. predictions/hypothesis
d. hypotheses/conclusions
2. You are doing an experiment to determine the effect of a possible cancer treatment on mice with skin cancer. You have a
group of mice suffering from skin cancer and you are going to treat them each with 1 ml of the experimental drug. You want to
determine the percentage which recover from the cancer. To be able to draw a good conclusion, what control should you do?
a. Be sure to treat mice suffering from several types of cancer.
b. Treat some mice with twice as much of the drug.
c. Treat some mice with an already established cancer medication.
d. Give some mice no treatment.
3. All scientists use the scientific method.
a. true
b. false
4. Which of the following is a correct statement about the scientific method?
a. It can be performed only by someone with advanced training.
b. Its methods are substantially different from the way people normally find out about their environment.
c. It organizes evidence and helps us predict what will happen in our environment.
d. It distinguishes between good and bad.
5. The scientific method can be used for other things besides science.
a. true
b. false
6. This question refers to an experiment whose results are summarized in the table below. In the experiment rats were
impregnated and then their ovaries (which produce eggs), but not uterus (where the embryos grow), were immediately
removed. After surgery the rats were divided into 2 treatment groups.
Group 1
Group 2
Daily injection of progesterone (milligrams)
0.25
2.0
Percentage of rats carrying fetuses to birth
0
100
7. The best conclusion is that progesterone exerts an effect on the
a. general health of the rat
b. size of the fetuses
c. maintenance of the uterus
d. gestational period of rats
8. It is easier to prove than to disprove a hypothesis.
a. true
b. false
9. Which of the following statements best describes the nature of a scientific hypothesis?
a. A hypothesis is an idea that is widely accepted as a description of objective reality by a majority of scientists.
b. A hypothesis must stand alone, and not be based on prior knowledge.
c. A scientific hypothesis must be testable through experiment or observation.
d. A hypothesis when accepted becomes a scientific law.
10. Those who wish to berate a scientific theory sometimes say “that’s only a theory”. The use of the word theory for a
biological concept means that
a. There is absolute certainty about the validity of the concept.
b Most scientists would agree that there is a great amount of evidence in support of the concept.
c. The concept is in doubt among most scientists.
d. The concept is no more than a hypothesis.
11. Control groups are used to
a. decrease the cost of experiments
b. increase the number of variables
c. decrease sampling error
d. help ensure that the experiment is testing the effect of only one variable
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12. Suppose that a town is considering a proposal to outlaw new factories in order to control pollution of the local river by
industrial wastes. Which of the following would be considered a scientific issue?
a. determining the extent to which various levels of copper affect the health of fish
b. choosing between a threefold increase in the fish population (if the measure is adopted) and a 40% increase in tax revenues
(if the measure fails)
c. determining the cost to the town in lost taxes
d. none of these
13. Which is most likely to result in sampling error?
a. Taking a very large number of samples
b. Taking a very small number of samples
14. About when did scientific research really begin to make rapid progress, partially due to improvements in science
methodology and communication, including the founding of the first scientific society?
a. before the birth of Christ
b. early in the Middle Ages
c. in the 1600’s
d. only very recently, in the last 150 years
15. One of the first thinkers to develop the scientific method was
a. Watson
b. Descartes
c. Socrates
16. A scientific hypothesis is
a. an opinion
b. a proposed explanation for an observation
d. Darwin
c. a fact
d. easily proved true
17. Which of the following is a prediction of the hypothesis: taking vitamins helps children grow?
a. Vitamins are essential for proper growth and development.
b. If children do not take vitamins, then they will be short.
c. If children take vitamins, then they will be taller than children who do not take vitamins.
d. If children take vitamins, then they will be healthier than children who do not take vitamins.
