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Exam Review 2
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
1) DNA is found in structures called ______.
A) chiasma
B) centrosomes
C) chromosomes
D) centromeres
E) histones
2) A(n) ______ is an example of an organism that can reproduce asexually.
A) dog
B) mouse
C) human
D) cat
E) amoeba
3) The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ______.
A) basal body
B) nucleus
C) centriole
D) nucleolus
E) Golgi apparatus
4) Chromatin consists of ______.
A) protein only
B) RNA only
C) DNA and protein
D) RNA and protein
E) DNA only
5) A duplicated chromosome consists of two ______.
A) sister chromatids
B) centrosomes
C) centromeres
D) genomes
E) genes
6) Sister chromatids are joined at the ______.
A) centriole
B) chromatin
C) centrosome
D) centromere
E) spindle
7) Which of the following occurs during interphase?
A) Cytokinesis occurs.
B) Chromatin becomes tightly coiled.
C) Sister chromatids separate.
D) Chromosome duplication.
E) The mitotic spindle forms.
8) The cell cycle results in the production of ______.
A) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic
information
B) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic
information
C) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different
genetic information
D) two cells with different amounts of genetic material
E) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different
genetic information
9) Which of the following occurs during prophase?
A) Cytokinesis occurs.
B) The mitotic spindle begins to form.
C) The nuclear envelope forms.
D) Sister chromatids separate.
E) Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell.
10) Which of the following is a stage of mitosis?
A) interphase
B) cytokinesis
C) telophase
D) meiosis
E) DNA synthesis
11) The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______.
A) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
B) telophase, prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase
C) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
D) metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase
E) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
12) During metaphase ______.
A) cytokinesis occurs
B) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
C) sister chromatids separate
D) centromeres divide
E) the nuclear envelope breaks up
13) Which of these events occurs during anaphase?
A) Sister chromatids separate.
B) Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.
C) The nuclear envelope breaks up.
D) Cytokinesis occurs.
E) The nuclear envelope reappears.
14) During telophase ______.
A) sister chromatids separate
B) the events of prophase are reversed
C) the genetic material doubles
D) the nuclear envelope breaks up
E) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
15) A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ______.
A) have less genetic material than it started with
B) have two nuclei
C) have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell
D) be a prokaryotic cell
E) not have completed anaphase
16) Cytokinesis typically occurs during the ______ stage of mitosis.
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
E) interphase
17) What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor?
A) Benign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system;
malignant tumors are.
B) Benign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps.
C) Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do.
D) Benign tumors cannot kill you; malignant tumors can.
E) Benign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not.
18) Which of the following will help prevent cancer and increase survival?
A) Seek early detection of tumors.
B) Limit exercise.
C) Eat a low-fiber, low-fat diet.
D) Smoke only cigarettes.
E) Overexpose skin to the sun.
19) Homologous chromosomes ______.
A) include only the autosomes
B) include only the sex chromosomes
C) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent
D) carry the same genes
E) separate during interphase
20) What sex chromosomes belong to a normal human male?
A) XXY
B) XY
C) XX
D) XO
E) YO
21) How many autosomes do humans have?
A) 44
B) 2
C) 23
E) 22
D) 46
22) Chromosomes that do not determine the sex of an individual are called ______.
A) sister chromatids
B) centromeres
C) transposons
D) polysomes
E) autosomes
23) Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis, there is(are) ______ cell(s).
A) two diploid
B) four diploid
C) one diploid
D) four haploid
E) two haploid
24) One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ______.
A) mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells
B) mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does
not
C) mitosis produces more daughter cells than meiosis
D) mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells
E) meiosis is needed for growth and tissue repair, but mitosis is not
25) A karyotype (a chromosome display) would be unable to determine ______.
A) Turner syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) eye color
D) sex
E) polyploidy
26) The best definition of a true-breeding plant is one that ______.
A) self-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent
B) becomes sterile after three generations
C) produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized
D) self-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring
E) cannot be cross-fertilized
27) A mating between a true-breeding purple-flowered pea plant and a true-breeding
white-flowered pea plant would produce a(n) ______.
A) inbred organism
B) hybrid
C) true-breeding variety
D) F2 generation
E) P generation
28) Alleles are described as ______.
A) environmental factors that affect gene expression
B) alternate phenotypes
C) alternate versions of a gene
D) homologous chromosomes
E) Punnett squares
29) A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding
plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why?
A) The yellow allele is recessive to the green allele.
B) All of the offspring are homozygous yellow.
C) Yellow is an easier color to produce.
D) The alleles are codominant.
E) The yellow allele is dominant to the green allele.
30) A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding
plant that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the
expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F 1 × F1 cross?
