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Teacher shi 18940209087 Email: [email protected] QQ:95223609 1. If there are 55% of proteins in a solution, the nitrogen of the proteins in this solution is ___. A. 8.8% B. 8.0% C. 8.4% D. 9.2% E. 9.6% 2. ________ stabilizes the secondary structure of DNA. A. Ionic bonds B. Base stacking forces C. Peptide bonds D. Disulfide bonds E. Covalent bonds 3. Which of the following sequences is complementary to the DNA sequence 5'-AAGTCCGA-3'? A. 5'-AAGUCCGA-3' B. 3'-TTCAGGCT-5' C. 5'-TTCAGGCT-3' D. 3'-TCGGACTT-5' E. 3'-TCGGACUU-5' 4. As a biological catalyst, enzymes can ___. A. Decrease the activation energy of a reaction. B. Increase the activation energy of a reaction. C. Increase the energy level of products. D. Decrease the energy level of substrates. E. Decrease the change of the free energy in a reaction. 5. How many net molecules of ATP are generated in the conversion of glucose to pyruvate? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 6. The regulation point of pentose phosphate pathway is ___. A. the activity of G-6-p dehydrogenase B. the amount of G-6-p in body C. the amount of ribose D. the ratio of ATP/ADP E. the ratio of NADPH/NADP 7. Which of the following glycolytic enzymes is used in gluconeogenesis? A. Glucokinase B. Phosphofructokinase 1 C. Pyruvate kinase D. Aldolase E. none of the above 8. An infant with an enlarged liver has a glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency. This infant ___. A. cannot maintain blood glucose levels either by glycogenolysis or by gluconeogenesis B. can use liver glycogen to maintain blood glucose levels C. can use muscle glycogen to maintain blood glucose levels D. can convert both alanine and glycerol to glucose to maintain blood glucose levels E. can live as a normal person 1 9. Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order from most dense to least dense? A. HDL/VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL B. HDL/LDL /VLDL/chylomicrons C. LDL/ chylomicrons/HDL/VLDL D. VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL/ HDL E. LDL/chylomicrons /VLDL / HDL 10. The physiological significance of ketone body formation is ___. A. to keep blood sugar level in a stable level B. to increase blood sugar level C. to decrease blood sugar level D. a pathway to output energy from liver to brain and muscle tissue E. to induce ketoacidosis 11. Which is the key enzyme of fat mobilization? A. glycerol kinase B. hormone-sensitive triglyceride lipase (HSL) C. acyl-CoA synthetase D. phosphoglycerol dehydrogenase E. hexokinase 12. Which is the uncoupler of ETC? A. 2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP) B. Rotenone C. piericidin A D. Antimycin A E. oligomycin 13. when we putβ-hydroxy butyrate in entire mitochondria, we found that 3 inorganic phosphates incorporated into ATP per oxygen atom were consumed. So the P/O ratio is ___. A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. none of the above 14. Which is the key enzyme of biosynthesis of cholesterol? A. HMG CoA synthase B. HMG CoA dehygrogenase C. HMG CoA hydrase D. HMG CoA reductase E. HMG CoA lysase 15. Pyridoxal phosphate is required for the enzymes catalyzing the reaction is ___. A. glutamate + NH 3 + ATP → glutamine + ADP + Pi B. glutamate + NAD+ → a-ketoglutarate + NH4 + + NADH + H+ C. glutamine + H2O → glutamate + NH3 D. pyruvate + glutamate → alanine +α-ketoglutarate E. urea cycle 16. one carbon unit does not include ___. A. -CH3 B. -CH2C. -CH= D. -CHO E. COOH 17. The major amino acid that is released from muscle and converted to glucose in the liver is ___. A. alanine B. glutamine C. valine D. aspartate E. glutamate 18. Gout occurs because ______ precipitates in joint and blood. 2 A. uric acid B. urea C. cholesterol D. xanthine E. hypoxanthine 19. In DNA replication, ① DNA polymerase Ⅲ ② rep protein ③ DNA polymerase Ⅰ ④ DDRP ⑤ DNA ligase is needed , the sequence is ___. A. ④③①②⑤ B.①②③④⑤ C.③④①⑤② D. ⑤④③②① E. ②④①③⑤ 20. Which of the following is not correct about reverse transcription? A. use RNA as template B. product is DNA C. base pairing is U-A, C-G, A-T D. the direction of elongation is 5’→ 3’ E. the material is NTP 21. Which of the following statements concerning replication of DNA is TRUE? A. It progresses in both directions away from each point of origin on the chromosome B. It requires a DNA template that is copied in its 5' to 3' direction C. It occurs during the M phase of the cell cycle D. It produces one newly synthesized double helix and one composed of the two parental strands E. It use continuous replication manners 22. Amanitin can inhibit ___. A. the protein synthesis B. the mRNA synthesis C. DNA synthesis D. glycoprotein synthesis E. adenine synthesis 23. If a fragment of DNA containing the sequence 5'-AGCCAATT-3' serves as template for transcription, the RNA that is produced will have the sequence ___. A. 5'-AGCCAAUU-3' B. 5'-UCGGUUAA-3' C. 5'-UUAACCGA-3' D. 5'-AAUUGGCU-3' E. 5'-AAUUGGUC-3' 24. The function of ρ factor is to ___. A. bind repressor in initial region B. increase the velocity of RNA synthesis C. release the RNA polymerase which binds to promoter D. involved in the termination of transcription E. permit the initiation of the special transcription 25. An aminoacyl-tRNA exhibits