18. To have confidence in a study, there should be at least __ subjects participating in it.
a. 10
b. 30
c. 100
d. 1000
19. Communication of scientific results furthers the scientific process because:
a. scientists are people
b. it prevents one scientist from getting too far ahead of the others
c. scientists like to talk to one another
d. results can be evaluated by other scientists
20. A(n) ______ is an artificial set of conditions set up for the purpose of testing hypotheses.
a. experiment
b. control
c. paradigm
d. prediction
Genetics
21. The major goal of the human genome project is to
a. learn the sequence of human DNA.
b. learn how DNA works in humans.
c. understand how human DNA relates to the DNA of other organisms.
d. learn how to cure genetic diseases.
22. In his research, Gregor Mendel used
a. corn plants
b. fruit flies
c. chickens
d. pea plants
23. Which organism was favored for genetic research in the early 1900’s (after Mendel) due to its small size and quick life
cycle?
a. corn plants.
b. fruit flies.
c. chickens.
d. pea plants.
24. Which scientist(s) discovered the laws of genetics?
a. Darwin and Wallace
b.Mendel
c. Watson and Crick
d. Pauling
25. Which is unique to an individual?
a. genotype
b. genome
d. both
c. neither
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26. When two genes are found on the same chromosome, they are said to be
a conspecific
b. sisters
c. homologs
d. linked
27. Egg and sperm cells are also called
a. ribosomes
b. gametes
d. DNA
c. alleles
28. The hereditary make-up of an individual is called its:
a. gamete
b. genotype
c. pure line
d. phenotype
29. Gametes are always:
a. diploid
d. defective
b. haploid
c. recessive
30. Which term refers to all of the genetic material of an organism?
a. genome
b. genotype
c. phenotype
d. allele
31. Which is shared by a group?
a. genotype
d. both
b. genome
c. neither
32. Which of the following is a discontinuous trait in humans?
a. weight
b. hair color
c. intelligence
33. Which of the following is heterozygous?
a. aa
b. BB
c. Aa
d. blood type
d. more than one of these choices
34. Human skin color is a polygenic trait. The more dominant alleles a person has, the darker their skin color is. If two people
with the genotype AaBbCc married, their children would be:
a. all dark skinned
b. all light skinned
c. all medium skinned
d. anywhere along the continuum of skin color
35. Which is changed when you dye your hair?
a. phenotype
b. genotype
36. If two people with the genotype AAbbcc married, their children would be:
a. all dark skinned
b. all light skinned
c. all medium skinned
d. anywhere along the continuum of skin color
37. If one parent has A blood type and the other has O, what types of children could they have?
a. A only
b. O only
c. A or O
d. A, B, or O
38. Which is true about the offspring of two parents who are both homozygous for a particular trait?
a. they will all be homozygous too
b. they will all be heterozygous
c. they could all be homozygous or all be heterozygous, but not both
d. some will be homozygous and some will be heterozygous
39. What is likelihood that a sperm from a man who suffers from the recessive condition cystic fibrosis will
carry the mutant allele?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
40. If the man in the question above fathers the child of a woman who does not carry the mutant
allele, what is the likelihood that their child will suffer from cystic fibrosis?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
41. A pea plant is heterozygous for the dominant condition of purple flowers (P) and homozygous for the recessive condition of
dwarfism (d). The correct way to write this in genetic notation would be:
a. Pd
b. PPdd
c. Ppdd
d. PpDd
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42. The plant in the problem above would produce how many different types of gametes?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
43. The genotype of Mr. Blake is AA Bb kk Zz Ff Oo nn
The genotype of Mrs. Blake is AA bb KK Zz Ff Oo nn
What are the chances of Mr. and Mrs. Blake having a child with zz in his genotype?