A) 3:1
B) 9:3:3:1
C) 2:1
D) 1:1
E) 1:2:1
31) Mendel crossed true-breeding purple-flowered plants with true-breeding
white-flo plants, and all of the resulting offspring produced purple flowers. The allele for
wered
purple flowers is ______.
A) independent
B) monohybrid
C) segregated
D) dominant
E) recessive
32) Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a
child with attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with
an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
A) 25%
B) 0%
C) 50%
D) 100%
E) 75%
33) In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene.
What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples?
A) DD
B) dimples
C) Dd
D) DI
E) dd
34) An individual who is homozygous ______.
A) is a carrier of a genetic disorder
B) expresses the dominant trait
C) expresses the recessive trait
D) carries two different alleles for a gene
E) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene
35) Which of these crosses will only produce heterozygous offspring?
A) AA × Aa
B) Aa × Aa
C) Aa × aa
D) AA × aa
E) aa × aa
36) What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome?
A) locus
B) chromaddress
C) genotype
D) phenotype
E) allele
37) Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y) are
dominant to green seeds (y). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross
between an RrYy and an rryy individual?
A) 3:1
B) 1:1:1:1
C) 6:5:4:1
D) 9:3:3:1
E) 1:2:1
38) A couple has two female children. What is the probability that their next child will
be male?
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 67%
D) 33%
E) 25%
39) An individual heterozygous for cystic fibrosis ______.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
has cystic fibrosis
cannot have children with cystic fibrosis
will have children who are all carriers of cystic fibrosis
cannot reproduce
is a carrier
40) Which of the following techniques is used to collect fetal cells during pregnancy for
genetic testing?
A) monohybrid cross
B) amniocentesis
C) pedigree analysis
D) dihybrid cross
E) testcross
41) What is the key to the recognition of incomplete dominance?
A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the
homozygotes.
B) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.
C) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution.
D) The dominant allele is always expressed.
E) The alleles affect more than one trait.
42) An individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight
hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. What is the relationship
between the alleles for hair texture?
A) codominance
B) pleiotropy
C) incomplete dominance
D) straight hair and curly hair are sex-linked, but wavy hair is not
E) wavy hair is dominant to both straight and curly hair
43) An individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight
hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. If an individual with
wavy hair mates with an individual with straight hair, what is the probability that
their child will have curly hair?
A) 75%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 100%
E) 0%
44) In humans, the inheritance of ______ is best explained as being polygenic.
A) Huntington's disease
B) height
C) sickle-cell disease
D) blood type
E) cystic fibrosis
45) Many human traits, such as our performance on intelligence tests or our
susceptibility to heart disease, are ______.
A) not affected by our genes
B) determined only by our environment
C) determined by genes in some people and by the environment in other people
D) determined only by our genes
E) influenced by both genes and the environment
46) Assume that having three nostrils is inherited as a sex-linked trait on the Y
chromosome. A man with three nostrils has a daughter who has a son with a man
who has only two nostrils. What is the probability that the three-nostriled man's
grandson has three nostrils?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 0%
E) 100%
47) Red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait. The gene is
found on the X chromosome. How can a man with normal color vision father a
daughter who is red-green color-blind?
A) The woman with whom he mates is red-green color-blind.
B) Though he has normal color vision, the man is actually homozygous for
red-green color blindness.
C) The man is heterozygous for red-green color blindness.
D) The man's mother carries an allele for red-green color blindness, and the
expression of the trait skipped a generation.
E) He can't (unless there is a mutation).
48) DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.
A) amino acid
B) nucleotide
C) fatty acid
D) protein
E) carbohydrate
49) The backbone of DNA consists of ______.
A) nitrogenous bases
B) a repeating sugar-nucleotide-sugar-nucleotide pattern
C) a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern
D) paired nucleotides
E) a repeating ACTGACTG pattern
50) The DNA double helix is ______.
A) composed of adenine and thymine
B) a puzzle to geneticists
C) composed of adenine and guanine
D) composed of two chromosomes
E) made up of two polynucleotide strands
51) RNA contains the nitrogenous base ______ instead of ______, which is only found in
DNA.
A) cytosine . . . guanine
B) adenine . . . guanine
C) nucleotides . . . nucleic acids
D) uracil . . . thymine
E) a deoxyribose sugar . . . a ribose sugar
52) If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the
bases are guanine?
A) 30%
B) 60%
C) 20%
D) 40%
E) 80%
53) In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.
A) guanine . . . adenine
B)
C)
D)
E)
cytosine . . . uracil
cytosine . . . thymine
thymine . . . cytosine
uracil . . . cytosine
54) If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the
sequence of the other strand?
