Download Teacher shi 18940209087 Email: QQ

Teacher shi
18940209087
Email: [email protected]
QQ:95223609
1. If there are 55% of proteins in a solution, the nitrogen of the proteins in this
solution is ___.
A. 8.8%
B. 8.0%
C. 8.4%
D.
9.2%
E. 9.6%
2. ________ stabilizes the secondary structure of DNA.
A. Ionic bonds
B. Base stacking forces
C. Peptide bonds
D. Disulfide bonds
E. Covalent bonds
3. Which of the following sequences is complementary to the DNA sequence
5'-AAGTCCGA-3'?
A. 5'-AAGUCCGA-3'
B. 3'-TTCAGGCT-5'
C. 5'-TTCAGGCT-3'
D. 3'-TCGGACTT-5'
E. 3'-TCGGACUU-5'
4. As a biological catalyst, enzymes can ___.
A. Decrease the activation energy of a reaction.
B. Increase the activation energy of a reaction.
C. Increase the energy level of products.
D. Decrease the energy level of substrates.
E. Decrease the change of the free energy in a reaction.
5. How many net molecules of ATP are generated in the conversion of glucose to
pyruvate?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
6. The regulation point of pentose phosphate pathway is ___.
A. the activity of G-6-p dehydrogenase
B. the amount of G-6-p in body
C. the amount of ribose
D. the ratio of ATP/ADP
E. the ratio of NADPH/NADP
7. Which of the following glycolytic enzymes is used in gluconeogenesis?
A. Glucokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase 1
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Aldolase
E. none of the above
8. An infant with an enlarged liver has a glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency.
This infant ___.
A. cannot maintain blood glucose levels either by glycogenolysis or
by gluconeogenesis
B. can use liver glycogen to maintain blood glucose levels
C. can use muscle glycogen to maintain blood glucose levels
D. can convert both alanine and glycerol to glucose to maintain blood
glucose levels
E. can live as a normal person
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9. Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order from
most dense to least dense?
A. HDL/VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL
B. HDL/LDL /VLDL/chylomicrons
C. LDL/ chylomicrons/HDL/VLDL
D. VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL/ HDL
E. LDL/chylomicrons /VLDL / HDL
10. The physiological significance of ketone body formation is ___.
A. to keep blood sugar level in a stable level
B. to increase blood sugar level
C. to decrease blood sugar level
D. a pathway to output energy from liver to brain and muscle tissue
E. to induce ketoacidosis
11. Which is the key enzyme of fat mobilization?
A. glycerol kinase
B. hormone-sensitive triglyceride lipase (HSL)
C. acyl-CoA synthetase
D. phosphoglycerol dehydrogenase
E. hexokinase
12. Which is the uncoupler of ETC?
A. 2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP)
B. Rotenone
C. piericidin A
D. Antimycin A
E. oligomycin
13. when we putβ-hydroxy butyrate in entire mitochondria, we found that 3
inorganic phosphates incorporated into ATP per oxygen atom were consumed. So
the P/O ratio is ___.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. none of the above
14. Which is the key enzyme of biosynthesis of cholesterol?
A. HMG CoA synthase
B. HMG CoA dehygrogenase
C. HMG CoA hydrase
D. HMG CoA reductase
E. HMG CoA lysase
15. Pyridoxal phosphate is required for the enzymes catalyzing the reaction is ___.
A. glutamate + NH 3 + ATP → glutamine + ADP + Pi
B. glutamate + NAD+ → a-ketoglutarate + NH4 + + NADH + H+
C. glutamine + H2O → glutamate + NH3
D. pyruvate + glutamate → alanine +α-ketoglutarate
E. urea cycle
16. one carbon unit does not include ___.
A. -CH3
B. -CH2C. -CH=
D. -CHO
E. COOH
17. The major amino acid that is released from muscle and converted to glucose in
the liver is ___.
A. alanine
B. glutamine
C.
valine
D. aspartate
E. glutamate
18. Gout occurs because ______ precipitates in joint and blood.
2
A. uric acid
B. urea
C.
cholesterol
D. xanthine
E. hypoxanthine
19. In DNA replication, ① DNA polymerase Ⅲ ② rep protein ③ DNA
polymerase Ⅰ ④ DDRP ⑤ DNA ligase is needed , the sequence is ___.
A. ④③①②⑤
B.①②③④⑤
C.③④①⑤②
D. ⑤④③②①
E. ②④①③⑤
20. Which of the following is not correct about reverse transcription?
A. use RNA as template
B. product is DNA
C. base pairing is U-A, C-G, A-T
D. the direction of elongation is 5’→ 3’
E. the material is NTP
21. Which of the following statements concerning replication of DNA
is TRUE?
A. It progresses in both directions away from each point of origin on
the chromosome
B. It requires a DNA template that is copied in its 5' to 3' direction
C. It occurs during the M phase of the cell cycle
D. It produces one newly synthesized double helix and one composed
of the two parental strands
E. It use continuous replication manners
22. Amanitin can inhibit ___.
A. the protein synthesis
B. the mRNA synthesis
C. DNA synthesis
D. glycoprotein synthesis
E. adenine synthesis
23. If a fragment of DNA containing the sequence 5'-AGCCAATT-3'
serves as template for transcription, the RNA that is produced will
have the sequence ___.