a. 1
b. ½
c. ¼
d. 0
44. A person is homozygous for widow’s peak (W), heterozygous for freckles (F), and heterozygous for dimples (D). The
correct way to write this in genetic notation would be
a. WWFFDD
b. wwffdd
c. WwFfDd
d. WWFfDd
45. How many different types of gametes would the person in the question above produce?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
46. If two parents were both heterozygous for the freckles allele, what proportion of their children would be expected to show
the dominant trait of freckles?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
47. How many different genotypes will occur in the products of meiosis of a cell of genotype AABbCc?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
48. Cousin marriages are more likely than non-cousin marriages to result in children with recessive genetic conditions.
a. true
b. false
49. Huntington’s disease is caused by a dominant allele. If one parent has Huntington’s disease (assume he or she is
heterozygous) and the other does not, what are the chances of a child of their having the disease?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
50. Huntington's disease:
a. is caused by a recessive allele
b. can be effectively treated with hormones in most cases
c. allows reproduction to occur before the symptoms appear
d. affects mostly children and teenagers
51. The ability to roll your tongue along its length into a U-shaped tube is called tongue rolling and is controlled by a dominant
allele. If a man cannot roll his tongue and his wife is heterozygous, each of their children faces what chance (odds) of becoming
a tongue-roller?
a. 1:1
b. 2:1
c. 3:1
d. 4:1
52. The ability to roll your tongue along its length into a U-shaped tube is called tongue rolling and is controlled by a dominant
allele. If both a man and his wife are heterozygous, for the tongue-rolling trait, what percentage of their children would be
expected to be tongue-rollers?
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25%
53. What is likelihood that a sperm from a man who suffers from sickle-cell
anemia will carry the mutant allele?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
54. If the man in the question above fathers the child of a woman who does not carry the mutant
allele, what is the likelihood that their child will suffer from sickle-cell anemia?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
55. Assume enough crosses were made between flies of the types Dd and Dd to yield 1000 offspring. Which of the following is
the most likely distribution of genotypes among these offspring?
a. 240 Dd: 760 dd
b. 752 DD; 248 dd
c. 243 DD: 517 Dd: 240 dd
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56. The recessive allele c codes for Cooley disease. Homozygous recessive individuals have abnormal hemoglobin that does
not bind well with oxygen. Both Mr. and Mrs. Nock have Cc genotypes. What are their chances having a child with Cooley
disease?
a.0%
b.25%
c.50%
d.75%
57. Both Mr. Nock and Mrs. Nock have Cc genotypes. All of Mr. and Mrs. Nock’s seven children have the Cc genotype. Their
NEXT child will be…
a.Cc
b. cc
c. CC or cc
d. CC, or Cc, or cc
58. In lemurs, a red crest is dominant over a brown crest. (Ian and Desiree are lemurs). Ian’s father had a brown crest and his
mother had a red crest. Ian himself has a red crest. Desiree has a brown crest. What types of darling little baby lemurs are they
likely to have?
a. all red crested
b. half red and half brown crested
c. ¾ red crested and ¼ brown crested
d. all brown crested
59. What types of children, in what proportions, would be expected if a man heterozygous for the dominant condition dimples,
with a straight hairline marries a woman heterozygous for both dimples and the dominant condition Widows peak?
a. ¼ dimples, widows peak, ¼ no dimples, widows peak, ¼ dimples, straight hairline, ¼ no dimples, straight hairline
b. 3/8 dimples, widows peak, 1/8 no dimples, widows peak, 3/8 dimples, straight hairline, 1/8 no dimples, straight hairline
c. ½ dimples, widows peak, ½ dimples, straight hairline
d. 9/16 dimples, widows peak, 3/16 no dimples, widows peak, 3/16 dimples, straight hairline, 1/16 no dimples, straight hairline
60. The gene causing tailless "Manx" cats is dominant, and all Manx cats are heterozygous because a fetus inheriting two of
these alleles dies. This alters the expected offspring ratios. If you crossed two Manx cats, what would you expect the ratio of
Manx:normal to be?
a. 3 Manx: 1 normal
b. 2 Manx:1 normal
c. 1 Manx: 1 normal
d. 1 Manx:2 normal
61. Which is a phenotype?
a. Bb
b. 46 chromosomes
c. blue eyes
d. all of the above are phenotypes
62. If an allele must be present in two copies to be expressed, it is called a
a. dominant allele
b. recessive allele
c. codominant allele
63. When the effects of an allele are seen in both the heterozygous and the homozygous condition, the allele is
a. dominant
b. recessive
c. codominant
d. lethal
64. What phenotype ratio would be expected in the offspring of a cross between two fruit flies, both heterozygous for two genes
(for example, both heterozygous for tan body and plum eyes)?
