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Honors Biology
Midyear Assessment
1. Which of the following is true about scientific theories?
A) They have been thoroughly tested.
B) They are developed by inductive reasoning.
C) They are used to support observations using deductive reasoning.
D) They can be either supported or modified by new observations.
E) All of these are correct.
2. The scientific method includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) experimentation.
B) a testable theory.
C) an observation.
D) a hypothesis
E) conclusions.
3. We use the scientific method every day. Imagine your car doesn't start one
morning before school. Which of these is a reasonable hypothesis regarding the
problem?
A) I'm going to be late.
B) I'm out of gas.
C) Check if your lights were left on.
D) Kick the tires.
E) Add a quart of oil.
4. A scientific theory
A) is a general explanation for a natural phenomena.
B) is an educated guess.
C) is less reliable than a hypothesis.
D) will never be changed.
E) none of the above
5. All the following are features of the scientific method EXCEPT
A) hypothesis formulation.
B) observation and experimentation.
C) supernatural causes.
D) inductive and deductive reasoning.
E) forming conclusions.
6. You are testing treatments for AIDS sufferers and find that 75% respond very
well and 25% show no improvement or decline in health after your experimental
treatment. You should
A) conclude you have proven the effectiveness of the drug.
B) conclude that only 75% of AIDS victims should be treated.
C) review the results, modify the drug or the dosage, and repeat the experiment.
D) discontinue experimentation because 25% of patients did not improve.
E) begin work on an entirely new drug.
7. Which correctly indicates the sequence of increasing organization?
A) molecule, cell, organelle, organ
B) organelle, tissue, cell, organ
C) atom, molecule, tissue, cell
D) organ, tissue, cell, molecule
E) cell, tissue, organ, organ system
8. Which of the following is/are characteristic of living organisms?
A) organized structure
B) responsiveness to stimuli
C) maintenance of homeostasis
D) B and C are correct.
E) A, B, and C are correct
9. Humans born without sweat glands usually do not survive. Why not?
A) Sweating is an important mechanism for maintaining temperature
homeostasis.
B) Sweat glands create openings in the skin where gas exchange occurs.
C) Sweating is an important way of ridding the body of excess water.
D) Sweating is important for purging impurities from the body.
E) Sweat builds up in the body which causes swelling and tissue damage .
10. You observe a plant on your windowsill that is growing at an angle toward
the outside. This is an example of a living thing
A) maintaining homeostasis.
B) responding to stimuli.
C) reproducing.
D) evolving.
11. The main difference between an autotroph and a heterotroph is
A) how they reproduce.
B) how they respond to stimuli.
C) the placement of their organelles.
D) how they obtain energy.
12. A light microscope that has an ocular lens (eyepiece) of 10x and an objective
lens of 30x has a total magnification of
A)
B)
C)
D)
40x
30x
400x
300x
13. A microscope _________________ the image of a specimen.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
magnifies
reverses
reduces
a and b are correct
a, b and c are correct
14. When an organism changes form when it is maturing is called
A)
B)
C)
D)
growth
sexual reproduction
development
adaptation
15. The dependent variable is found on the ______axis while the independent
variable is found on the _______axis.
A)
B)
C)
D)
X, Y
Y, X
it doesn’t matter as long as the experiment is correct
It us up to the scientist as long as he/she explains it in the key
16. Large biological molecules are synthesized by removing
A) carbon.
B) covalent bonds.
C) water.
D) oxygen.
E) peptides.
17. What type of chemical reaction results in the breakdown of organic polymers
into their respective subunits?
A) condensation
B) oxidation
C) hydrolysis
D) ionization
E) reduction
18. Which of the following correctly matches an organic polymer with its
respective monomers?
A) protein and amino acids
B) carbohydrates and polysaccharides
C) hydrocarbon and monosaccharides
D) lipid and steroids
E) DNA and ATP
19. Which of the following BEST summarizes the relationship between
dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
A) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers and hydrolysis breaks them down.
B) Hydrolysis occurs during the day and dehydration happen at night.
C) Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis.
D) Hydrolysis creates monomers and dehydration reactions destroy them.
E) Dehydration reactions occur only in animals and hydrolysis reactions occur
only in plants.
20. Look at the following chemical reaction. Which arrow represents hydrolysis?
Glucose + fructose -------- 1.-------> sucrose + water
<-------- 2. ----A) 1
B) 2
C) both
D) neither
21. The fiber in your diet is really
A) protein.
B) ATP.
C) starch.
D) cartilage.
E) cellulose.
