Download 1. What type of joint do the capitulum of the humerus

1. What type of joint do the capitulum of the humerus and the
head of the radius make?
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a) planar
b) pivot
c) syndesmosis
d) saddle
e) ball and socket
2. The anterior cruciate ligament:
a) prevents the tibia from displacing anteriorly
b) prevents the tibia from displacing posteriorly
c) prevents the tibia from displacing medially
d) prevents the tibia from displacing laterally
e) keeps the patella in place
3. The cranial sutures would be classified functionally as what
type of joint?
a) synarthrosis
b) amphiarthrosis
c) diarthrosis
d) gomphosis
e) Stephanie
4. Which type of upper arm movement is not possible at the glenohumeral (shoulder) joint?
a) abduction
b) circumduction
c) flexion
d) pronation
e) hyperextension
5. Bursae are responsible for:
a) acting as a point of leverage for movement of a limb
b) secreting synovial fluid into the articular capsule
c) decreasing friction between muscles/tendons and bone
d) structurally supporting the joint ligaments
e) praising you when you do something right
6. The medial (tibial) collateral ligament of the knee is responsible for:
a) preventing the tibia from displacing anteriorly
b) providing structural support to the medial aspect of the
knee
c) providing structural support to the lateral aspect of the
knee
d) rotating the fibula
e) rotating the tibia
8. Abduction is best described as:
a) decreasing the angle of two bones at a joint
b) increasing the angle of two bones at a joint
c) movement of a limb towards the midline
d) movement of a limb away from the midline
e) rotational movement at a joint
9. The origin of a muscle is best defined by:
a) the area where the muscle attaches to bone
b) it is the same thing as the fibrous covering over bone
c) the site of muscular attachment to the more stationary
bone
d) the site of muscular attachment to the more moveable
bone
e) none of the above
10. The most common lever system used in moving joints is the:
a) first class lever
b) second class lever
c) third class lever
d) fourth class lever
e) fifth class lever
11. What type of muscular fascicle arrangement would create
the most force but the least amount of change in length during
contraction?
a) parallel
b) fusiform
c) unipennate
d) bipennate
e) multipennate
12. Which of the following statements about flexion of the forearm at the elbow and stabilization of the upper arm is true?
a) the deltoid is the agonist, the biceps brachii is the
antagonist and the triceps brachii is the synergist
b) the triceps brachii is the agonist, the deltoid is the
antagonist and the biceps brahii is the synergist
c) the biceps brachii is the agonist, the deltoid is the
antagonist and the triceps brachii is the synergist
d) the biceps brachii is the agonist, the triceps brachii is the
antagonist and the deltoid is the fixator
e) none of the above, the deltoid has absolutely no role in
flexion of the forearm
13. Which of the following muscles plays the most substantial
role in abduction of the eye?
a) superior oblique
b) lateral rectus
c) inferior oblique
d) a and c
e) none of the above
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17. Which of the following is not found in smooth muscle cells?
a) actin filaments
b) myosin filaments
c) dense bodies
d) calmodulin
e) z disks
18. A bundle of muscle fibers surrounded by perimysium is
called a:
a) myofibril
b) myofilament
c) fasicle
d) muslce
e) tendon
19. The muscle cell membrane is called the:
a) sarcolemma
b) sarcoplasm
c) sarcomere
d) sarcophagus
e) none of the above
20. The main purpose of the T-tubule is to:
a) store calcium
b) increase the surface area at the motor end plate
c) give sarcomeres a place to attach
d) quickly propagate action potentials throughout the cell
e) drain bile from the common bile duct
21. The main purpose of the sarcoplasmic reticulum is to:
a) store calcium
b) increase the surface area at the motor end plate
c) give sarcomeres a place to attach
d) quickly propagate action potentials throughout the cell
e) instil leakage gates ino Bill Gates
22. Training exercises such as running, swimming, jogging have
what effect on skeletal muscle tissue?