A. 5'-AGCCAAUU-3'
B. 5'-UCGGUUAA-3'
C. 5'-UUAACCGA-3'
D. 5'-AAUUGGCU-3'
E. 5'-AAUUGGUC-3'
24. The function of ρ factor is to ___.
A. bind repressor in initial region
B. increase the velocity of RNA synthesis
C. release the RNA polymerase which binds to promoter
D. involved in the termination of transcription
E. permit the initiation of the special transcription
25. An aminoacyl-tRNA exhibits which one of the following characteristics?
A. It is produced by a synthetase that is specific for the amino acid, but not the
tRNA
B. It is composed of an amino acid esterified to the 5’ end of the tRNA
C. It requires GTP for its synthesis from an amino acid and a tRNA
D. It contains an anticodon that is complementary to the codon for the amino acid
E. It contains a codon that is complementary to the codon for the amino acid
26. The function of IF-1 is to ___.
A. promote the binding of IF-3 to small subunit
B. promote the separation of small and large subunit
C. promote the binding of small and large subunit
D. promote the allosterism of IF-2
3
E. cause GTP hydrolysis
27. Insertions or deletions of bases in mRNA can alter the amino acids sequence
of translational product; which feature of the genetic codon is that involved?
A. Commaless
B. Degeneracy
C. Wobble
D. Universality E.
direction
28. Gene expression can be controlled at several stages, the key stage is ____.
A. initiation of transcription
B. post-transcriptional modification
C. mRNA degradation
D. translation
E. post- translational modification
29. Promoter means ___.
A. a unit for transcribed fragments
B. transcription origin
C. translation origin
D. a region of DNA template which RNA-pol binds to
E. a sequence being apart from structural gene and
enhancing transcription
30. Which of the following statements about Enhancer is not true?
A. Enhancer is the DNA sequence to which the eukaryotic gene
activators bound.
B. It determines the temporal and spatial specificity of the gene
expression.
C. Their presence enhances or increases the rate of transcription
dramatically.
D. Their function is independent of its direction.
E. Their function is dependent of its distance.
31. Which of the following vector is widely used?
A. Plasmid
B. Bacteriophage λ
C. Cosmid
D. Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)
E. None of above
32. Making cDNA libraries needs ____.
A. reverse transcriptase, DNA template
B. DNA polymerase, mRNA template
C. reverse transcriptase, mRNA template
D. DNA polymerase, tRNA template
E. reverse transcriptase, rRNA template
33. Ras is ____.
A. GTP binding protein
B. tyrosine protein kinase
C. intranuclear DNA binding protein
D. ligand
E. receptor
34. Function of DAG is ____.
A. activate PKA
B. activate CaM-K
C. open the Ca2+channel located at ER
D. activate PKG
E. activate PKC
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35. Which is the main transportation form of the bilirubin in blood?
A. bilirubin—albumin
B. bilirubin—Y protein
C. bilirubin—glucuronate
D. bilirubin—amino acid
E. bilirubin—glucose
36. Which is the key enzyme of heme synthesis?
A. cholesterol 7α-hydroxylase
B. HMG-CoA reductase
C. ALA synthase
D. chenodeoxycholic acid CoA synthetase
E. bile acid synthetase
37. Which bile pigment is the main color of feces and urine?
A. unconjugated bilirubin
B. bilinogen
C. biliverdin
D. bilin
E. conjugated bilirubin
38. G-protein has
subunits.
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
E. 5
39. In Lac operon, which is the place where repressor protein bind.
A. O
B. P
C. I D. CAP sites E. structural gene
40. Which of the following enzyme is used in cAMP synthesis?
A. Adenylate cyclase, AC
B. Phosphodiesterase, PDE
C. Protein Kinase A, PKA
D. DNA polymerase
E. phosphorylase
41.The active site of an enzyme
(A) is formed only after addition of a specific substrate
(B) is directly involved in binding of allosteric inhibitors
(C) resides in a few adjacent amino acid residues in the primary sequence
of the polypeptide chain
(D) binds competitive inhibitors
(E) none of the above
42.How many moles net ATP can be formed when one mole 22 acid
is oxidized?:
(A)146
(B)148
(C)150
(D)160
(E)180
43. In the components of a respiratory chain , the only one which can activate
O2 is
(A) Cyt aa3
(B) CoQ
(C) Cyt b
(D) Cyt c
(E) Cyt c1
44. The final product of β-oxidation of palmitate is:
(A)acetyl CoA
(B)glycerol
(C)•acetyl+•propionyl CoA
(D) propionyl CoA (E) none of the above
45. Which one of the following amino acids is non-essential amino acid in the
5
human diet?
(A) Alanine
(B) Lysine
(C) Tryptophan
(D) Valine
(E)
Leucine
46. The most important direct energy-donor in body is :
(A) ADP
(B) GTP
(C) creatine phosphate (D) ATP
(E)GDP
47. The sequence of cytochrome in the process of transfering electrons
(A). aa3c1 c b
(B). c1  b c aa3
(C) b c1  aa3 c
(D). b  c  c1  aa3
(E). b c1 c aa3
48.The N-terminal amino acid of the hexapeptide(Trp-Ala-Ser-Glu-Val-Arg）is
(A) alanine
(B) asparagine
(C)tryptophan
(D) arginine
（E）
serine
49. The principal function of the TCA cycle is to
(A) generate CO2
(B) transfer electrons from the acetyl portion of acetylCoA to NAD+ and FAD
(C) oxidize the acetyl portion of acetyl CoA to oxaloacetate
(D) generate heat from the oxidation of the acetyl portion of acetyl CoA
(E) dispose of excess pyruvate and fatty acids
50. How many moles of ATP can be formed if one mole of pyruvate are
completely oxidized through TAC and electrontransport chain •?
(A)10.5
(B)10
(C)12.5
(D)12
(E)13
51. Which one of the following amino acids is non-essential amino acid in
human’s
diet?