which one of the following characteristics? A. It is produced by a synthetase that is specific for the amino acid, but not the tRNA B. It is composed of an amino acid esterified to the 5’ end of the tRNA C. It requires GTP for its synthesis from an amino acid and a tRNA D. It contains an anticodon that is complementary to the codon for the amino acid E. It contains a codon that is complementary to the codon for the amino acid 26. The function of IF-1 is to ___. A. promote the binding of IF-3 to small subunit B. promote the separation of small and large subunit C. promote the binding of small and large subunit D. promote the allosterism of IF-2 3 E. cause GTP hydrolysis 27. Insertions or deletions of bases in mRNA can alter the amino acids sequence of translational product; which feature of the genetic codon is that involved? A. Commaless B. Degeneracy C. Wobble D. Universality E. direction 28. Gene expression can be controlled at several stages, the key stage is ____. A. initiation of transcription B. post-transcriptional modification C. mRNA degradation D. translation E. post- translational modification 29. Promoter means ___. A. a unit for transcribed fragments B. transcription origin C. translation origin D. a region of DNA template which RNA-pol binds to E. a sequence being apart from structural gene and enhancing transcription 30. Which of the following statements about Enhancer is not true? A. Enhancer is the DNA sequence to which the eukaryotic gene activators bound. B. It determines the temporal and spatial specificity of the gene expression. C. Their presence enhances or increases the rate of transcription dramatically. D. Their function is independent of its direction. E. Their function is dependent of its distance. 31. Which of the following vector is widely used? A. Plasmid B. Bacteriophage λ C. Cosmid D. Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) E. None of above 32. Making cDNA libraries needs ____. A. reverse transcriptase, DNA template B. DNA polymerase, mRNA template C. reverse transcriptase, mRNA template D. DNA polymerase, tRNA template E. reverse transcriptase, rRNA template 33. Ras is ____. A. GTP binding protein B. tyrosine protein kinase C. intranuclear DNA binding protein D. ligand E. receptor 34. Function of DAG is ____. A. activate PKA B. activate CaM-K C. open the Ca2+channel located at ER D. activate PKG E. activate PKC 4 35. Which is the main transportation form of the bilirubin in blood? A. bilirubin—albumin B. bilirubin—Y protein C. bilirubin—glucuronate D. bilirubin—amino acid E. bilirubin—glucose 36. Which is the key enzyme of heme synthesis? A. cholesterol 7α-hydroxylase B. HMG-CoA reductase C. ALA synthase D. chenodeoxycholic acid CoA synthetase E. bile acid synthetase 37. Which bile pigment is the main color of feces and urine? A. unconjugated bilirubin B. bilinogen C. biliverdin D. bilin E. conjugated bilirubin 38. G-protein has subunits. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4. E. 5 39. In Lac operon, which is the place where repressor protein bind. A. O B. P C. I D. CAP sites E. structural gene 40. Which of the following enzyme is used in cAMP synthesis? A. Adenylate cyclase, AC B. Phosphodiesterase, PDE C. Protein Kinase A, PKA D. DNA polymerase E. phosphorylase 41.The active site of an enzyme (A) is formed only after addition of a specific substrate (B) is directly involved in binding of allosteric inhibitors (C) resides in a few adjacent amino acid residues in the primary sequence of the polypeptide chain (D) binds competitive inhibitors (E) none of the above 42.How many moles net ATP can be formed when one mole 22 acid is oxidized?: (A)146 (B)148 (C)150 (D)160 (E)180 43. In the components of a respiratory chain , the only one which can activate O2 is (A) Cyt aa3 (B) CoQ (C) Cyt b (D) Cyt c (E) Cyt c1 44. The final product of β-oxidation of palmitate is: (A)acetyl CoA (B)glycerol (C)•acetyl+•propionyl CoA (D) propionyl CoA (E) none of the above 45. Which one of the following amino acids is non-essential amino acid in the 5 human diet? (A) Alanine (B) Lysine (C) Tryptophan (D) Valine (E) Leucine 46. The most important direct energy-donor in body is : (A) ADP (B) GTP (C) creatine phosphate (D) ATP (E)GDP 47. The sequence of cytochrome in the process of transfering electrons (A). aa3c1 c b (B). c1 b c aa3 (C) b c1 aa3 c (D). b c c1 aa3 (E). b c1 c aa3 48.The N-terminal amino acid of the hexapeptide(Trp-Ala-Ser-Glu-Val-Arg)is (A) alanine (B) asparagine (C)tryptophan (D) arginine (E) serine 49. The principal function of the TCA cycle is to (A) generate CO2 (B) transfer electrons from the acetyl portion of acetylCoA to NAD+ and FAD (C) oxidize the acetyl portion of acetyl CoA to oxaloacetate (D) generate heat from the oxidation of the acetyl portion of acetyl CoA (E) dispose of excess pyruvate and fatty acids 50. How many moles of ATP can be formed if one mole of pyruvate are completely oxidized through TAC and electrontransport chain •? (A)10.5 (B)10 (C)12.5 (D)12 (E)13 51. Which one of the following amino acids is non-essential amino acid in human’s diet? (A) Serine (B) Lysine (C) Tryptophan (D) Valine (E) Leucine 52. The most important direct energy-donor in body is: (A) ADP (B) ATP (C) creatine phosphate (D) GTP (E) GDP 53. The sequence of cytochrome in the process of transferring electrons (A) b c1 c aa3 (B) c1 b c aa3 (C) b c1 aa3 c (D) b c c1 aa3 (E) aa3c1 c b 54. those amino acid in protein molecules belongs to___ (A) L-β-amino acid (B) D-β- amino acid (C) L-α- amino acid (D) D-α- amino acid (E) L、D-α- amino acid 55. Cofactor needed in pentose phosphate pathway is: (A) NAD (B) FAD (C) NADP (D) FMN (E) none of the above 56. The chemical bond that stabilizes primary structure of protein is___ (A) peptide bond (B) hydrogen bond (C) covalent bond (D) non-covalent bond (E) bisulfate bond 57. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme (A) increases Km but does not affect Vmax• (B) decreases Km but does not affect Vmax (C) increases Vmax but does not affect Km 6 (D) decreases Vmax but does not affect Km (E) decreases both Vmax and Km 58. In DNA, on a molar basis (A) adenine equals thymine (B) adenine equals uracil (C) guanine equals adenine (D) cytosine equals thymine (E) cytosine equals uracil 59. Which RNA contains 7-methylguanine at the 5' end? (A) 5S RNA (B) rRNA (C) mRNA (D) tRNA (E) Sn RNA 60. which one of the following RNAs contain a CCA sequence to which an amino acid is attached (A) rRNA (B) tRNA (C) mRNA (D) hnRNA (E) snmRNA 61. Deamination of amino acid doesn’t include: (A) transamination (B) oxidative deamination of L-glutamate (C) transdeamination or Union deamination (D) purine nucleotide cycle (E) none of above 62. The material of gluconeogenesis is: (A) CO2 (B) acetyl CoA (C) lactate (D) glucose (E) NO 63. one carbon unit does not include (A) –CH3 (B) -CH2(C) -CH= (D) -CHO (E) CO2 64. The product which is formed from the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate kinase is : (A) fructose-6-phosphate (B)fructose-1-phosphate (C) fructose-1,6-diphosphate (D) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (E) pyruvate 65. How many moles net ATP can be formed when one mole 20 carbonsfatty acid is oxidized? (A)130 (B)132 (C)134 (D)136 (E)138 66. Which of the following statements about glycolysis is TRUE? (A) Glucokinase catalyzes the conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate in the liver (B) 6-phosphofructokinase-1 catalyzes the conversion of fructose 1, 6-bisphos phate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate. (C) When one molecule of glucose is converted to pyruvate via glycolysis, one molecule of NAD is reduced. (D) When one molecule of glucose is converted to pyruvate via glycolysis, one carbon is lost as CO2. (E) Hexokinase catalyzes the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. 67. Which of the following statements is TRUE of de novo pyrimidine synthesis but not of de novo purine synthesis? (A) The base is synthesized while attached to ribose 5-phosphate (B) One-carbon fragments are donated by folic acid derivatives (C) Carbamoyl phosphate donates a carbamoyl group (D) The entire glycine molecule is incorporated into a precursor of the base (E) Glutamine is a nitrogen donor 68. Which of the following hormones decreases the level of blood sugar? (A) insuline (B) glucagon (C) adrenaline (D)•somatotrophin (E) none of above 7 69. The principal function of the TCA cycle is to (A) generate CO2 (B) transfer electrons from the acetyl portion of acetylCoA to NAD+ and FAD (C) oxidize the acetyl portion of acetyl CoA to oxaloacetate (D) generate heat from the oxidation of the acetyl portion of acetyl CoA (E) dispose of excess pyruvate and fatty acids 70. How many moles of ATP can be formed if one mole of acetyl-CoA are completely oxidized through TAC and electrontransport chain? (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9 (E) 10 71. Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order of most density to least density? (A) HDL/VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL (B) HDL/LDL/VLDL/chylomicrons (C) LDL/chylomicrons/HDL/VLDL (D) VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL/HDL (E) LDL/chylomicrons/VLDL/HDL 72. ________stabilize the secondary structure in proteins. (A) Peptide bonds (B) Hydrogen bonds (C)Disulfide bonds (D) Ionic bonds (E) Base stacking forces 73.Which one is not the following step of β-oxidation of fatty acyl-CoA: (A) the first dehydrogenation (B) hydration (C) the second dehydrogenation (D).thiolysis (E) none of the above 74.Which one dose not the key enzymes of gluconeogenesis pathway : (A) pyruvate carboxylase (B) PEP carboxykinase (C) glucose-6-phosphatase (D) fructose biphosphatase-1 (E) none of the above 75.Which one is as substrate from which the tail at the 3' end of mRNA is produced (A) UTP (B) dTTP (C) ATP (D) GTP (E) dUTP 76. If a fragment of DNA containing the sequence 5'-AGCCAATT-3' serves as the template for transcription, the RNA that is produced will have the sequence : (A) 5'-AGCCAAUU-3' (B) 5'-UCGGUUAA-3' (C) 5'-UUAACCGA-3' (D) 5'-AAUUGGCU-3' (E) 5'-AAUUGGUC-3' 77 The recognition of RNA pol (eukaryote) and transcriptional start sequence need (A) σ factor (B) TF(transcriptional factor) (C) RF (release factor) (D) Rho factor (E) IF 78. Primase has the activity of ______. (A) DDDP (B) DDRP (C) RDDP (D) ligase (E) topoisomerase 79. The function of ρ factor is to (A) bind repressor in initial region (B) increase the velocity of RNA synthesis 8 (C)release the RNA polymerase which binds to promoter (D) involved