A) CUGGTU
B) ACTTGC
C) TGAACG
D) CAGGTA
E) CAGGUA
55) Who discovered the structure of DNA?
A) Watson and Crick
B) Chase
C) Pauling
D) Hershey and Chase
E) Franklin
56) What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?
A) hydrophilic
B) ionic
C) hydrogen
D) covalent
E) hydrophobic
57) After replication, ______.
A) each new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand
B) each new DNA double helix contains 25% of the old DNA double helix
C) each new DNA double helix consists of two old strands
D) each new DNA double helix consists of two new strands
E) one new DNA double helix consists of two old strands and the other new DNA
double helix consists of two new strands
58) During replication, ______ are the enzymes responsible for joining the nucleotides of
a new DNA strand together.
A) DNA gyrases
B) DNA ligases
C) DNA helicases
D) DNA polymerases
E) DNases
59) What name is given to the collection of traits exhibited by an organism?
A) morphology
B) genotype
C) holotype
D) typology
E) phenotype
60) How many amino acids are common to all living systems?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 100
E) 1000
61) How many nucleotides make up a codon?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
62) The shared genetic code of all life on Earth is evidence that ______.
A) all life shares a common ancestry
B) life was created by a deity
C) the genetic code arose relatively late in the history of life on Earth
D) DNA replication is error-free
E) bacterial cells arose earlier than eukaryotic cells
63) Transcription is the ______.
A) manufacture of a protein based on information carried by RNA
B) manufacture of two new DNA double helices that are identical to an old DNA
double helix
C) manufacture of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA
D) manufacture of a new strand of DNA complementary to an old strand of DNA
E) modification of a strand of RNA prior to the manufacture of a protein
64) If a strand of DNA has the sequence AAGCTC, transcription will result in a(n)
______.
A) single RNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG
B) DNA double helix with the sequence AAGCTC for one strand and TTCGAG
for the complementary strand
C) single RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG
D) RNA double helix with the sequence UUCGAG for one strand and AAGCUC
for the complimentary strand
E) single DNA strand with the sequence TTCGAG
65) Which of the following enzymes is responsible for RNA synthesis?
A) RNA helicase
B) RNA polymerase
C) RNase
D) RNA gyrase
E) RNA ligase
66) The region of DNA where RNA synthesis begins is the ______.
A) initiator
B) promoter
C) start codon
D) terminator
E) processor
67) The correct sequence of events occurring during transcription is ______.
A) initiation, elongation, termination
B) capping, tailing, splicing
C) tailing, capping, splicing
D) elongation, initiation, termination
E) splicing, capping, tailing
68) The absence of a terminator in transcription will result in ______.
A) the production of a longer RNA molecule
B)
C)
D)
E)
a strand of mRNA that lacks its cap and tail
the production of a more efficient protein
the creation of a virus
the production of a shorter RNA molecule
69) What protects mRNA from attack by cellular enzymes?
A) the lack of RNA-digesting enzymes in the cytoplasm
B) the removal of introns
C) the removal of exons
D) a cap and tail
E) RNA splicing
70) The expressed (coding) regions of eukaryotic genes are called ______.
A) caps
B) exons
C) introns
D) tails
E) promoters
71) Translation converts the information stored in ______ to
A) protein . . . DNA
B) DNA . . . RNA
C) RNA . . . DNA
D) RNA . . . a polypeptide
E) DNA . . . a polypeptide
______.
72) The RNA that is translated into a polypeptide is ______ RNA.
A) nuclear
B) transfer
C) messenger
D) ribosomal
E) nucleolar
73) Where is translation accomplished?
A) lysosomes
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) peroxisomes
D) nucleoli
E) ribosomes
74) What is the correct order of the stages of translation?
A) initiation, codon recognition, translocation, peptide bond formation,
termination
B) initiation, peptide bond formation, translocation, codon recognition,
termination
C) initiation, translocation, codon recognition, peptide bond formation,
termination
D) initiation, codon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation,
termination
E) initiation, peptide bond formation, codon recognition, translocation,
termination
75) Peptide bonds form between ______.
A) an mRNA codon and a tRNA anticodon
B) a tRNA and the amino acid it is carrying
C) an mRNA transcript and the small ribosomal subunit
D) the small ribosomal subunit and the large ribosomal subunit
E) amino acids
76) What is the smallest number of nucleotides that must be added or subtracted to
change the triplet grouping of the genetic message?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
77) What is the ultimate source of all diversity?
A) natural selection
B) crossing over
C) mutation
D) sexual recombination
E) meiosis
78) Viruses that infect bacteria are ______.