22. Where is glycogen stored in vertebrate animals?
A) liver and muscles
B) brain and kidneys
C) heart and bones
D) pancreas and blood
E. liver and heart
23. Which of the following provides long-term energy storage for plants?
A) glucose
B) glycogen
C) starch
D) cellulose
E) ATP
24. Which type of lipid is most important in biological membranes?
A) fats
B) steroids
C) phospholipids
D) oils
E. triglycerides
25. Of what are fats composed?
A) three glycerols and their fatty acids
B) three fatty acids and one glycerol
C) one glycogen and two phospholipids
D) two fatty acids and one carboxyl acid
E) three oils and one glycerol
26. You go the store and buy some lard for cooking. You notice when you get
home that the lard is solid at room temperature. What does this tell you about
the fats in lard?
A) The fats in lard are not organic molecules.
B) The lard is composed of saturated fats.
C) The fats are mostly phospholipids.
D) The lard is composed of unsaturated fats.
27. Two classes of organic compounds typically provide energy for living
systems. Representatives of these two classes are
A) fats and amino acids.
B) amino acids and glycogen.
C) amino acids and ribose sugars.
D) fats and polysaccharides.
E) nucleic acids and phospholipids.
28. You have isolated a liquid from a sample of beans. You add the liquid to a
beaker of water and shake vigorously. After a few minutes, the water and the
other liquid separate into two layers. To which class of biological macromolecules
does the unknown liquid most likely belong?
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) enzymes
E) nucleic acids
29. In a biological membrane, the phospholipids are arranged with the fatty acid
chains facing the interior of the membrane. As a result, the interior of the
membrane is
A) hydrophobic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) charged.
D) polar.
E) filled with water.
30. The group of biological molecules most diverse in function is:
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) nucleic acids
E) organelles
31. Organisms contain thousands of different proteins composed of ________
different amino acids.
A) 4
B) 20
C) 100
D) 1000
E) approx. 5000
32. What determines the specific function of a protein?
A) exact sequence of amino acids
B) number of disulfide bonds
C) a hydrophilic "head" attached to a hydrophobic "tail"
D) fatty acids as monomers
E) the number of peptide bonds it contains
33. Specifically, a peptide bond forms between which groups?
A) amino and aldehyde groups
B) carboxyl and amino groups
C) hydroxyl and carboxyl groups
D) phosphate and hydroxyl groups
E) carboxyl and aldehyde groups
34. How is a denatured protein different from a normal protein?
A) A denatured protein does contain amino acids.
B) A denatured protein has no secondary or tertiary structure.
C) A denatured protein is composed of nucleotides.
D) A denatured protein contains many disulfide bridges.
35. In metabolically active cells, you would expect to find a large number of
A) Golgi bodies.
B) chloroplasts.
C) vesicles.
D) microtubules.
E) mitochondria.
36. A biologist ground up some plant cells and then centrifuged the mixture. She
obtained some organelles from the pellet in the test tube that took up CO2 and
gave off O2. The organelles are most likely
A) nuclei.
B) ribosomes.
C) chloroplasts.
D) mitochondria.
E) Golgi bodies
37. Which of the following relationships between cell structures and their
respective functions is NOT correct?
A) cell wall — support and protection
B) chloroplasts — chief site of cellular respiration
C) nucleus — site of genetic control of information
D) ribosomes — site of protein synthesis
E) mitochondria — formation of ATP for the cell
Select the organelle that is the most appropriate match for the numbered
statement. Letters may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi bodies
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Lysosomes
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
38) Digests damaged organelles.
39) Sorts our mixtures of protein and sends them to their proper destination.
40) Site of protein synthesis.
41) Site of cellular respiration.
42) Makes steroid hormones.
43) Responsible for most of a muscle cell's ATP generation.
44. How are plasma membranes BEST described?
A) a double layer of phospholipid molecules with hydrophobic tails directed
toward cytoplasm of the cell
B) a single layer of phospholipid molecules with water molecules attached along
one side
C) a double layer of phospholipid molecules with hydrophilic heads directed
toward each other
D) a double layer of phospholipid molecules with hydrophobic tails oriented
toward each other
E) a single layer of phospholipids with tails pointed to the inside of the cell
45. Which of the following accounts for the fluid aspect of the fluid mosaic model
of plasma membranes?
A) The individual phospholipid molecules are not bonded to each other so
movement of certain proteins and lipids is possible within the bilayer.
B) The plasma membrane is “fluid” because of movement of substances across
the membrane.
