Download 101 -- 2006

BIOL 101 -- Exam 3 – September 8, 2006 – Name: _____________________
DNA Replication
__ 1. Assume DNA replication is NOT semi-conservative. Meselson and Stahl's replication
experiment would have shown different results. After growing the bacteria first on heavy
15N, centrifuged results would have shown one band of heavy DNA. If then bacteria were
allowed to grow on light 14N, the centrifuged results would have shown:
a) one hybrid band and one light band.
b) one heavy band and one light band.
c) two heavy bands.
d) one hybrid band and one heavy band.
__ 2. In the Watson and Crick model of DNA, the "steps" of the ladder are composed of
a) sugars.
d) two pyrimidines.
b) a purine and a pyrimidine.
e) a sugar and a phosphate molecule.
c) two purines.
__ 3. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is NOT correct?
a) Unwinding of the DNA molecule occurs as hydrogen bonds break.
b) Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it.
c) The process is known as semiconservative replication because one old strand is conserved in the
new molecule.
d) The enzyme that catalyzes DNA replication is DNA polymerase.
e) Complementary base pairs are held together with hydrogen bonds.
__ 4. What is the primer that is required to initiate the synthesis of a new DNA strand?
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) ribosome
d) ligase
e) primase
__ 5. Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 3' to 5' direction?
a) primase
c) DNA polymerase III
e) none of these
b) DNA ligase
d) helicase
__ 6. The problem of replicating the lagging strand, that is, growing DNA in the 3'--> 5' direction,
is solved by DNA through the use of
a) base-pairing
c) helicases
e) topoisomerases
b) replication forks
d) Okazaki fragments
__ 7. What type of bond is used to connect nucleotides within a single strand of DNA?
a) hydrogen
b) ionic
c) covalent
d) sulfhydryl
e) phosphate
__ 8. When does DNA replication occur?
a) mitosis
b) meiosis
c) S phase
d) G1 phase
e) A and B
__ 9. What type of reaction does DNA polymerase catalyze?
a) Oxidative decarboxylation
c) Oxidative deamination
e) Phosphotransferase
b) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) Dehydration synthesis
__ 10. The correct structure of a nucleotide is:
a) Phosphate-5 carbon sugar-nitrogen base
b) Phospholipid-sugar-base
c) Phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar
d) Adenine-thymine and guanine-cytosine
e) Base-phosphate-glucose
__ 11. What enzyme removes the RNA primer from the discontinuous strand?
a) primase
c) DNA polymerase I
e) exons
b) RNase
d) ligase
__ 12. Okazaki fragments are short stretches of RNA that will be connected together.
a) True
b) False
__ 13. DNA replication is started at specific DNA sequences referred to as ____ sites.
a) ori
c) promoter
e) TATA box
b) Shine-Delgaro
d) Jacobs box
__ 14. Which enzyme has the ability to separate double stranded DNA into single strands?
a) ligase
c) gyrase
e
b) helicase
d) polymeras
e) primase
__ 15. What is the relationship among DNA, a gene and a chromosome?
a) A chromosome contains hundreds of genes which are composed of protein.
b) A chromosome contains hundreds of genes which are composed of DNA.
c) A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes which are composed of protein.
d) A gene is composed of DNA, but there is no relationship to a chromosome.
e) A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes which are composed of DNA.
Transcription, Translation & RNA processing
__ 16. If a bacterial protein has 30 amino acids, how many nucleotides are needed to code for it?
a) 30
b) 60
c) 90
d) 120
e) 600
__ 17. The sequence of nitrogenous bases on one strand of DNA may determine the sequence of:
a) Fatty acids in a fat molecule
d) All of the above choices are correct
b) Amino acids in a protein molecule
e) Bases in a protein molecule
c) Sugars in a polysaccharide molecule
__ 18. Which of these is found in RNA but not in DNA?
a) Adenine
c) Thymine
e) Deoxyribose sugar
b) Uracil
d) Phosphate groups
__ 19. The number of consecutive mRNA bases needed to specify an amino acid is:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 20
d) 64
e) A variable number
__ 20. The process of copying genetic information from DNA to RNA is called:
a) Translation
c) Replication
e) Polymerization
b) Transformation
d) Transcription
__ 21. Which of the following molecules functions to transfer information from the nucleus to the
cytoplasm?
a) DNA
b) mRNA
c) tRNA
d) Proteins
e) Lipids
__ 22. A transcription start signal is called
a) an initiation codon.
c) an origin.
e) a nonsense codon.
b) a promoter.
d) a start site.