in the termination of transcription (E) permit the initiation of the special transcription 80. Compared with eukaryote cells , the mRNA in prokaryote cells (A) is the polycistron (B) has poly A tail (C) has introns (D) has base methylated in mRNA usually (E) 5’end is Gppp mG 81. PIC is referred to: : (A)RNA polymerases (B) RNA polymerase binding to TATA sequence (C) all transcription factors binding to RNA polymerase and DNA template (D) α factor binding to RNA polymerase (E) repressors released from operator after allosterism 82. In the following proteins , ——————— do not bind to DNA (A) DNA polymerase (B) Trans-acting factors (C) RNA polymerase (D) DNA topoisomerase (E) mRNA guanyl transferase 83. Ribosome cycle is referred to: (A) the formation of the 40S initial complex (B) the initial stage in translation (C) the elongation stage in translation (D)the termination stage in translation (E) the separation and formation of 80S ribosome 84. The chemical bond between amino acid and tRNA is : (A) phosphodiester bond (B) hydrogen bond (C) peptide bond (D) ester bond (E) amide bond 85. The function of IF-1 is to (A)promote the binding of IF-3 to small subunit (B) promote the separation of small and large subunit (C) promote the binding of small and large subunit (D)promote the allosterism of IF-2 (E)cause GTP hydrolysis 86. The reason for the termination of peptide bond synthesis is to (A) reach the terminus of mRNA (B) particular tRNA recognize the termination codon (C) termination codon hydrolyze the ester bond between peptidyl and tRNA (D) release factor recognize the termination codon , then enter A site (E) ribosome can not move because of the resistance of termination codon 87. Northern blotting is used to detect. (A) DNA (B) RNA (C) protein (D) sugar (E)lipid 88. Another name of G-protein-linked receptor is (A) seven-transmembrane receptor (B) iron-channel receptor (C) single-transmembrane receptor (D) intracellular receptor (E) cytosol receptor 89. Which of the following is vector? (A) plasmid (B) DNA library (C) probe (D) restriction map (E) E coli. 90. Which is the key enzyme of heme synthesis: (A)7α-hydroxylase (B)7α-hydroxycholesterol oxylase 9 (C) ALA synthase (E) bile acid synthetase (D)chenodetoxycholic acid CoA synthetase 91. Which of the following glycolytic enzymes is used in gluconeogenesis? (A) Glucokinase (B) 6-phosphofructokinase-1 (C) Pyruvate kinase (D) Aldolase (E) None of the above 92. Allopurinol prevents the conversion of: (A) IMP to GMP (B) adenosine to inosine (C) xanthine to uric acid (D) dUMP to dTMP (E) cytosine to uracil 93. Which of the following cofactors is required for the synthesis of γ-amino butyric acid, serotonin, epinephrine, dopamine and histamine from their respective amino acid precursors? (A) Tetrahydrobiopterin (B) Tetrahydrofolate (C) Pyridoxal phosphate (D) Thiamine pyrophosphate (E) Vitamin 94. Which of the following statements about reactions of the urea cycle is TRUE? (A) Aspartate reacts with ornithine to form citrulline (B) A total of six high-energy phosphate bonds are cleaved during production of one molecule of urea (C) N-acetylglutamate is a positive allosteric effector of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (D) The enzyme arginase releases fumarate from argininosuccinate (E) Glutamine is the substrate that directly provides the nitrogen for carbamoyl phosphate synthesis 95. Hormone-sensitive lipase is activated by elevated levels of: (A) cAMP (B) ADP (C) insulin (D) apoprotein CII (E) ATP 96.A person with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus failed to take insulin regularly and was found to have high VLDL levels. As a consequence, which of the following compounds in the blood would be elevated? (A) Triacylglycerol (B) Cholesterol (C) Both triacylglycerol and cholesterol (D) Lipoprotein lipase (E) glycerol 97. The principal nitrogenous urinary excretion product in humans resulting from the catabolism of AMP is (A) creatinine (B) urea (C) uric acid (D) thiamine (E) thymine 98. Which statement about cholesterol synthesis is false? (A) The key enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is HMG CoA reductase. (B) The coenzyme needed in the speed-limiting step is NADPH + H+. (C) Starving can inhibit the synthesis of cholesterol. (D) A high cholesterol level can inhibit the synthesis of cholesterol. (E) glucagons and cortisol can increase the synthesis of cholesterol. 99. In mammal, how many •moles of ATP are produced from one mole G-6-P to CO2 and H2O (A) 31 or 33 (B) 35 or 37 (C) 36 or 38 (D) 40 or 42 (E) 44 or 46 100. Enzyme needed in pentose phosphate pathway is: (A)α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (B)fumarase • • (C) hexokinase (D) G-6-P dehydrogenase (E) adolase 101. All amino acid in protein molecules is___, except Glycine. 10 A. L-β-amino acid B. D-β- amino acid C. L-α- amino acid D. D-α- amino acid E. L,D-α- amino acid 102. The chemical bond that stabilizes primary structure of protein is___. A. peptide bond B. hydrogen bond C. covalent bond D. non-covalent bond E. bisulfate bond 103. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme ____. A. increases Km but does not affect Vmax• B. decreases Km but does not affect Vmax C. increases Vmax but does not affect Km D. decreases Vmax but does not affect Km E. decreases both Vmax and Km 104. Which one of the following RNAs contain a CCA sequence to which an amino acid is attached? A. rRNA B. tRNA C. mRNA D. hnRNA E. snmRNA 105. The most important direct energy-donor in body is____. A. ADP B. ATP C. creatine phosphate D. GTP E. GDP 106. Which of the following statements about glycolysis is TRUE? A. Glucokinase catalyzes the conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate in liver cell B. 6-phosphofructokinase-1 catalyzes the conversion of fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate to dihydroxyacetone phosphate. C. When one molecule of glucose is converted to pyruvate via glycolysis, one molecule of NAD is reduced. D. When one molecule of glucose is converted to pyruvate via glycolysis, one carbon is lost as CO2. E. Hexokinase catalyzes the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate. 107. How many net molecules of ATP are generated after 1 glucose molecule being oxidized completely into CO2 and H2O? A. 36 B. 38 C. 36 or 38 D. 32 E. 30 or 32 108. The key enzyme of glycogenolysis is____. A. UDPG pyrophosphorylase B. phosphorylase C. glucokinase D. aldolase E. PEP kinase 109. The material of gluconeogenesis is____. A. lysine B. acetyl-CoA C. lactate D. glucose E. leucine 110. Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order from most dense to least dense? A. HDL/VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL B. HDL/LDL /VLDL/chylomicrons C. LDL/ chylomicrons/HDL/VLDL 11 D. VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL/ HDL E. LDL/chylomicrons /VLDL / HDL 111. The physiological significance of ketone body formation is____. A. to keep blood sugar level in a stable level B. to increase blood sugar level C. to decrease blood sugar level D. a pathway to output energy from liver to brain and muscle tissue E. to induce ketoacidosis 112. Which is the key enzyme of fat mobilization? A. glycerol kinase B. hormone-sensitive triglyceride lipase (HSL) C. acyl-CoA synthetase D. phosphoglycerol dehydrogenase E. hexokinase 113. Which is the uncoupler of ETC? A. 2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP) B. Rotenone C. piericidin A D. Antimycin A E. oligomycin 114. when we putβ-hydroxy butyrate in entire mitochondria, we found that 3 inorganic phosphates incorporated into ATP per oxygen atom were consumed. So the P/O ratio is____. A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. none of the above 115. Which of the following is not included in essential amino acids? A. Lysine B. Leucine C. Valine D. Glutamine E. Threonine 116. Which of the following cofactor is required for the synthesis of γ-aminobutyric acid, dopamine, and histamine from their respective amino acid precursors? A. Tetrahydrobiopterin B. Tetrahydrofolate C. Pyridoxal phosphate D. Thiamine pyrophosphate E. Vitamin B12 117. In the urea cycle____. A. carbamoyl phosphate is derived directly from glutamine and CO2 B. ornithine reacts with aspartate to generate argininosuccinate C. the α-amino group of arginine forms one of the nitrogens of urea D. ornithine directly reacts with carbamoyl phosphate to form citrulline E. N-acetylglutamate is a positive allosteric effector of ornithine transcarbamoylase 118. Deoxyribonucleotides for DNA synthesis are mainly formed from___. A. ribose B. nucleotide C. nucleoside D. ribonucleotide diphosphates E. ribonucleotide triphosphates 119. Which of the following statements concerning Okazaki fragments is ture? A. They are produced by restriction enzymes B. They are synthesized on the leading strand during replication C. They are regions of DNA that does not code for the amino acids in a protein 12 D. They are relatively short polydeoxyribonucleotides with a few ribonucleotide residues at the 5’ end E. they are products of the action of RNase on hnRNA 120. In DNA replication, ① DNA polymerase Ⅲ ② rep protein ③ DNA polymerase Ⅰ ④ DDRP ⑤ DNA ligase is needed , the sequence is___. A. ④③①②⑤ B. ①②③④⑤ C. ③④①⑤② D. ⑤④③②① E. ②④①③⑤ 121. Which mutation follows may cause frame-shift mutation? A. transition B. transversion C. point mutation D. insertion E. delete triplet nucleotide 122. Which of the following is not included in redundant gene? A. immunoglobin B. hemoglobin C. rRNA D.5srRNA E. histone 123. Rifampicin binds to which of the following subunit of RNA polymerase in prokaryote and inhibit transcription? A. β B. σ C. β' D. α E. ββ' 124. The function of ρ factor is to ___. A. bind repressor in initial region B. increase the velocity of RNA synthesis C. release the RNA polymerase which binds to promoter D. involved in the termination of transcription E. permit initiation of the special transcription 125. Compared with eukaryote cells, the mRNA in prokaryote cells____. A. is the polycistron B. has poly A tail C. has introns D. base methylated in mRNA usually E. 5’end is Gppp mG 126. The reason for the termination of peptide bond synthesis is to ____. A. reach the terminus of mRNA B. particular tRNA recognize the termination codon C. termination codon hydrolyze the ester bond between peptidyl and tRNA D. release factor recognize the termination codon , then enter A site E. ribosome can not move because of the resistance of termination codon 127. Tetracycline, streptomycin, and erythromycin are effective antibiotics because they inhibit ___. A. RNA synthesis in prokaryotes B. RNA synthesis in eukaryotes C. protein synthesis in prokaryotes D. protein synthesis on cytosolic ribosomes of eukaryotes E. protein synthesis on mitochondrial ribosomes of eukaryotes 128. Which of the following statements about Enhancer is not true____? A. Enhancer is the DNA sequence to which the eukaryotic gene activators bound. B. It determines the temporal and spatial specificity of the gene expression. C. Their presence enhances or increases the rate of transcription dramatically. D. Their function is independent of its direction. E. Their function is dependent of its distance. 