C) The bilayer permits diffusion of certain lipid-soluble substances.
D) The membrane is water soluble.
E) One of the components of the membrane is water.
46. The net movement of molecules from a high concentration to a low
concentration is BEST described by which of the following?
A) diffusion
B) active transport
C) osmosis
D) facilitated diffusion
E) exocytosis
47. In reference to diffusion, “passive” really means
A) without a membrane
B) in the air
C) no gradient
D) very slowly
E) no energy required
48. What is active transport?
A) diffusion of molecules within a cell
B) movement of molecules into or out of a cell against a concentration gradient
C) movement of molecules into or out of a cell down a concentration gradient
D) the movement of molecules into or out of a cell using special proteins and not
requiring an expenditure of energy
E) rapid movement of molecules in a solution
49. If red blood cells are taken from the body and placed in a hypertonic
solution, what happens to the cells?
A) The cells swell and burst because water moves into the cells.
B) The cells shrivel up because water leaves the cells.
C) The cells remain unchanged due to equal solute concentration inside and
outside the cells.
D) The cells remain unchanged due to equal water concentrations inside and
outside the cells.
E) They become white blood cells.
50. A freshwater protozoan, such as Paramecium, tends to ________ because
it lives in a ________ environment.
A) gain water; hypotonic
B) lose water; hypertonic
C) gain water; hypertonic
D) lose water; hypotonic
E) gain water; isotonic
51. The products of photosynthesis are
A) glucose and water.
B) carbon dioxide, water, and energy.
C) glucose and carbon dioxide.
D) carbon dioxide, chlorophyll, and oxygen.
E) glucose and oxygen.
52. What factors influence the rate of photosynthesis?
A) light intensity
B) temperature
C) CO2
D) water availability
E) all of these
53. All of the following compounds are required (i.e., are necessary constituents
for chemical reactions) at some state of green plant photosynthesis, EXCEPT
A) ATP.
B) NADP.
C) water.
D) oxygen.
E) carbon dioxide
54. Imagine a plant in your garden doesn’t receive an adequate amount of
water. Which of the following would be most affected by this?
A)
B)
C)
D)
The light dependent reactions of photosynthesis
The light independent reactions of photosynthesis
Both the light dependent and light independent reactions of photosynthesis
Photosynthesis would not be affected by this.
55. The pigment(s) that absorb light energy to drive photosynthesis is/are
A) chlorophyll.
B) carotenoids.
C) anthocyanins.
D) A and B
E) all of these
56. Which statement is TRUE regarding the light-dependent reactions?
A) They rely on energy provided by glucose synthesis.
B) Oxygen is required.
C) Without water, the system would shut down.
D) ATP and NADPH are needed.
E) Without photosystem I, photosystem II could not occur.
57. Light-dependent photosynthetic reactions produce
A) ATP, NADPH, O2
B) ATP, NADPH, CO2
C) Glucose, ATP, O2
D) Glucose, ATP, CO2
E) ATP, NADPH, H2O
58. Where does the O2 released during photosynthesis come from?
A) CO2
B) H2O
C) ATP
D) C6H12O6
E) RuBP
59. Glucose synthesis requires which of the following?
A) Sunlight must be present.
B) Products of energy-capturing reactions must be available.
C) The concentration of O2 must be significantly higher than that of CO2.
D) Mitochondria must provide energy as ATP.
E) all of the above
60. All of the following are part of the Calvin-Benson cycle EXCEPT
A) carbon fixation.
B) synthesis of G3P.
C) generation of ATP.
D) regeneration of RuBP.
E) All of the above are part of the cycle.
61. In the C3 cycle, where does the carbon come from to form glucose?
A) from ATP and NADPH
B) from chlorophyll
C) from atmospheric CO2
D) from enzymes
E) from water
62. In green plants, the primary function of the Calvin cycle is to
A) use ATP to release carbon dioxide.
B) use NADPH to release carbon dioxide.
C) split water and release oxygen.
D) transport glucose out of the chloroplast.
E) construct simple sugars from carbon dioxide.
63. At the end of glycolysis, the original carbons of the glucose molecule form
A) six molecules of carbon dioxide.
B) two molecules of NADH.
C) two molecules of pyruvic acid.
D) two molecules of citric acid.
E) two molecules of fructose.
64. The anaerobic breakdown of glucose is called
A) fermentation.
B) respiration.
C) phosphorylation.
D) chemiosmosis.
E) Krebs cycle.
65. The main function of cell respiration is to produce
A) CO2.
B) glucose.
C) ATP.