(A) Serine
(B) Lysine
(C) Tryptophan
(D) Valine
(E)
Leucine
52. The most important direct energy-donor in body is:
(A) ADP
(B) ATP
(C) creatine phosphate
(D) GTP
(E) GDP
53. The sequence of cytochrome in the process of transferring electrons
(A) b c1 c aa3
(B) c1  b c aa3
(C) b c1  aa3 c
(D) b  c  c1  aa3
(E) aa3c1
c b
54. those amino acid in protein molecules belongs to___
(A) L-β-amino acid
(B) D-β- amino acid
(C) L-α- amino acid
(D) D-α- amino acid
(E) L、D-α- amino acid
55. Cofactor needed in pentose phosphate pathway is:
(A) NAD (B) FAD (C) NADP (D) FMN (E) none of the above
56. The chemical bond that stabilizes primary structure of protein is___
(A) peptide bond
(B) hydrogen bond
(C) covalent bond
(D) non-covalent bond
(E) bisulfate bond
57. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme
(A) increases Km but does not affect Vmax•
(B) decreases Km but does not affect Vmax
(C) increases Vmax but does not affect Km
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(D) decreases Vmax but does not affect Km
(E) decreases both Vmax and Km
58. In DNA, on a molar basis
(A) adenine equals thymine
(B) adenine equals uracil
(C) guanine equals adenine
(D) cytosine equals thymine
(E) cytosine equals uracil
59. Which RNA contains 7-methylguanine at the 5' end?
(A) 5S RNA
(B) rRNA
(C) mRNA
(D) tRNA
(E) Sn RNA
60. which one of the following RNAs contain a CCA sequence to which an
amino acid is attached
(A) rRNA
(B) tRNA
(C) mRNA
(D) hnRNA
(E) snmRNA
61. Deamination of amino acid doesn’t include:
(A) transamination
(B) oxidative deamination of L-glutamate
(C) transdeamination or Union deamination
(D) purine nucleotide cycle
(E) none of above
62. The material of gluconeogenesis is:
(A) CO2 (B) acetyl CoA
(C) lactate (D) glucose (E) NO
63. one carbon unit does not include
(A) –CH3
(B) -CH2(C) -CH=
(D) -CHO
(E) CO2
64. The product which is formed from the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate kinase
is :
(A) fructose-6-phosphate
(B)fructose-1-phosphate
(C) fructose-1,6-diphosphate
(D) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(E) pyruvate
65. How many moles net ATP can be formed when one mole 20 carbonsfatty
acid
is oxidized?
(A)130
(B)132
(C)134
(D)136
(E)138
66. Which of the following statements about glycolysis is TRUE?
(A) Glucokinase catalyzes the conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate
in the liver
(B) 6-phosphofructokinase-1 catalyzes the conversion of fructose 1, 6-bisphos
phate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate.
(C) When one molecule of glucose is converted to pyruvate via glycolysis,
one molecule of NAD is reduced.
(D) When one molecule of glucose is converted to pyruvate via glycolysis,
one carbon is lost as CO2.
(E) Hexokinase catalyzes the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose
1,6-bisphosphate.
67. Which of the following statements is TRUE of de novo pyrimidine synthesis
but not of de novo purine synthesis?
(A) The base is synthesized while attached to ribose 5-phosphate
(B) One-carbon fragments are donated by folic acid derivatives
(C) Carbamoyl phosphate donates a carbamoyl group
(D) The entire glycine molecule is incorporated into a precursor of the base
(E) Glutamine is a nitrogen donor
68. Which of the following hormones decreases the level of blood sugar?
(A) insuline
(B) glucagon
(C) adrenaline
(D)•somatotrophin
(E) none of above
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69. The principal function of the TCA cycle is to
(A) generate CO2
(B) transfer electrons from the acetyl portion of acetylCoA to NAD+ and
FAD
(C) oxidize the acetyl portion of acetyl CoA to oxaloacetate
(D) generate heat from the oxidation of the acetyl portion of acetyl CoA
(E) dispose of excess pyruvate and fatty acids
70. How many moles of ATP can be formed if one mole of acetyl-CoA are
completely oxidized through TAC and electrontransport chain?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
(E)
10
71. Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order
of most density to least density?
(A) HDL/VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL
(B) HDL/LDL/VLDL/chylomicrons
(C) LDL/chylomicrons/HDL/VLDL
(D) VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL/HDL
(E) LDL/chylomicrons/VLDL/HDL
72. ________stabilize the secondary structure in proteins.
(A) Peptide bonds
(B) Hydrogen bonds
(C)Disulfide bonds
(D) Ionic bonds
(E) Base stacking forces
73.Which one is not the following step of β-oxidation of fatty acyl-CoA:
(A) the first dehydrogenation
(B) hydration
(C) the second dehydrogenation
(D).thiolysis
(E) none of the above
74.Which one dose not the key enzymes of gluconeogenesis pathway :
(A) pyruvate carboxylase
(B) PEP carboxykinase
(C) glucose-6-phosphatase
(D) fructose biphosphatase-1
(E) none of the above
75.Which one is as substrate from which the tail at the 3' end of mRNA is produced
(A) UTP
(B) dTTP
(C) ATP
(D) GTP
(E) dUTP
76. If a fragment of DNA containing the sequence 5'-AGCCAATT-3' serves
as the template for transcription, the RNA that is produced will have the
sequence :
(A) 5'-AGCCAAUU-3'
(B) 5'-UCGGUUAA-3'
(C) 5'-UUAACCGA-3'
(D) 5'-AAUUGGCU-3'
(E) 5'-AAUUGGUC-3'
77 The recognition of RNA pol (eukaryote) and transcriptional start
sequence need
(A) σ factor
(B) TF(transcriptional
factor)
(C) RF (release factor)