129. Promoter means___. A. a unit for transcribed fragments B. transcription origin 13 C. translation origin D. a region of DNA template which RNA-pol binds to E. a sequence being apart from structural gene and enhancing transcription 130. If you want to clone a target DNA of 500kb size, the vector should be____. A. plasmid B. bacteriophage λ C. cosmid D. Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) E. viral 131. Making cDNA libraries needs ____. A. reverse transcriptase, DNA template B. DNA polymerase, mRNA template C. reverse transcriptase, mRNA template D. DNA polymerase, tRNA template E. reverse transcriptase, rRNA template 132. Another name of G-protein-linked receptor is____. A. seven-transmembrane receptor B. iron-channel receptor C. single-transmembrane receptor D. Intracellular receptor E. Guanylate cyclase receptor 133. Ras is ____. A. GTP binding protein B. tyrosine protein kinase C. intranuclear DNA binding protein D. ligand E. receptor 134. Function of IP3 is____. A. activate PKA B. activate CaM-K C. open the Ca2+channel located at ER D. activate PKG E. activate PKB 135. Which is the key enzyme of heme synthesis? A. cholesterol 7α-hydroxylase B. HMG-CoA reductase C. ALA synthase D. chenodeoxycholic acid CoA synthetase E. bile acid synthetase 136. PKA has subunit(s). A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 137. In which of the following conditions can Lac operon’s structural gene transcribe at high level? A. glucose exist, lactose not exist. B. glucose exist, lactose exist C. glucose not exist, lactose exist. D. glucose not exist, lactose not exist E. glucose not exist, trp exist. 138. Which bile pigment is the main color of feces and urine? A. unconjugated bilirubin B. bilinogen C. biliverdin D. bilin 14 E. conjugated bilirubin 139.Which of the following vector is widely used? A. Plasmid B. Bacteriophage λ C. Cosmid D. Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) E. None of above 140. Which is the enzyme of hydrolysis of cAMP? A. Adenylate cyclase, AC B. Phosphodiesterase, PDE C. Protein Kinase A, PKA D. DNA polymerase E. phosphorylase 141. A bacterial mutant grows normally at 32°C but at 42°C accumulates short segments of newly synthesized DNA. Which of the following enzymes is most likely to be defective in this mutant? (A) An endonuclease (B) DNA polymerase (C) An exonuclease (D) An unwinding enzyme (helicase) (E) Polynucleotide ligase 142. With respect to genetic information afflux, which is not correct (A) DNA→RNA (B) RNA→protein (C) DNA→DNA (D) RNA→DNA (E) protein→RNA 143. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase Ⅰsynthesis (A) 5S rRNA (B) tRNA (C) all kinds of RNA (D) mRNA (E) 45S rRNA 144.The recognization of RNA pol (eukaryote) and transcriptional start sequence need (A) σ factor (B) TF(transcriptional factor) (C) RF (release factor) (D) Rho factor (E) IF 145. Which of the following statements concerning genes and transcription in eukaryotes is TRUE? (A) The conversion of a UAG codon to UAA in mRNA would result in the incorporation of an incorrect amino acid into the polypeptide chain (B) Genes always occur in one or a small number of copies in the genome (C) The order of gene sequences in chromosomes is always the same in highly differentiated cells as in germ cells (D) The primary product of transcription (hnRNA) often contains nucleotide sequences that do not code for the amino acid sequence of the protein encoded by a gene (E) exons are transcribed from DNA and then cleaved from hnRNA 146. An aminoacyl-tRNA exhibits which one of the following characteristics? (A) It is produced by a synthetase that is specific for the amino acid, but not the tRNA (B) It is composed of an amino acid esterified to the 5' end of the tRNA (C) It requires GTP for its synthesis from an amino acid and a tRNA (D) It contains an anticodon that is complementary to the codon for the amino acid (E) None of the above 147. Which one of the following point mutations would NOT produce a change in the protein translated from an mRNA? (A) UCA → UAA (B) UCA → CCA (C) UCA → UCU (D) UCA → ACA (E) UCA → GCA 15 148. Which of the following is NOT required for initiation of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells? (A) A 40S ribosomal subunit (B) eIF-2 (C) Methionyl-tRNAi Met (D) EF-2 (E)GTP 149. The mechanism for termination of protein synthesis in eukaryotes requires (A) a peptidyl-tRNA that cannot bind at the P site (B) the codon UGA, UAG, or AUG in the A site (C) nuclease cleavage of mRNA (D) release factors (E) None of the above 150. Tetracycline, streptomycin, and erythromycin are effective antibiotics