D) NADH and FADH2.
E) all of the above
66. During glycolysis, what is the net gain of ATP molecules produced?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 34
D) 36
E) 38
67. During which part of aerobic respiration is the oxygen actually used?
A) glycolysis
B) fermentation
C) Krebs cycle
D) conversion of pyruvic acid to Acetyl CoA
E) electron transport system
68. Which of the following most closely matches the correct order of main events
of cellular respiration?
A) glycolysis, pyruvate enters mitochondrion, Krebs cycle, major ATP production,
electron transport
B) glycolysis, major ATP production, pyruvate enters mitochondrion, electron
transport, Krebs cycle
C) glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electrons transport system, major ATP production
D) Krebs cycle, electron transport, major ATP production, glycolysis
E) major ATP production, pyruvate enters mitochondrion, Krebs cycle, electron
transport
69. During which of the following processes is CO2 produced?
A) Glycolysis
B) Krebs Cycle
C) Electron transport chain
D) All of these
E) None of these
70. The hereditary material that is present in all cells is
A) protein.
B) RNA.
C) DNA.
D) R-strain.
E) S-strain.
71. What is the relationship among DNA, a gene, and a chromosome?
A) A chromosome contains hundreds of genes which are composed of protein.
B) A chromosome contains hundreds of genes which are composed of DNA.
C) A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes which are composed of protein.
D) A gene is composed of DNA, but there is no relationship to a chromosome.
E) A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes which are composed of DNA.
72. The DNA of a certain organism has guanine as 30% of its bases. What
percentage of its bases would be adenine?
A) 0%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 30%
E) 40%
73. The correct structure of a nucleotide is
A) phosphate-5 carbon sugar-nitrogen base.
B) phospholipid-sugar-base.
C) phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar.
D) adenine-thymine and guanine-cytosine.
E) base-phosphate-glucose.
74. The sequence of subunits in the DNA "backbone" is
A) --base--phosphate--base--phosphate--base--phosphate-.
B) --phosphate--sugar--phosphate--sugar--phosphate--sugar.
C) --sugar--base--sugar--base--sugar--base--sugar--base-.
D) --base--sugar--phosphate--base--sugar--phosphate-.
E) --base--phosphate--sugar--base--phosphate--sugar-.
75. Complementary base pairs are held together by
A) peptide bonds.
B) hydrogen bonds.
C) disulfide bonds.
D) covalent bonds.
E) ionic bonds.
76. For the DNA sequence GCCTAT in one polynucleotide chain, the sequence
found in the other polynucleotide chain is
A) CGGATA.
B) GCCATA.
C) CGGAUA.
D) ATTCGC.
E) GCCTAT.
77. The timing of DNA replication and cell division is regulated carefully for
which of the following reasons?
A) so that the DNA is replicated only one time prior to each cell division
B) so that cells that will never divide do not replicate their DNA
C) so that the cell does not try to replicate its DNA if it lacks enough energy and
raw materials to complete the process
D) All of the above are reasons for the regulation of DNA replication.
E) None of the above are true.
78. Which of the following is TRUE about the accuracy of DNA replication?
A) Many errors are made during DNA replication, but this does not matter
because of the immense size of the DNA molecule.
B) Many errors are made during DNA replication, but this does not matter
because repair enzymes will mend the errors.
C) The few errors made by DNA polymerase are usually corrected by repair
enzymes.
D) DNA polymerase makes very few errors, so no repair enzymes are needed.
E) DNA polymerase always makes a perfect copy of the original DNA.
79. DNA polymerase, before any proofreading by repair enzymes, makes on
average one mistake for every
A) 100 base pairs.
B) 1000 base pairs.
C) 10,000 base pairs.
D) million base pairs.
E) billion base pairs
80. The DNA in your body's cells can accumulate errors for which of the
following reasons?
A) Mistakes are made during DNA replication.
B) Some DNA spontaneously breaks down at normal body temperature.
C) Ultraviolet light in sunlight damages DNA.
D) All of the above are reasons DNA can accumulate errors.
E) None of the above are true.
81. The sequence 5’-ACGTACGT-3’ altered to 5’-ACGCACGT-3’ could have
arisen as a result of
A) A point mutation
B) A deletion mutation
C) An insertion mutation
D) A or B
E) A, B or C
82. The sequence 5’-ACGTACGT-3’ altered to 5’-ACGACGT-3’ could have
arisen as a result of
A) A point mutation
B) A deletion mutation
C) An insertion mutation
D) A or B
E) A, B or C
83. In Griffith's experiments, what happened when heat-killed S-strain
pneumococcus were injected into a mouse along with live R-strain
pneumococcus?