a) increase in the number of muscle cells
b) increase in the number of mitochondria in muscle fibers
c) increase in the number of motor units in a muscle
d) both a and c
e) all of the above
23. The sarcomere is anatomically defined as:
a) the area between I bands
b) the area between A bands
c) the area between Z disks
d) the area between M lines
e) the area between H zones
24. During contraction (isotonic concentric) the sarcomere:
a) shortens
b) lengthens
c) stays the same
d) disconnects the M protein from the A bands
e) removes myosin heads from the rest of the A band
25. When an action potential reaches a synaptic end bulb in a motor neuron the next thing that occurs is:
a) calcium is released inside the muscle fiber
b) acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft
c) the action potential crosses to the muscle fiber via gap
junctions
d) acetylcholine is recycled by acetylcholinesterase
e) T-tubles begin absorbing calcium
26. What allows an energized myosin head to attach to actin?
a) attachement of ATP to the myosin head
b) the hydrolysis of a phosphate group from ATP
c) removal of ADP from the myosin head
d) movement of tropomyosin off of the myosin binding site
e) none of the above
27. The event that causes myosin to detach from actin is:
a) attachement of ATP to the myosin head
b) the hydrolysis of a phosphate group from ATP
c) removal of ADP from the myosin head
d) movement of tropomyosin over the myosin binding site
e) none of the above
28. The event that energizes the myosin head is:
a) attachement of ATP to the myosin head
b) the hydrolysis of a phosphate group from ATP
c) removal of ADP from the myosin head
d) movement of tropomyosin over the myosin binding site
e) none of the above
29. Maximum tension develops during muscle contraction when
a muscle is at an optimum length. In the sarcomere the optimal
length for generating the most tension during contraction is when:
a) the actin filaments overlap most of the A band but a
small H zone still persists
b) the actin filaments overlap the A band entirely and no H
zone is present (the actin filaments are overlapping in the
middle of the A band)
c) the actin filaments overlap only a small portion the A
band and a large H zone is present
d) when the M line is in the middle of the A band
e) none of the above
30. Creatine’s main purpose in muscle cells is to:
a) maintain maximal calcium concentration in the
sarcoplasm
b) increase protein production in muscle cells
c) serve as a reserve source of phosphate to fill short term
ATP supply in the cell
d) a and c
e) all of the above
31. When a muscle cell is releasing lactic acid into the blood,
what type of cellular respiration is taking place?
34. In wave summation, a second action potential causes a more
forceful contraction because:
a) there is still calcium left in the sarcoplasm
b) all of the ATP is used up
c) the elastic elements are still streatched tight
d) a and c
e) none of the above
35. An isometric contraction is best defined by:
a) muscle lengthens while maintaining force and movement
b) a muscle shortens to produce force and movment
c) muscular tension generated without change in
muscle length
d) concentric contractions
e) eccentric contractions
36. Which of the following is not found in cardiac muscle?
a) A bands
b) I bands
c) sarcoplasmic reticulum
d) Z disks
e) all of the above are found in cardiac muscle
37. Dendrites:
a) aerobic
b) anerobic
c) mitochondrial
d) sarcoplasmic
e) endodontic
32. After long periods of strenuous activity (>60 seconds) what
is the predominant type of cellular respiration taking place in the
muscle cells?
a) aerobic
b) anerobic
c) mitochondrial
d) sarcoplasmic
e) endodontic
a) carry potentials towards neuron cell bodies
b) carry potentials away from neruon cell bodies
c) carry potentials up the axon in a retrograde fashion
d) are only found on motor neurons
e) are an urban legend
38. Action potentials usually begin at the (pick the best answer):
a) dendrites
b) cell body
c) axon hillock
d) axon terminus
e) synaptic boutons
39. The cell membrane of an axon is called the:
33. The largest motor units:
a) have a large number of fibers innervated by one motor
neuron
b) give the most precise control of body movments
c) produce the most powerful muscular contractions per
action potential
d) both a and c
e) all of the above
a) telodendria
b) axoplasm
c) axomere
d) neurologist
e) axolemma
40. Efferent neurons:
a) carry potentials away from the CNS
b) carry potentials towards the CNS
c) are also called motor neurons
d) a and c
e) all of the above
41. A neuron that has a single dendrite coming into the cell body
and a single axon leaving the other side of the cell body is called
a:
a) multipolar neuron
b) bipolar neuron
c) unipolar neuron
d) polar neuron
e) polar express
47. The resting membrane potential in the average neuron is:
a) +30 mV
b) -55 mV
c) -70 mV
d) -90 mV
e) -100 mV
48. Neurotransmitter can be removed from a synaptic cleft by
which processes?
42. What type of neuroglial cell myelinates axons?
a) schwann cell
b) astrocyte
c) oligodendrocyte
d) both a and c
e) all of the above
a) diffusion
b) enzymatic degradation
c) reuptake by the presynaptic neuron
d) both a and c
e) all of the above
49. A damaged peripheral axon can be repaired if:
43. The total force of the electrochemical gradient across the
neural cell membrane is due to:
a) actions of the Sodium/Potassium pump
b) sodium leakage channels
c) selective permeability of the membrane to potassium
d) both a and c
e) all of the above
44. Which of the following statements regarding graded potentials (as compared to action potentials) is not true?
a) they are produced by ligand or mechanically-gated
channels
b) arise only at the trigger zone of the axon hillock
c) they last as long as the stimulus does (no refractory
period)
d) its amplitude is proportional to the strength of the
stimulus
e) they are localized to one area of the neuron (not
propagated throughout the cell)
45. The change in voltage during the depolarizing phase of the
action potential is due to:
a) opening of voltage gated potassium channels
b) opening of voltage gated sodium channels
c) closing of voltage gated sodium channels
d) both a and c
e) all of the above
46. The change in voltage during the repolarizing phase of the
action potential is due to:
a) opening of voltage gated potassium channels
b) opening of voltage gated sodium channels
c) closing of voltage gated sodium channels
d) both a and c
e) all of the above
a) the neruon cell body is destroyed
b) the schwan cell neurolemma (tube) is intact
c) there are oligodendrocytes present
d) there is enough neurotransmitter in the synaptic end
bulbs
e) all of the above
50. Which central nervous system glial cell is responsible for
maintaining the blood brain barrier?
a) schwann cell
b) oligodendrocyte
c) ependymal cell
d) satellite cell
e) astrocyte
1. b
26. d
2. a
27. a
3. a
28. b
4. d
29. a
5. c
30. c
6. b
31. b
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32. a
8. d
33. d
9. c
34. d
10. c
35. c
11. e
36. e
12. d
37. a
13. b
38. c
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39. e
15. skip
40. d
16. skip
41. b
17. e
42. d
18. c
43. d
19. a
44. b
20. d
45. b
21. a
46. d
22. b
47. c
23. c
48. e
24. a
49. b
25. b
50. e