because they inhibit (A) RNA synthesis in prokaryotes (B) RNA synthesis in eukaryotes (C) protein synthesis in prokaryotes (D) protein synthesis on cytoplasmic ribosomes of eukaryotes (E) protein synthesis on mitochondrial ribosomes of eukaryotes 151. When cAMP levels are relatively high in E. coli (A) lactose is not required for transcription of the lac operon (B) glucose levels in the medium are low (C) the repressor is bound to the lac operon if lactose is present (D) the enzymes for the metabolism of lactose are not induced (E) glucose levels in the medium are high 152. Which enzyme does not produce inorganic pyrophosphate (A) DNA polymerase (B) RNA polymerase (C) Polynucleotide ligase (D) Reverse transcriptase (E) None of the above 153. Which drug prevents binding of aminoacyl-tRNAs to the A site (A) Rifampicin (B) 5-Fluorouracil (C) Erythromycin (D) Tetracycline (E) Streptomycin 154. Which is the main transportation form of the bilirubin in blood: (A) bilirubin—albumin (B) bilirubin—Y protein (C) bilirubin—glucuronate (D) bilirubin—amino acid (E) bilirubin—glucose 155. Which component is required during the initiation of translation process in eukaryotes. (A) eIF-2 (B) EF-2 (C) EF-1 (D) Peptidyl transferase (E) Release factor 156. Another name of G-protein-linked receptor is . (A) seven-transmembrane receptor (B) iron-channel receptor (C) single-transmembrane receptor (D) intracellular receptor (E) Guanylate cyclase receptor 157. Bile duct obstruction (A) Low blood urea nitrogen (BUN); high blood NH4 + and total bilirubin levels (B) Dark brown stool; elevated total bilirubin in blood (C) Low hematocrit; small, pale red blood cells (D) Light colored stool; elevated conjugated bilirubin in blood (E) Low conjugated bilirubin in blood 158. The reason for the termination of peptide bond is: 16 (A)reach the terminus of mRNA (B) particular tRNA recognize the terminator codon (C) terminator codon hydrolyze the ester bond between peptidyl and tRNA (D) release factor recognize the terminator codon , and enter A site (E) ribosome can not move because of the resistance of terminator codon 159. PKA has subunits. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5 160. is not cis-acting element. (A) promoter (B) enhancer (C) silencer (D) structural gene (E) UASs 161. If there are 55% of proteins in a solution, the nitrogen of the proteins in this solution is ___. (A) 8.8% (B) 8.0% (C) 8.4% (D) 9.2% (E) 9.6% 162. ________ stabilizes the secondary structure of DNA. (A) Ionic bonds (B) Base stacking forces (C) Peptide bonds (D) Disulfide bonds (E) Covalent bonds 163. Which of the following sequences is complementary to the DNA sequence 5'-AAGTCCGA-3'? (A) 5'-AAGUCCGA-3' (B) 3'-TTCAGGCT-5' (C) 5'-TTCAGGCT-3' (D) 3'-TCGGACTT-5' (E) 3'-TCGGACUU-5' 164. As a biological catalyst, enzymes can ___. (A) Decrease the activation energy of a reaction. (B) Increase the activation energy of a reaction. (C) Increase the energy level of products. (D) Decrease the energy level of substrates. (E) Decrease the change of the free energy in a reaction. 165. How many net molecules of ATP are generated in the conversion of glucose to pyruvate? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 4 166. The regulation point of pentose phosphate pathway is ___. (A) the activity of G-6-p dehydrogenase (B) the amount of G-6-p in body (C) the amount of ribose (D) the ratio of ATP/ADP (E) the ratio of NADPH/NADP 167. Which of the following glycolytic enzymes is used in gluconeogenesis? (A) Glucokinase (B) Phosphofructokinase 1 (C) Pyruvate kinase (D) Aldolase (E) none of the above 168. An infant with an enlarged liver has a glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency. This infant ___. (A) cannot maintain blood glucose levels either by glycogenolysis or by gluconeogenesis (B) can use liver glycogen to maintain blood glucose levels (C) can use muscle glycogen to maintain blood glucose levels (D) can convert both alanine and glycerol to glucose to maintain blood glucose levels (E) can live as a normal person 17 169. Which one of the following sequences places the lipoproteins in the order from most dense to least dense? (A) HDL/VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL (B) HDL/LDL /VLDL/chylomicrons (C) LDL/ chylomicrons/HDL/VLDL (D) VLDL/chylomicrons/LDL/ HDL (E) LDL/chylomicrons /VLDL / HDL 170. Compared with eukaryote cells , the mRNA in prokaryote cells (A) is the polycistron (B) has poly A tail (C) has introns (D) has base methylated in mRNA usually (E) 5’end is Gppp mG 171. Which is the key enzyme of fat mobilization? (A) glycerol kinase (B) hormone-sensitive triglyceride lipase (HSL) (C) acyl-CoA synthetase (D) phosphoglycerol dehydrogenase (E) hexokinase 172. Which is the uncoupler of ETC? (A) 2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP) (B) Rotenone (C) piericidin A (D) Antimycin A (E) oligomycin 173. when we putβ-hydroxy butyrate in entire mitochondria, we found that 3 inorganic phosphates incorporated into ATP per oxygen atom were consumed. So the P/O ratio is ___. (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) none of the above 174. Which is the key enzyme of biosynthesis of cholesterol? (A) HMG CoA synthase (B) HMG CoA dehygrogenase (C) HMG CoA hydrase (D) HMG CoA reductase (E) HMG CoA lysase 