a. 1:2:2:1
b.3:1
c. 9:3:3:1
d. 1:1
65. Which of the following is true about homologous chromosomes?
a. Each parent contributes one member of each pair.
b. Most appear identical when viewed microscopically.
c. Each homologue has genes for the same trait.
d. all of the above are true
66. Human sperm and eggs
a. each have one copy of each gene
b. each contain either all recessive or all dominant genes
c. are genetically identical to other sperm or eggs produced by the same individual
d. each contain all of the genetic information of their producer
67. Flower color in snapdragons is controlled by a gene with an incompletely dominant allele. That means that RR individuals
have red flowers, rr individuals have white flowers, and Rr individuals have pink flowers. What percentage of the offspring
between a white-flowered plant and a red flowered plant would be expected to have white flowers?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 100%
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Chromosomes, X linked inheritance
68. How many active X chromosomes do human women have in their normal body cells?
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
69. Which genetic condition results from failure of chromosomes to separate properly during meiosis?
a. Tay-Sachs disease
b. hemophilia
c. Down syndrome
d. sickle-cell disease
70. Which parent genetically determines the gender of a human baby?
a. father
b. mother
71. Which chromosome is larger and carries more genes?
a. X chromosome
b. Y chromosome
72. The presence or absence of a few specific gene products in the body determines whether the body develops as male or
female.
a. true
b. false
73. A human embryo with which of the following chromosomal abnormalities will never develop into a viable embryo?
a. XO
b. YO
c. XYY
d. XXY
74. An advantage of chorionic villus sampling over amniocentesis is that:
a. it is non-invasive
b. it can be performed earlier
c. it can detect a wider variety of conditions
d. the baby is unharmed
75. Which procedure can be performed earlier in pregnancy to determine the chromosomal constitution of a fetus?
a. amniocentesis
b. chorionic villus sampling
c. they are done at the same time
76. Women over the age of 35 are at increased risk of giving birth to a child with
a. phenyketonuria (PKU)
b. color blindness
c. Down syndrome
77. In a pedigree chart, a clear circle indicates
a. an affected male
b. an unaffected male
c. an affected female
d. Tay Sachs disorder
d. an unaffected female
78. Which of the following is a normal variant, causing no symptoms or disease condition?
a. XO
b. XXX
c. XXY
d. XYY
79. A tall, sterile male with small testes and some breast enlargement probably has the chromosomes:
a. XX
b. XXY
c. XY
d. XYY
80. Incorrect chromosome numbers are usually due to problems in
a. cytokinesis
b. meiosis
c. mitosis
d. twinning
81. Which chromosomal condition causes the most serious results?
a. on e X, no other sex chromosome
b. 3 copies of X chromosome
c. one X and two Y’s
d. 3 copies of chromosome 13
82. Which chromosomal condition causes the least serious results?
a. on e X, no other sex chromosome
b. 3 copies of X chromosome
c. one X and two Y’s
d. 3 copies of chromosome 13
83. Barr bodies are normally found in
a. males
b. females
c. both
84. Which can you use to determine the sex of a fetus?
a. an enzyme test
b. a stress test
c. an electroencephalogram
d. a karyotype
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85. The carriers of an X-linked recessive trait are ____ that do not express the recessive trait they carry.