(D) Rho factor
(E) IF
78. Primase has the activity of ______.
(A) DDDP
(B) DDRP
(C) RDDP
(D) ligase
(E) topoisomerase
79. The function of ρ factor is to
(A) bind repressor in initial region
(B) increase the velocity of RNA synthesis
8
(C)release the RNA polymerase which binds to promoter
(D) involved in the termination of transcription
(E) permit the initiation of the special transcription
80. Compared with eukaryote cells , the mRNA in prokaryote cells
(A) is the polycistron
(B) has poly A tail
(C) has introns
(D) has base methylated in mRNA usually
(E) 5’end is Gppp mG
81. PIC is referred to: :
(A)RNA polymerases
(B) RNA polymerase binding to TATA sequence
(C) all transcription factors binding to RNA polymerase and DNA template
(D) α factor binding to RNA polymerase
(E) repressors released from operator after allosterism
82. In the following proteins , ——————— do not bind to DNA
(A) DNA polymerase
(B) Trans-acting factors
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) DNA topoisomerase
(E) mRNA guanyl transferase
83. Ribosome cycle is referred to:
(A) the formation of the 40S initial complex
(B) the initial stage in translation
(C) the elongation stage in translation
(D)the termination stage in translation
(E) the separation and formation of 80S ribosome
84. The chemical bond between amino acid and tRNA is :
(A) phosphodiester bond
(B) hydrogen bond
(C) peptide bond
(D) ester bond
(E) amide bond
85. The function of IF-1 is to
(A)promote the binding of IF-3 to small subunit
(B) promote the separation of small and large subunit
(C) promote the binding of small and large subunit
(D)promote the allosterism of IF-2
(E)cause GTP hydrolysis
86. The reason for the termination of peptide bond synthesis is to
(A) reach the terminus of mRNA
(B) particular tRNA recognize the termination codon
(C) termination codon hydrolyze the ester bond between peptidyl and tRNA
(D) release factor recognize the termination codon , then enter A site
(E) ribosome can not move because of the resistance of termination codon
87. Northern blotting is used to detect.
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) protein
(D) sugar
(E)lipid
88. Another name of G-protein-linked receptor is
(A) seven-transmembrane receptor
(B) iron-channel receptor
(C) single-transmembrane receptor
(D) intracellular receptor
(E) cytosol receptor
89. Which of the following is vector?
(A) plasmid
(B) DNA library
(C)
probe
(D) restriction map
(E) E coli.
90. Which is the key enzyme of heme synthesis:
(A)7α-hydroxylase
(B)7α-hydroxycholesterol oxylase
9
(C) ALA synthase
(E) bile acid synthetase
(D)chenodetoxycholic acid CoA synthetase
91. Which of the following glycolytic enzymes is used in gluconeogenesis?
(A) Glucokinase
(B) 6-phosphofructokinase-1
(C) Pyruvate kinase
(D) Aldolase
(E) None of the above
92. Allopurinol prevents the conversion of:
(A) IMP to GMP
(B) adenosine to inosine
(C) xanthine to uric
acid
(D) dUMP to dTMP (E) cytosine to uracil
93. Which of the following cofactors is required for the synthesis of γ-amino
butyric acid, serotonin, epinephrine, dopamine and histamine from their
respective amino acid precursors?
(A) Tetrahydrobiopterin
(B) Tetrahydrofolate
(C) Pyridoxal phosphate
(D) Thiamine pyrophosphate
(E) Vitamin
94. Which of the following statements about reactions of the urea cycle is TRUE?
(A) Aspartate reacts with ornithine to form citrulline
(B) A total of six high-energy phosphate bonds are cleaved during production
of one molecule of urea
(C) N-acetylglutamate is a positive allosteric effector of carbamoyl phosphate
synthetase I
(D) The enzyme arginase releases fumarate from argininosuccinate
(E) Glutamine is the substrate that directly provides the nitrogen for carbamoyl
phosphate synthesis
95. Hormone-sensitive lipase is activated by elevated levels of:
(A) cAMP
(B) ADP
(C) insulin
(D) apoprotein CII
(E) ATP
96.A person with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus failed to take insulin
regularly and was found to have high VLDL levels. As a consequence, which of
the following compounds in the blood would be elevated?
(A) Triacylglycerol
(B) Cholesterol
(C) Both triacylglycerol and cholesterol
(D) Lipoprotein lipase
(E) glycerol
97. The principal nitrogenous urinary excretion product in humans resulting from
the catabolism of AMP is
(A) creatinine
(B) urea
(C) uric acid
(D) thiamine
(E) thymine
98. Which statement about cholesterol synthesis is false?
(A) The key enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is HMG CoA reductase.
(B) The coenzyme needed in the speed-limiting step is NADPH + H+.
(C) Starving can inhibit the synthesis of cholesterol.
(D) A high cholesterol level can inhibit the synthesis of cholesterol.
(E) glucagons and cortisol can increase the synthesis of cholesterol.
99. In mammal, how many •moles of ATP are produced from one mole G-6-P
to CO2 and H2O
(A) 31 or 33
(B) 35 or 37
(C) 36 or 38
(D) 40 or 42
(E) 44 or 46
100. Enzyme needed in pentose phosphate pathway is:
(A)α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(B)fumarase •
• (C) hexokinase
(D) G-6-P dehydrogenase (E) adolase
101. All amino acid in protein molecules is___, except Glycine.
10
A. L-β-amino acid
B. D-β- amino acid
C. L-α- amino acid
D. D-α- amino acid
E. L,D-α- amino acid
102. The chemical bond that stabilizes primary structure of protein is___.
A. peptide bond
B. hydrogen bond
C. covalent bond
D. non-covalent bond
E. bisulfate bond
103. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme ____.