175. Pyridoxal phosphate is required for the enzymes catalyzing the reaction is ___. (A) glutamate + NH 3 + ATP → glutamine + ADP + Pi (B) glutamate + NAD+ → a-ketoglutarate + NH4 + + NADH + H+ (C) glutamine + H2O → glutamate + NH3 (D) pyruvate + glutamate → alanine +α-ketoglutarate (E) urea cycle 176. one carbon unit does not include ___. (A) -CH3 (B) -CH2(C) -CH= (D) -CHO (E) COOH 177. The major amino acid that is released from muscle and converted to glucose in the liver is ___. (A) alanine (B) glutamine (C) valine (D) aspartate (E) glutamate 178. Gout occurs because ______ precipitates in joint and blood. (A) uric acid (B) urea (C) cholesterol 18 (D) xanthine (E) hypoxanthine 179. PIC is referred to: : (A)RNA polymerases (B) RNA polymerase binding to TATA sequence (C) all transcription factors binding to RNA polymerase and DNA template (D) α factor binding to RNA polymerase (E) repressors released from operator after allosterism 180. Which of the following is not correct about reverse transcription? (A) use RNA as template (B) product is DNA (C) base pairing is U-A, C-G, A-T (D) the direction of elongation is 5’→ 3’ (E) the material is NTP 181. In the following proteins , do not bind to DNA (A) DNA polymerase (B) Trans-acting factors (C) RNA polymerase (D) DNA topoisomerase (E) mRNA guanyl transferase 182. Ribosome cycle is referred to: (A) the formation of the 40S initial complex (B) the initial stage in translation (C) the elongation stage in translation (D)the termination stage in translation (E) the separation and formation of 80S ribosome 183. The chemical bond between amino acid and tRNA is : (A) phosphodiester bond (B) hydrogen bond (C) peptide bond (D) ester bond (E) amide bond 184. The function of ρ factor is to ___. (A) bind repressor in initial region (B) increase the velocity of RNA synthesis (C) release the RNA polymerase which binds to promoter (D) involved in the termination of transcription (E) permit the initiation of the special transcription 185. An aminoacyl-tRNA exhibits which one of the following characteristics? (A) It is produced by a synthetase that is specific for the amino acid, but not the tRNA (B) It is composed of an amino acid esterified to the 5’ end of the tRNA (C) It requires GTP for its synthesis from an amino acid and a tRNA (D) It contains an anticodon that is complementary to the codon for the amino acid (E) It contains a codon that is complementary to the codon for the amino acid 186. The function of IF-1 is to ___. (A) promote the binding of IF-3 to small subunit (B) promote the separation of small and large subunit (C) promote the binding of small and large subunit (D) promote the allosterism of IF-2 (E) cause GTP hydrolysis 19 187. Insertions or deletions of bases in mRNA can alter the amino acids sequence of translational product; which feature of the genetic codon is that involved? (A) Commaless (B) Degeneracy (C) Wobble (D) Universality (E) direction 188. Gene expression can be controlled at several stages, the key stage is ____. (A) initiation of transcription (B) post-transcriptional modification (C) mRNA degradation (D) translation (E) post- translational modification 189. Promoter means ___. (A) a unit for transcribed fragments (B) transcription origin (C) translation origin (D) a region of DNA template which RNA-pol binds to (E) a sequence being apart from structural gene and enhancing transcription 190. Which of the following statements about Enhancer is not true? (A) Enhancer is the DNA sequence to which the eukaryotic gene activators bound. (B) It determines the temporal and spatial specificity of the gene expression. (C) Their presence enhances or increases the rate of transcription dramatically. (D) Their function is independent of its direction. (E) Their function is dependent of its distance. 191. Which of the following vector is widely used? (A) Plasmid (B) Bacteriophage λ (C) Cosmid (D) Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) (E) None of above 192. Making cDNA libraries needs ____. (A) reverse transcriptase, DNA template (B) DNA polymerase, mRNA template (C) reverse transcriptase, mRNA template (D) DNA polymerase, tRNA template (E) reverse transcriptase, rRNA template 193. Ras is ____. (A) GTP binding protein (B) tyrosine protein kinase (C) intranuclear DNA binding protein (D) ligand (E) receptor 194. Function of DAG is ____. (A) activate PKA (B) activate CaM-K (C) open the Ca2+channel located at ER (D) activate PKG (E) activate PKC 195. Northern blotting is used to detect. (A) DNA (B) RNA (C) protein (D) sugar (E)lipid 196. Which is the key enzyme of heme synthesis? 20 (A) cholesterol 7α-hydroxylase (B) HMG-CoA reductase (C) ALA synthase (D) chenodeoxycholic acid CoA synthetase (E) bile acid synthetase 197. Which bile pigment is the main color of feces and urine? (A) unconjugated bilirubin (B) bilinogen (C) biliverdin (D) bilin (E) conjugated bilirubin 198. G-protein has subunits. (A) 1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5 199. In Lac operon, which is the place where repressor protein bind. (A) O (B) P (C) I (D) CAP sites (E) structural gene 200. Which of the following enzyme is used in cAMP synthesis? (A) Adenylate cyclase, AC (B) Phosphodiesterase, PDE (C) Protein Kinase A, PKA (D) DNA polymerase (E) phosphorylase 21