a. homozygous individuals of either sex
b. heterozygous individuals of either sex
c. heterozygous males
d. heterozygous females
86. A recessive trait carried on the X chromosome is more often expressed in
a. males
b. females
c. both to the same degree
87. Human sperm cells are ______ and have _____ chromosomes.
a. diploid; 46
b. diploid; 23
c. haploid; 46
d. haploid; 23
88. Human brain cells are ______ and have _____ chromosomes.
a. diploid; 46
b. diploid; 23
c. haploid; 46
89. Linked genes
a. have similar types of effects
c. don’t really exist
d. haploid; 23
b. are cured by the same treatment
d. are found on the same chromosome
90. Which type of cell is haploid (1N)?
a. gamete
b. liver cell
c. neither
d. both
91. Which type of cell is diploid (2N)?
a. gamete
b. liver cell
c. neither
d. both
92. Which type of chromosome, if inherited in incorrect numbers, gives a more serious condition?
a. sex chromosomes
b. autosomes
93. Which of the following is true of a species with a chromosome number of 2N = 16?
a. A diploid cell will have 32 chromosomes.
b. The species has 16 different types of chromosomes.
c. There are 16 homologous pairs.
d. A gamete from this species has 8 chromosomes.
94. When two genes are found on the same chromosome, they are said to be
a conspecific
b. linked
c. homologs
d. sisters
95. There is currently speculation in biological circles that one of the human chromosomes may one day be lost. Which do you
think is the best candidate for such loss?
a. X
b. Y
c. 1
d. 21
96. Which answer correctly lists these 3 chromosomal abnormalities in order from least severe to most severe? (Note, XO
means one X chromosome and no other sex chromosome, similarly YO means one Y chromosome and no other sex
chromosome)
a. XO, YO, XYY
b. XYY, YO, XO
c. XYY, XO, YO
d. XO, XYY, YO
97. A tortoiseshell pattern in cats is due to
a. X chromosome inactivation
b. mutation
c. effects of the Y chromosome
98. You get one of these from your mother and one from your father.
a. sister chromatids
b. homologous chromosomes
d. none of these
c. neither
99. It is possible for girls to show X-linked traits like colorblindness
a. true
b. false
100. An older mother is more likely than a younger mother to be offered which for her fetus?
a. a genetic test for PKU
b. a karyotype
c. an ultrasound to check for normal heart development
d. a lot of sympathy
d. both
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DNA
101. The instructions for each trait passed on from one generation to the next are found in
a. amino acids
b. carbon
c. DNA
d. RNA
102. DNA is made up of nitrogen-containing bases, deoxyribose sugar, and _______.
a. nitrate
b. phosphate
c. RNA
d. amino acid
103. Which of the following is not a component of a nucleotide?
a. amino acid
b. phosphate group
c. sugar
104. In DNA, A forms complementary bonds with
aA
b. G
c. C
d. nitrogenous base
d. T
105. The scientists who discovered the structure of DNA were:
a. Darwin and Wallace
b.Franklin and Pauling
c. Watson and Crick
d. Hagley and Melroy
106. Who was involved in showing that DNA consists of a long, thin molecule with a repetitive structure?
a. Franklin
b. Chargaff
c. Griffith
d. Watson and Crick
107. Who was involved in showing that DNA carries genetic information?
a. Franklin
b. Chargaff
c. Griffith
108. If one side of a DNA molecule read ATATGG, the other side would be
a. ATATGG
b. GGTATA
c. CCATAT
d. Watson and Crick
d. TATACC
109. If cytosine (C) makes up 31% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA, then adenine (A) will make up what percent of the
bases?
a. 31%
b. 62%
c. 19%
d. you cannot tell from this information
110. DNA replication results in the duplication of a DNA molecule to form 2 identical offspring molecules. Which of the
following statements about DNA replication is true?
a. Of the two new DNA molecules, one contains all the old DNA and the other all newly made DNA
b. Both of the new DNA molecules are entirely newly made, the old DNA was destroyed
c. Both of the new DNA molecules have half of the old DNA and are half newly made DNA
d. Both of the new DNA molecules have random patches of old DNA interspersed with patches of newly made DNA
111. Harmless R type bacteria can be converted to lethal S type bacteria by which component of the extract of S type cells?
a. protein
b. DNA
c. RNA
d. both DNA and RNA
112. What happened when Griffith injected mice with dead, disease-causing S bacteria and live, non disease-causing R bacteria
at the same time?
a. The mice lived and had live S bacteria in their blood.
b. The mice died and had live S bacteria in their blood.
c. The mice lived and had no live bacteria in their blood.
d. The mice died and had live R bacteria in their blood.