A. increases Km but does not affect Vmax•
B. decreases Km but does not affect Vmax
C. increases Vmax but does not affect Km
D. decreases Vmax but does not affect Km
E. decreases both Vmax and Km
104. Which one of the following RNAs contain a CCA sequence to which an
amino acid is attached?
A. rRNA
B. tRNA C. mRNA
D. hnRNA
E. snmRNA
105. The most important direct energy-donor in body is____.
A. ADP
B. ATP
C. creatine phosphate D. GTP
E. GDP
106. Which of the following statements about glycolysis is TRUE?
A. Glucokinase catalyzes the conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate
in liver cell
B. 6-phosphofructokinase-1 catalyzes the conversion of fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
to dihydroxyacetone phosphate.
C. When one molecule of glucose is converted to pyruvate via glycolysis,
one molecule of NAD is reduced.
D. When one molecule of glucose is converted to pyruvate via glycolysis,
one carbon is lost as CO2.
E. Hexokinase catalyzes the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to
fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate.
107. How many net molecules of ATP are generated after 1 glucose molecule
being oxidized completely into CO2 and H2O?
A. 36
B. 38
C. 36 or 38
D. 32
E.
30 or 32
108. The key enzyme of glycogenolysis is____.
A. UDPG pyrophosphorylase
B. phosphorylase
C. glucokinase
D. aldolase
E. PEP kinase
109. The material of gluconeogenesis is____.
A. lysine
B. acetyl-CoA
C. lactate
D. glucose
E.
leucine
110. Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order
from most dense to least dense?
A. HDL/VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL
B. HDL/LDL /VLDL/chylomicrons
C. LDL/ chylomicrons/HDL/VLDL
11
D. VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL/ HDL
E. LDL/chylomicrons /VLDL / HDL
111. The physiological significance of ketone body formation is____.
A. to keep blood sugar level in a stable level
B. to increase blood sugar level
C. to decrease blood sugar level
D. a pathway to output energy from liver to brain and muscle tissue
E. to induce ketoacidosis
112. Which is the key enzyme of fat mobilization?
A. glycerol kinase
B. hormone-sensitive triglyceride lipase (HSL)
C. acyl-CoA synthetase
D. phosphoglycerol dehydrogenase
E. hexokinase
113. Which is the uncoupler of ETC?
A. 2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP)
B. Rotenone
C. piericidin A
D. Antimycin A
E. oligomycin
114. when we putβ-hydroxy butyrate in entire mitochondria, we found that 3
inorganic phosphates incorporated into ATP per oxygen atom were consumed. So
the P/O ratio is____.
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E.
none of the above
115. Which of the following is not included in essential amino acids?
A. Lysine
B. Leucine C. Valine
D. Glutamine
E.
Threonine
116. Which of the following cofactor is required for the synthesis of
γ-aminobutyric acid, dopamine, and histamine from their respective amino acid
precursors?
A. Tetrahydrobiopterin
B. Tetrahydrofolate
C. Pyridoxal phosphate
D. Thiamine pyrophosphate
E. Vitamin B12
117. In the urea cycle____.
A. carbamoyl phosphate is derived directly from glutamine and CO2
B. ornithine reacts with aspartate to generate argininosuccinate
C. the α-amino group of arginine forms one of the nitrogens of urea
D. ornithine directly reacts with carbamoyl phosphate to form citrulline
E. N-acetylglutamate is a positive allosteric effector of ornithine
transcarbamoylase
118. Deoxyribonucleotides for DNA synthesis are mainly formed from___.
A. ribose
B. nucleotide
C. nucleoside
D. ribonucleotide diphosphates
E. ribonucleotide
triphosphates
119. Which of the following statements concerning Okazaki fragments is ture?
A. They are produced by restriction enzymes
B. They are synthesized on the leading strand during replication
C. They are regions of DNA that does not code for the amino acids in a protein
12
D. They are relatively short polydeoxyribonucleotides with a few ribonucleotide
residues at the 5’ end
E. they are products of the action of RNase on hnRNA
120. In DNA replication, ① DNA polymerase Ⅲ ② rep protein ③ DNA
polymerase Ⅰ ④ DDRP ⑤ DNA ligase is needed , the sequence is___.
A. ④③①②⑤
B. ①②③④⑤
C.
③④①⑤②
D. ⑤④③②①
E. ②④①③⑤
121. Which mutation follows may cause frame-shift mutation?
A. transition
B. transversion
C. point
mutation
D. insertion
E. delete triplet nucleotide
122. Which of the following is not included in redundant gene?
A. immunoglobin
B. hemoglobin
C.
rRNA
D.5srRNA
E. histone
123. Rifampicin binds to which of the following subunit of RNA polymerase in
prokaryote and inhibit transcription?
A. β
B. σ
C. β'
D. α
E. ββ'
124. The function of ρ factor is to ___.
A. bind repressor in initial region
B. increase the velocity of RNA synthesis
C. release the RNA polymerase which binds to promoter
D. involved in the termination of transcription
E. permit initiation of the special transcription
125. Compared with eukaryote cells, the mRNA in prokaryote cells____.
A. is the polycistron
B. has poly A tail
C. has introns
D. base methylated in mRNA usually
E. 5’end is Gppp mG
126. The reason for the termination of peptide bond synthesis is to ____.
A. reach the terminus of mRNA
B. particular tRNA recognize the termination codon
C. termination codon hydrolyze the ester bond between peptidyl and tRNA
D. release factor recognize the termination codon , then enter A site
E. ribosome can not move because of the resistance of termination codon
127. Tetracycline, streptomycin, and erythromycin are effective antibiotics because
they inhibit ___.