A) retroviruses
B) emerging viruses
C) proviruses
D) enveloped viruses
E) bacteriophages
79) At one point, you were just an undifferentiated, single cell. You are now made of
many cells; some of these cells function as liver cells, some as muscle cells, some as
red blood cells, while others play different roles. What name is given to the process
that is responsible for this?
A) cleavage
B) carcinogenesis
C) regeneration
D) morphology
E) cellular differentiation
80) The process by which genotype becomes expressed as phenotype is ______.
A) phenogenesis
B) gene expression
C) recombination
D) transcription
E) cleavage
81) In bacteria, what name is given to a cluster of genes with related functions, along
with their control sequences?
A) operon
B) exon
C) regulatory gene
D) activator
E) promoter
82) Bacterial RNA polymerase binds to the ______.
A) proto-oncogene
B)
C)
D)
E)
promoter
exon
operator
regulatory gene
83) In prokaryotes, the production of a single RNA transcript for a group of related
genes is under the control of the ______.
A) operon
B) signal transduction pathway
C) homeobox
D) allele
E) master control gene
84) In an operon, the ______ acts as an on/off switch.
A) activator
B) repressor
C) regulatory gene
D) promoter
E) operator
85) Which of the following turns off transcription by binding to the operator?
A) promoters
B) enzymes
C) RNA polymerase
D) repressors
E) lactose
86) Repressors act by blocking the binding of _____ to the operator.
A) DNA polymerase
B) the operon
C) RNA polymerase
D) regulatory genes
E) promoters
87) What is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription?
A) the binding and unbinding of transcription factors to enhancer sequences
B) the binding and unbinding of transcription factors to silencer sequences
C) RNA splicing
D) DNA packing and unpacking
E) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter
88) Which of these plays a role in the regulation of transcription in both prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells?
A) attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter
B) enhancer sequences
C) RNA splicing
D) gene operons
E) transcription factors
89) In eukaryotic cells, repressor proteins inhibit transcription by binding to ______.
A) enhancers
B) silencers
C) operators
D) regulators
E) operons
90) Introns are ______.
A) noncoding DNA sequences
B) expressed DNA sequences
C) the product of RNA splicing
D) DNA sequences to which activators bind
E) DNA sequences to which silencers bind
91) Cells communicate with one another via ______.
A) the diffusion of RNA transcripts through adhesion junctions
B) signal transduction pathways
C) RNA splicing
D) sound
E) cascades of gene activation
92) How is it that the cells in different body tissues are able to perform different
functions?
A) The cells exhibit different patterns of gene expression.
B) The nutrient preferences of particular tissues play a role.
C) The cells contain different genes.
D) The mutations that have accumulated in the cells of the different tissues control
functions.
E) The age of the cells making up the tissues plays a role.
93) To make a clone a genetically identical organism from a mammalian cell, the cell
must ______.
A) reacquire the genes it lost during the course of development
B) be enucleated
C) be implanted in the egg of an organism that is capable of regenerating lost
body parts
D) come from an early stage of embryonic development
E) be dedifferentiated
94) Possible uses of reproductive cloning include ______.
A) the production of organs in pigs for transplant into humans
B) restocking populations of endangered animals
C) the production of potentially valuable drugs
D) the production of genetically identical animals for experimentation
E) all of the above.
95) What is a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells?
A) It is easier to enucleate embryonic stem cells.
B) Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially
differentiated.
C) Adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture.
D) The use of embryonic stem cells raises fewer ethical issues than the use of adult
stem cells.
E) Embryonic stem cells are harder to isolate than are adult stem cells.
96) What name is given to a gene that causes cancer?
A) homeotic gene
B) oncogene
C) pathogene
D) cancogene
E) regulatory gene
97) Many proto-oncogenes regulate ______.
A) cell growth
B) cell repair
C) transcription of RNA polymerase
D) cell division
E) cell suicide
98) One of the most potent environmental carcinogens is ______.
A) UV radiation
B) dietary fat
C) alcohol
D) table salt
E) viruses
99) More people die of ______ cancer than of any other cancer.
A) pancreatic
B) cervical
C) lung
D) skin
E) breast
100) Which of these lifestyle choices will increase cancer risk?
A) a diet high in plant fiber
B) a diet high in animal fat
C) quitting smoking
D) jogging
E) eating more foods such as cabbage and cauliflower
101) The "master control genes" that regulate other genes, which determine what body
parts will develop in which locations, are called ______.
A) oncogenes
B) operons
C) tumor suppressor genes
D) homeotic genes
E) enhancers
102) Which of these is most likely to cause the development of a six-legged frog?
A) mutation of homeotic genes
B) mutation of tumor-suppressor genes
C) dietary supplementation
D) conversion of a proto-oncogene to an oncogene
E) artificial selection