113. Mutations are
a. rare
b. random
c. inherited
d. all of the above
114. The experiment in which pneumonia bacteria were transformed from smooth to rough demonstrated that:
a. the bacteria are alive
b. bacterial genotypes could be changed
c. mouse genotypes could be changed
d. all bacteria divide
115. Chemicals from heat-killed S cells were purified and tested for their ability to cause transformation of live R cells. Which
type of chemical had the transforming ability?
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. protein
d. both DNA and RNA
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116. One reason why the error rate is so low in DNA replication is because
a. most DNA doesn’t replicate often
b. the enzyme that replicates the DNA can also fix errors that occur
c. cells with incorrect DNA usually die off
d. none of these things are true; actually the error rate is high in DNA replication
117. Which would be more similar?
a. the DNA in your liver cell and the DNA in a brain cell of a random person in Chile
b. the proteins found in your liver cell and the proteins found in your brain cell
118. DNA polymerases
a. are enzymes that are involved in replication.
b. are available for proofreading assembled genes.
c. govern the assembly of nucleotides on the parent strand.
d. all of the above
119. Which of the following statements about DNA is true?
a. The amount of adenine always equals the amount of thymine.
b. The amount of guanine always equals the amount of cytosine.
c. The amount of adenine relative to guanine differs from one species to the next.
d. all of the above are true
120. The chemical instructions contained within a DNA molecule is determined by
I. the linear sequence of nucleotide bases in the molecule
II. the way in which the nucleotide bases pair with one another
III. the physical arrangement of sugar and phosphate molecules
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
Protein Synthesis, Genetic Engineering
121. Which of the following would cause a frameshift mutation?
a. a base-pair substitution
b. an inversion
c. an insertion
d. none of these
122. Which of the following are possible results of a change in the genetic material?
a. a genetic disease
b. an altered phenotype
c. no change in the organism
d. all are possible
123. If a gene is going to be expressed, its information is copied over in the form of
a. RNA
b. protein
c. ribosomes
d. none of these
124. A change in the genetic material is called a
a. base pair
b. mitosis
c. DNA polymerase
125. If an extra nucleotide is inserted into a gene, it causes a
a. frameshift mutation
b. point mutation
c. inversion
126. An accidental change in the DNA of a cell is called a
a. translation
b. mutation
c. transcription
d. mutation
d. none of the above
d. amino acid
127. Scientists are trying to cure certain genetic diseases by giving the affected person a correct copy of the gene that is
nonfunctional in his or her body. What is this process called?
a. karyotyping
b. gene therapy
c. cloning
d. human genome project
128. Translation of mRNA into a protein sequence requires the participation of:
a. ribosomes
b. bacteria
c. single-stranded DNA
d. double-stranded DNA
129. In the process called transcription:
a. DNA is used to make more DNA
c. messenger RNA and transfer RNA are used to make a protein sequence
b. messenger RNA is synthesized
d. DNA is not used
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130. A group of 3 nucleotide bases is called a
a. codon
b. amino acid
c. ribosome
d. gene
131. How many nucleotide bases are needed to code for one amino acid?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
132. DNA must leave the nucleus to carry out its function.
a. true
b. false
133. The type of RNA that helps transfer amino acids for protein synthesis is
a. mRNA
b tRNA
c. rRNA
d. hnRNA
134. DNA and protein are both long, unbranched molecules made of many small subunits put together. The subunits for
protein are ____, while those of DNA are ____.
a. nucleotide bases; amino acids
b. amino acids; phosphate
c. amino acids; nucleotide bases
d. phosphates; nucleotide bases
135. The ________determines which amino acid is coded by each particular DNA sequence.
a. double helix
b. ribosome
c. genetic code
d. nucleotide
136. Amino acids are found in _______; while __________ make up the DNA.
a. nucleotide bases; proteins
b. proteins; phosphates
c. proteins; nucleotide bases
d. phosphates; nucleotide bases
137. What type of mutation often leads to the largest change in the gene product?
a. point mutation
b. frameshift mutation
c. inversion
d. all lead to the same degree of change
138. Which of the following is (are) true of mutations?
a. Mutations happen frequently but are usually fixed.
b. Few mutations are passed on to offspring.
c. Mutations can cause genetic disease.
d. All 4 statements are true.