A. RNA synthesis in prokaryotes
B. RNA synthesis in eukaryotes
C. protein synthesis in prokaryotes
D. protein synthesis on cytosolic ribosomes of eukaryotes
E. protein synthesis on mitochondrial ribosomes of eukaryotes
128. Which of the following statements about Enhancer is not true____?
A. Enhancer is the DNA sequence to which the eukaryotic gene activators bound.
B. It determines the temporal and spatial specificity of the gene expression.
C. Their presence enhances or increases the rate of transcription dramatically.
D. Their function is independent of its direction.
E. Their function is dependent of its distance.
129. Promoter means___.
A. a unit for transcribed fragments
B. transcription origin
13
C. translation origin
D. a region of DNA template which RNA-pol binds to
E. a sequence being apart from structural gene and
enhancing transcription
130. If you want to clone a target DNA of 500kb size, the vector should be____.
A. plasmid
B. bacteriophage λ
C. cosmid
D. Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)
E. viral
131. Making cDNA libraries needs ____.
A. reverse transcriptase, DNA template
B. DNA polymerase, mRNA template
C. reverse transcriptase, mRNA template
D. DNA polymerase, tRNA template
E. reverse transcriptase, rRNA template
132. Another name of G-protein-linked receptor is____.
A. seven-transmembrane receptor
B. iron-channel receptor
C. single-transmembrane receptor
D. Intracellular receptor
E. Guanylate cyclase receptor
133. Ras is ____.
A. GTP binding protein
B. tyrosine protein kinase
C. intranuclear DNA binding protein
D. ligand
E. receptor
134. Function of IP3 is____.
A. activate PKA
B. activate CaM-K
C. open the Ca2+channel located at ER
D. activate PKG
E. activate PKB
135. Which is the key enzyme of heme synthesis?
A. cholesterol 7α-hydroxylase
B. HMG-CoA reductase
C. ALA synthase
D. chenodeoxycholic acid CoA synthetase
E. bile acid synthetase
136. PKA has
subunit(s).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
137. In which of the following conditions can Lac operon’s structural gene
transcribe at high level?
A. glucose exist, lactose not exist.
B. glucose exist, lactose exist
C. glucose not exist, lactose exist.
D. glucose not exist, lactose not exist
E. glucose not exist, trp exist.
138. Which bile pigment is the main color of feces and urine?
A. unconjugated bilirubin
B. bilinogen
C. biliverdin
D. bilin
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E. conjugated bilirubin
139.Which of the following vector is widely used?
A. Plasmid
B. Bacteriophage λ
C. Cosmid
D. Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)
E. None of above
140. Which is the enzyme of hydrolysis of cAMP?
A. Adenylate cyclase, AC
B. Phosphodiesterase, PDE
C. Protein Kinase A, PKA
D. DNA polymerase
E. phosphorylase
141. A bacterial mutant grows normally at 32°C but at 42°C accumulates short
segments of newly synthesized DNA. Which of the following enzymes is most
likely to be defective in this mutant?
(A) An endonuclease (B) DNA polymerase (C) An exonuclease
(D) An unwinding enzyme (helicase)
(E) Polynucleotide ligase
142. With respect to genetic information afflux, which is not correct
(A) DNA→RNA
(B) RNA→protein
(C) DNA→DNA
(D) RNA→DNA
(E) protein→RNA
143. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase Ⅰsynthesis
(A) 5S rRNA
(B) tRNA
(C) all kinds of RNA
(D) mRNA
(E) 45S rRNA
144.The recognization of RNA pol (eukaryote) and transcriptional start sequence
need
(A) σ factor
(B) TF(transcriptional factor)
(C) RF (release factor)
(D) Rho factor
(E)
IF
145. Which of the following statements concerning genes and transcription in
eukaryotes is TRUE?
(A) The conversion of a UAG codon to UAA in mRNA would result in the
incorporation of an incorrect amino acid into the polypeptide chain
(B) Genes always occur in one or a small number of copies in the genome
(C) The order of gene sequences in chromosomes is always the same in
highly differentiated cells as in germ cells
(D) The primary product of transcription (hnRNA) often contains nucleotide
sequences that do not code for the amino acid sequence of the protein
encoded by a gene
(E) exons are transcribed from DNA and then cleaved from hnRNA
146. An aminoacyl-tRNA exhibits which one of the following characteristics?
(A) It is produced by a synthetase that is specific for the amino acid, but not the
tRNA
(B) It is composed of an amino acid esterified to the 5' end of the tRNA
(C) It requires GTP for its synthesis from an amino acid and a tRNA
(D) It contains an anticodon that is complementary to the codon for the amino acid
(E) None of the above
147. Which one of the following point mutations would NOT produce a change in
the protein translated from an mRNA?
(A) UCA → UAA
(B) UCA → CCA
(C) UCA → UCU
(D) UCA → ACA
(E) UCA → GCA
15
148. Which of the following is NOT required for initiation of protein synthesis in
the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells?