A) DNA from the live R-strain was taken up by the heat-killed S-strain, converting
them to R-strain and killing the mouse.
B) DNA from the heat-killed S-strain was taken up by the live R-strain, converting
them to S-strain and killing the mouse.
C) Proteins released from the heat-killed S-strain killed the mouse.
D) RNA from the heat-killed S-strain was translated into proteins that killed the
mouse.
E) nothing
84. The sequence of nitrogen-containing bases on one strand of DNA most
directly determines the sequence of
A) fatty acids in a fat molecule.
B) amino acids in a protein molecule.
C) sugars in a polysaccharide molecule.
D) All of the above choices are correct.
E) bases in a protein molecule.
85. When comparing DNA and RNA, we find
A) no sugar is present in either molecule.
B) hydrogen bonding is important only in DNA.
C) only DNA has a backbone of sugars and phosphates.
D) adenine pairs with different bases in DNA and RNA.
E) thymine pairs with different bases in DNA and RNA
86. Both DNA and RNA
A) are single-stranded molecules.
B) contain the same four types of nitrogen-containing bases.
C) have the same five-carbon sugars.
D) contain phosphate groups.
E) cannot both be present in a cell simultaneously.
87. The number of consecutive mRNA bases needed to specify an amino acid is
A) 3.
B) 4.
C) 20.
D) 64.
E) a variable number.
88. If a bacterial protein has 30 amino acids, how many nucleotides are needed
to code for it?
A) 30
B) 60
C) 90
D) 120
E) 600
89. If the sequence of bases in a section of DNA is TAGGCTAA, what is the
corresponding sequence of bases in mRNA?
A) ATCCGATT
B) TAGGCTAA
C) CGAAUCGG
D) AATCGGAT
E) AUCCGAUU
90. The process of copying genetic information from DNA to RNA is called
A) translation.
B) transformation.
C) replication.
D) transcription.
E) polymerization
91. Which of the following molecules functions to transfer information from the
nucleus to the cytoplasm?
A) DNA
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) proteins
E) lipids
92. If a tRNA molecule specialized for transfer of the amino acid valine has the
anticodon CAG, with what codon will it couple?
A) GAC
B) GTC
C) TUG
D) GUC
E) CAG
93. Suppose one strand of a "mini-gene" has the following base sequence:
TACCCGGATTCA
The polypeptide encoded by this gene has how many amino acids?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 12
94. In a wild-type strain of fruit flies, the size of a gene from the start to the stop
codon is 2000 DNA bases. An experiment indicates that the mRNA molecule
transcribed from this gene is much smaller than that, only 1200 bases. The most
likely explanation is
A) a mutation has caused the formation of a stop codon in the gene.
B) the mRNA has been degraded.
C) there are introns in the DNA that have been spliced out of the mRNA.
D) a long tail has been added to the mRNA.
E) Any of these could explain the size difference.
95. A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence (5'-CCGACG-3') is being translated
by a ribosome. The following activated tRNA molecules are available. Two of
them can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form
tRNA anticodon
GGC
CGU
UGC
CCG
ACG
CGG
Amino acid
proline
alanine
threonine
glycine
cysteine
alanine
The dipeptide that will form will be
A) cysteine-alanine.
B) proline-threonine.
C) glycine-cysteine.
D) alanine-alanine.
E) threonine-glycine.
96. Which occurs in the nucleus?
A) transcription only
B) assembly of amino acids into protein
C) replication of genetic material
D) transcription and replication of genetic material
E) translation only
97. The process of converting the "message" of mRNA into a sequence of amino
acids is called
A) translation.
B) transcription.
C) activation.
D) replication.
E) repression
98. The site of protein synthesis is the
A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
B) nucleus.
C) nucleolus.
D) ribosome.
E) eukaryotic chromosome.
99. Suppose one strand of a "mini-gene" has the following base sequence:
TACCCGGATTCA
The anticodon of the tRNA that carries the first amino acid will be
A) AUG.
B) UAC.
C) UCA.
D) AGU.
100. How can a gene be mutated with no resulting change in the protein that is
produced from that gene?
A) The mutation is at the active site of the protein.
B) A codon has changed, but it codes for he same amino acid as the original
codon.
C) An entire codon has been removed.
D) RNA polymerase can edit the mutation from the mRNA produced during
translation.
E) This is impossible. All mutations, by definition, result in altered proteins.