139. Codons consist of
a. groups of 3 nucleotides
c. nucleotides and amino acids
b. groups of 2 nucleotides
d. RNA molecules
140. Sickle cell disease is caused by an incorrect __________ in the DNA, which then leads to _______.
a. nucleotide; changes in the structure of hemoglobin protein
b. nucleotide; changes in the structure of hemoglobin DNA
c. amino acid; changes in the structure of hemoglobin protein
d. amino acid; changes in the structure of hemoglobin DNA
.
141. Normal hemoglobin (HbA) differs from abnormal hemoglobin (HbS) by
a. 1 amino acid
b. 2 amino acids
c. 3 amino acids
d. hundreds of amino acids
142. Scientists are trying to cure certain genetic diseases by giving the affected person a correct copy of the gene that is
nonfunctional in his or her body. What is this process called?
a. karyotyping
b. gene therapy
c. cloning
d. human genome project
143. Which is true?
a. Genes can only be transferred from one animal to a related animal.
b. Genes can only be transferred from one animal to any other animal.
c. Genes cannot be transferred from one animal to another.
d. Genes can be transferred from any organism to any other organism.
144. Enzymes
a. are complexes of DNA and protein
c. are found only in the nucleus
b. are proteins that initiate and direct chemical reactions
d. consist of sugar, phosphate, and four bases
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145. Put the steps of DNA replication in the correct order
1. Complementary nucleotides attach to their partners
2. Incorrectly added nucleotides are removed
3. The DNA double helix separates
4. DNA polymerase links the nucleotides together
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 3, 1, 4, 2
c. 3, 1, 2, 4
146. The promoter of a gene is found on the
a. sense strand
b. antisense strand
c. both strands
147. It is possible to patent living organisms
a. true
b. false
148. Which is not directly involved in protein synthesis?
a. DNA
b. mRNA
c. tRNA
d. 4, 2, 1, 3
d. neither strand
d. ribosomes
149. Which is the correct order of events during gene expression?
a. DNA is used to make protein, which is used to make RNA.
b. DNA is used to make RNA, which is used to make protein.
c. RNA is used to make protein, which is used to make DNA.
d. Protein is used to make DNA, which is used to make RNA.
150. When looking at DNA fingerprints to establish paternity, a geneticist would expect that
a. the child’s fingerprint would be identical to his correct father’s fingerprint
b. the child’s fingerprint would be identical to his mother’s fingerprint
c. the child’s fingerprint would consist of some bands shared with his mother and some bands shared with his father
d. the child’s fingerprint would consist of some bands shared with his mother, some bands shared with his father,
and some not found on either parent’s fingerprint.
151. Which is true of DNA words?
a. they can be any length
b. only certain combinations of letters carry information
c. they are all 3 letters long
d. none of these are true
152. All of your cells (except gametes) have the same
a. DNA
b. protein
c. both
153. Bacteria can distinguish between their original DNA and DNA sequences introduced by scientists from other organisms.