(A) A 40S ribosomal subunit
(B) eIF-2
(C) Methionyl-tRNAi Met
(D) EF-2
(E)GTP
149. The mechanism for termination of protein synthesis in eukaryotes requires
(A) a peptidyl-tRNA that cannot bind at the P site
(B) the codon UGA, UAG, or AUG in the A site
(C) nuclease cleavage of mRNA
(D) release factors
(E) None of the above
150. Tetracycline, streptomycin, and erythromycin are effective antibiotics because
they inhibit
(A) RNA synthesis in prokaryotes
(B) RNA synthesis in eukaryotes
(C) protein synthesis in prokaryotes
(D) protein synthesis on cytoplasmic ribosomes of eukaryotes
(E) protein synthesis on mitochondrial ribosomes of eukaryotes
151. When cAMP levels are relatively high in E. coli
(A) lactose is not required for transcription of the lac operon
(B) glucose levels in the medium are low
(C) the repressor is bound to the lac operon if lactose is present
(D) the enzymes for the metabolism of lactose are not induced
(E) glucose levels in the medium are high
152. Which enzyme does not produce inorganic pyrophosphate
(A) DNA polymerase
(B) RNA polymerase
(C) Polynucleotide ligase
(D) Reverse transcriptase
(E) None of the above
153. Which drug prevents binding of aminoacyl-tRNAs to the A site
(A) Rifampicin
(B) 5-Fluorouracil
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Tetracycline
(E) Streptomycin
154. Which is the main transportation form of the bilirubin in blood：
(A) bilirubin—albumin
(B) bilirubin—Y
protein
(C) bilirubin—glucuronate
(D) bilirubin—amino acid
(E) bilirubin—glucose
155. Which component is required during the initiation of translation process in
eukaryotes.
(A) eIF-2
(B) EF-2
(C) EF-1 (D) Peptidyl transferase (E) Release
factor
156. Another name of G-protein-linked receptor is
.
(A) seven-transmembrane receptor
(B) iron-channel receptor
(C) single-transmembrane receptor
(D) intracellular receptor
(E) Guanylate cyclase receptor
157. Bile duct obstruction
(A) Low blood urea nitrogen (BUN); high blood NH4 + and total bilirubin levels
(B) Dark brown stool; elevated total bilirubin in blood
(C) Low hematocrit; small, pale red blood cells
(D) Light colored stool; elevated conjugated bilirubin in blood
(E) Low conjugated bilirubin in blood
158. The reason for the termination of peptide bond is:
16
(A)reach the terminus of mRNA
(B) particular tRNA recognize the terminator codon
(C) terminator codon hydrolyze the ester bond between peptidyl and tRNA
(D) release factor recognize the terminator codon , and enter A site
(E) ribosome can not move because of the resistance of terminator codon
159. PKA has
subunits.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
160.
is not cis-acting element.
(A) promoter (B) enhancer (C) silencer (D) structural gene (E) UASs
161. If there are 55% of proteins in a solution, the nitrogen of the proteins in this
solution is ___.
(A) 8.8%
(B) 8.0%
(C) 8.4%
(D)
9.2%
(E) 9.6%
162. ________ stabilizes the secondary structure of DNA.
(A) Ionic bonds
(B) Base stacking forces
(C) Peptide bonds
(D) Disulfide bonds
(E) Covalent bonds
163. Which of the following sequences is complementary to the DNA sequence
5'-AAGTCCGA-3'?
(A) 5'-AAGUCCGA-3'
(B) 3'-TTCAGGCT-5'
(C) 5'-TTCAGGCT-3'
(D) 3'-TCGGACTT-5'
(E) 3'-TCGGACUU-5'
164. As a biological catalyst, enzymes can ___.
(A) Decrease the activation energy of a reaction.
(B) Increase the activation energy of a reaction.
(C) Increase the energy level of products.
(D) Decrease the energy level of substrates.
(E) Decrease the change of the free energy in a reaction.
165. How many net molecules of ATP are generated in the conversion of glucose
to pyruvate?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 4
166. The regulation point of pentose phosphate pathway is ___.
(A) the activity of G-6-p dehydrogenase
(B) the amount of G-6-p in body
(C) the amount of ribose
(D) the ratio of ATP/ADP
(E) the ratio of NADPH/NADP
167. Which of the following glycolytic enzymes is used in gluconeogenesis?
(A) Glucokinase
(B) Phosphofructokinase
1
(C) Pyruvate kinase
(D) Aldolase
(E) none of the above
168. An infant with an enlarged liver has a glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency.
This infant ___.
(A) cannot maintain blood glucose levels either by glycogenolysis or
by gluconeogenesis
(B) can use liver glycogen to maintain blood glucose levels
(C) can use muscle glycogen to maintain blood glucose levels
(D) can convert both alanine and glycerol to glucose to maintain blood
glucose levels
(E) can live as a normal person
17
169. Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order
from most dense to least dense?
(A) HDL/VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL
(B) HDL/LDL /VLDL/chylomicrons
(C) LDL/ chylomicrons/HDL/VLDL
(D) VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL/ HDL
(E) LDL/chylomicrons /VLDL / HDL
170. Compared with eukaryote cells , the mRNA in prokaryote cells
(A) is the polycistron
(B) has poly A tail
(C) has introns
(D) has base methylated in mRNA usually
(E) 5’end is Gppp mG
171. Which is the key enzyme of fat mobilization?
(A) glycerol kinase
(B) hormone-sensitive triglyceride
lipase (HSL)
(C) acyl-CoA synthetase
(D) phosphoglycerol dehydrogenase
(E) hexokinase
172. Which is the uncoupler of ETC?
(A) 2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP)
(B) Rotenone
(C) piericidin A
(D) Antimycin A
(E) oligomycin
173. when we putβ-hydroxy butyrate in entire mitochondria, we found that 3
inorganic phosphates incorporated into ATP per oxygen atom were consumed. So
the P/O ratio is ___.