a. true
b. false
154. Genetically modified animals have been produced that make human proteins that we can extract and use.
a. true
b. false
155. RNA differs from DNA because only RNA
I. contains uracil instead of thymine
II. is constructed from 6 different types of nucleotides
III. is (usually) single stranded
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III only
d. I, II, and III
156. For most cells, DNA replication occurs in the _______ and protein synthesis takes place in the ___________.
a nucleus; cytoplasm
b. cytoplasm; nucleus
c. nucleus; nucleus
d. cytoplasm; cytoplasm
157. Electromagnetic radiation can cause mutations if it has the right wavelength to be absorbed by
a. DNA
b. protein
c. both
d. neither
158. Which of the following would represent a mutation?
a. a change in the base sequence of DNA
b. crossing over during meiosis
c. both
d. neither
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159. A geneticist found that a particular mutation had no effect on the protein coded by the gene. This mutation most likely
involved
a. deletion of one nucleotide
b. insertion of one nucleotide
c. deletion of the entire gene
d. substitution of one nucleotide
Cancer and Cell Division
160. Most information on cancer risks come from what type of studies?
a. studies of disease progression
b. epidemiological studies
c. studies of pharmaceutical action
d. DNA studies
161. Anything which increases the mutation rate is likely to increase the incidence of cancer.
a. true
b. false
162. The behavior of cancer cells differs from that of normal cells in which way?
a. cancer cells do not make a good contact with their neighbors
b. cancer cells will grow on top of each other
c. cancer cells can secrete chemicals causing blood vessels to develop in their vicinity
d. cancer cells may differ from normal cells in all of these ways.
163. Which type of gene does not regulate cell growth correctly?
a. a proto-oncogene
b. an oncogene
c. a tumor suppressor gene
164. In which type of tumor do cells lose their attachments to one another and move around?
a. benign tumor
b. malignant tumor
165. More cancers are caused by
a. environmental factors
166. Something which causes cancer is a
a. virus
b. metastasis
b. genetic factors inherited from the parents
c. carcinogen
167. Which will live longest in a lab?
a. a normal human cell
b. a normal mouse cell
d. angiogen
c. a cancerous human cell
168. When you write these answers, you use muscle and nerve cells. These cells have 46 chromosomes each and are
a. haploid
b. diploid
169. Which are normally identical to one another, at least during part of their existence?
a. sister chromatids
b. homologous chrosomes
170. Which have the same genes but not always the same alleles?
a. sister chromatids
b. homologous chromosomes
171. Which have the same genes and the same alleles?
a. sister chromatids
b. homologous chromosomes
c. neither
c. neither
d. both
d. both
172. In which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids come apart and form two separate groups at the poles of the dividing cell?
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
173. In which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes return to their interphase condition?
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
174. In which phase of mitosis do chromosomes become visible?
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
175. Cell division in which the chromosome number is reduced by one-half is called:
a. cytokinesis
b. nondisjunction c. mitosis
d. meiosis
e. any of the above
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176. Cell division in which the chromosome number is the same before and after division is called:
a. cytokinesis
b. nondisjunction
c. mitosis
d. meiosis
177. In which process does crossing over occur?
a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. both
d. neither
178. If a diploid organism has three different chromosomes (n = 3), it can produce ________ different combinations of maternal
and paternal chromosomes (disregarding crossing over).
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
179. Homologous chromosomes interact with each other during
a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. both
d. neither
180. The process of mitosis
I. results in daughter cells with half the genetic material of the original cell
II. is important for the growth of an organism
III. results in daughter cells genetically different from the original cell.
a. I only
b. II only
c. both I and III
d. both I and II
Answers: 1c 2d 3b 4c 5a 6c 7 not a question 8b 9c 10b 11d 12a 13b 14c 15b 16b 17c 18b 19d 20a 21a 22d 23b 24b 25a 26d 27b
28b 29b 30a 31b 32d 33c 34d 35a 36c 37c 38c 39d 40a 41c 42b 43c 44d 45c 46b 47c 48a 49c 50c 51a 52b 53d 54a 55c 56b 57d
58b 59b 60b 61c 62b 63a 64c 65d 66a 67a 68a 70a 72a 74b 76c 78d 80b 82c 84d 86a 88a 90a 92b 94b 96c 98b 100b 102b
104d 106a 108d 110c 112b 114b 116b 118d 120c 122d 124d 126b 128a 130a 132b 134c 136c 138d 140a 142b 144b 146a 148a
150c 152a 154a 156a 158a 160b 162d 164b 166c 168b 170b 172c 174a 176c 178b 180b