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) none of the above
174. Which is the key enzyme of biosynthesis of cholesterol?
(A) HMG CoA synthase
(B) HMG CoA dehygrogenase
(C) HMG CoA hydrase
(D) HMG CoA reductase
(E) HMG CoA lysase
175. Pyridoxal phosphate is required for the enzymes catalyzing the reaction is
___.
(A) glutamate + NH 3 + ATP → glutamine + ADP + Pi
(B) glutamate + NAD+ → a-ketoglutarate + NH4 + + NADH + H+
(C) glutamine + H2O → glutamate + NH3
(D) pyruvate + glutamate → alanine +α-ketoglutarate
(E) urea cycle
176. one carbon unit does not include ___.
(A) -CH3
(B) -CH2(C) -CH=
(D) -CHO
(E) COOH
177. The major amino acid that is released from muscle and converted to glucose
in the liver is ___.
(A) alanine
(B) glutamine
(C)
valine
(D) aspartate
(E) glutamate
178. Gout occurs because ______ precipitates in joint and blood.
(A) uric acid
(B) urea
(C) cholesterol
18
(D) xanthine
(E) hypoxanthine
179. PIC is referred to: :
(A)RNA polymerases
(B) RNA polymerase binding to TATA sequence
(C) all transcription factors binding to RNA polymerase and DNA template
(D) α factor binding to RNA polymerase
(E) repressors released from operator after allosterism
180. Which of the following is not correct about reverse transcription?
(A) use RNA as template
(B) product is DNA
(C) base pairing is U-A, C-G, A-T
(D) the direction of elongation is 5’→ 3’
(E) the material is NTP
181. In the following proteins ,
do not bind to DNA
(A) DNA polymerase
(B) Trans-acting factors
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) DNA topoisomerase
(E) mRNA guanyl transferase
182. Ribosome cycle is referred to:
(A) the formation of the 40S initial complex
(B) the initial stage in translation
(C) the elongation stage in translation
(D)the termination stage in translation
(E) the separation and formation of 80S ribosome
183. The chemical bond between amino acid and tRNA is :
(A) phosphodiester bond
(B) hydrogen bond
(C) peptide bond
(D) ester bond
(E) amide bond
184. The function of ρ factor is to ___.
(A) bind repressor in initial region
(B) increase the velocity of RNA synthesis
(C) release the RNA polymerase which binds to promoter
(D) involved in the termination of transcription
(E) permit the initiation of the special transcription
185. An aminoacyl-tRNA exhibits which one of the following characteristics?
(A) It is produced by a synthetase that is specific for the amino acid, but not the
tRNA
(B) It is composed of an amino acid esterified to the 5’ end of the tRNA
(C) It requires GTP for its synthesis from an amino acid and a tRNA
(D) It contains an anticodon that is complementary to the codon for the amino acid
(E) It contains a codon that is complementary to the codon for the amino acid
186. The function of IF-1 is to ___.
(A) promote the binding of IF-3 to small subunit
(B) promote the separation of small and large subunit
(C) promote the binding of small and large subunit
(D) promote the allosterism of IF-2
(E) cause GTP hydrolysis
19
187. Insertions or deletions of bases in mRNA can alter the amino acids sequence
of translational product; which feature of the genetic codon is that involved?
(A) Commaless
(B) Degeneracy
(C) Wobble
(D) Universality
(E) direction
188. Gene expression can be controlled at several stages, the key stage is ____.
(A) initiation of transcription
(B) post-transcriptional
modification
(C) mRNA degradation
(D) translation
(E) post- translational modification
189. Promoter means ___.
(A) a unit for transcribed fragments
(B) transcription origin
(C) translation origin
(D) a region of DNA template which RNA-pol binds to
(E) a sequence being apart from structural gene and
enhancing transcription
190. Which of the following statements about Enhancer is not true?
(A) Enhancer is the DNA sequence to which the eukaryotic gene
activators bound.
(B) It determines the temporal and spatial specificity of the gene
expression.
(C) Their presence enhances or increases the rate of transcription
dramatically.
(D) Their function is independent of its direction.
(E) Their function is dependent of its distance.
191. Which of the following vector is widely used?
(A) Plasmid
(B) Bacteriophage λ
(C) Cosmid
(D) Yeast artificial chromosome
(YAC)
(E) None of above
192. Making cDNA libraries needs ____.
(A) reverse transcriptase, DNA template
(B) DNA polymerase, mRNA template
(C) reverse transcriptase, mRNA template
(D) DNA polymerase, tRNA template
(E) reverse transcriptase, rRNA template
193. Ras is ____.
(A) GTP binding protein
(B) tyrosine protein
kinase
(C) intranuclear DNA binding protein
(D) ligand
(E) receptor
194. Function of DAG is ____.
(A) activate PKA
(B) activate CaM-K
(C) open the Ca2+channel located at ER
(D) activate PKG
(E) activate PKC
195. Northern blotting is used to detect.
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) protein
(D) sugar
(E)lipid
196. Which is the key enzyme of heme synthesis?
20
(A) cholesterol 7α-hydroxylase
(B) HMG-CoA reductase
(C) ALA synthase
(D) chenodeoxycholic acid CoA synthetase
(E) bile acid synthetase
197. Which bile pigment is the main color of feces and urine?
(A) unconjugated bilirubin
(B) bilinogen
(C) biliverdin
(D) bilin
(E) conjugated bilirubin
198. G-protein has
subunits.
(A) 1.
(B) 2.
(C) 3.
(D) 4.
(E) 5
199. In Lac operon, which is the place where repressor protein bind.
(A) O
(B) P
(C) I (D) CAP sites (E) structural gene
200. Which of the following enzyme is used in cAMP synthesis?
(A) Adenylate cyclase, AC
(B) Phosphodiesterase, PDE
(C) Protein Kinase A, PKA
(D) DNA polymerase
(E) phosphorylase
21