__ 23. If a tRNA molecule specialized for transfer of the amino acid valine has the anticodon CAG,
with what codon will it couple?
a) GAC
b) GTC
c) TUG
d) GUC
e) CAG
__ 24. Joins up with amino acids
a) ribosomal RNA
c) messenger RNA
e) RNA polymerase
b) DNA
d) transfer RNA
__ 25. Contains codons
a) ribosomal RNA
c) messenger RNA
e) RNA polymerase
b) DNA
d) transfer RNA
__ 26. Makes RNA molecules in the nucleus
a) ribosomal RNA
c) messenger RNA
e) RNA polymerase
b) DNA
d) transfer RNA
__ 27. Occurs at ribosomes
a) Transcription
b) Translation
c) Replication
d) Cytokinesis
e) Both transcription and translation
__ 28. The site of protein synthesis is the:
a) Endoplasmic reticulum
c) Nucleolus
e) Eukaryotic chromosome
b) Nucleus
d) Ribosome
__ 29. Anticodon-codon pairing
a) Transcription
b) Translation
c) Replication
d) Cytokinesis
e) Both transcription and translation
__ 30. A part of a mRNA molecule with the following sequence (5¨-CCG ACG-3¨) is being
translated by a ribosome. The following activated tRNA molecules are available. Two of them
can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form. The dipeptide that will form will
be
tRNA anticodon
Amino acid
GGC
proline
CGU
alanine
UGC
threonine
CCG
glycine
ACG
cysteine
CGG
alanine
a) cysteine-alanine
c) glycine-cysteine
e) threonine-glycine
b) proline-threonine
d) alanine-alanine
__ 31. Each new amino acid is attached to the growing chain during translation by:
a) an ionic bond
c) hydrogen bonds
e) a peptide bond
b) a physical bond
d) an RNA bond
__ 32. Ribosomes are a collection of
a) small proteins that function in translation.
b) proteins and small RNAs that function in translation.
c) proteins and tRNAs that function in transcription.
d) proteins and mRNAs that function in translation.
e) mRNAs and tRNAs that function in translation.
__ 33. Which of the following is/are true concerning introns?
a) Introns are sections of nucleotides found on a mRNA transcript.
b) RNA splicing usually removes introns from a mRNA molecule.
c) Introns can function to regulate gene expression.
d) The sequence of nucleotides found in introns are not known to represent anything usable by the cell.
e) Introns are removed by spliceosomes.
__ 34. During the elongation of a polypeptide chain, _________ occurs when the mRNA moves to
the next site on the ribosome to read the next codon.
a) translocation
c) transformation
e) transference
b) transcription
d) translation
__ 35. Transcription of a part of a DNA molecule with a nucleotide sequence of A-A-A-C-A-A-C-T-T
results in a mRNA molecule with the complementary sequence of
a) G-G-G-A-G-A-A-C-C.
c) T-T-T-G-A-A-G-C-C.
e) none of the choices are
b) U-U-U-G-U-U-G-A-A.
d) C-C-C-A-C-C-T-C-C.
correct.
__ 36. What part of the RNA polymerase molecule recognizes the promoter?
a) gamma factor
c) apoenzyme
e) beta factor
b) alpha factor
d) sigma factor
__ 37. For translation to take place, which of the following would NOT be required to be present?
a) tRNA-amino acid complex.
b) DNA.
c) mRNA.
d) rRNA.
e) ribosome.
__ 38. The correct sequence of events in the production of a polypeptide is
a) initiation, termination, elongation.
d) elongation, initiation, termination.
b) elongation, termination, initiation.
e) initiation, elongation, termination.
c) termination, elongation, initiation.
__ 39. In which directions does transcription occur?
a) in the 3’ to 5’ direction
c) in the 3’ to 3’ direction
e) all of these
b) in the 5’ to 3’ direction
d) in the 5’ to 5’ direction
__ 40. The genetic code is said to be degenerate. What does this indicate?
a) A single code is used by all species.
c) The code has punctuation.
b) The codons overlap.
d) The code does not have punctuation.
e) There are multiple codons for some amino acids.
__ 41. Uracil pairs with:
a) Thymine
b) Adenine
c) Guanine
d) Cytosine
e) Uracil
__ 42. What mRNA carries from the nucleus is:
a) Enzymes
b) Ribosomes
c) Information
d) Amino acids
e) tRNA
__ 43. After introns are removed, the ___ are joined together to form functional mRNA.
a) axons
b) neutrons
c) exons
d) mesons
e) ori sites
__ 44. rRNA has an anticodon loop at one end of the molecule and an amino acid acceptor stem at
the other end.
a) true
b) false
__ 45. What is added to the 5’ end of an RNA molecule during processing?
a) UAG
b) poly-A
c) poly-T
d) a cap
e) none of these
Mitosis, Meiosis & Cytokinesis
__ 46. A bacterial cell splits into 2 new cells by:
a) Duplication
c) Forming a cell furrow
e) Binary fission
b) Forming a cell plate
d) Mitosis
__ 47. Diploid cells of the fruit fly Drosophila have 10 chromosomes. How many chromosomes
does a Drosophila gamete have?
a) one
b) two
c) five
d) ten
e) twenty
__ 48. Human body cell nuclei contain:
a) 46 pairs of chromosomes
c) 23 unpaired chromosomes
e) 23 pairs of chromosomes
b) 44 pairs of chromosomes
d) 22 pairs of chromosomes
__ 49. During the "S" portion of the cell cycle, what is the cell doing?
a) resting
c) synthesizing DNA
e) undergoing differentiation
b) general cell metabolism
d) making a spindle
__ 50. Which of these sequences correctly describes the cell cycle?
a)  G1  G2  S  prophase  metaphase  anaphase  telophase 
b)  S  G2  prophase  metaphase  anaphase  telophase  G1 
c)  G1  S  G2  prophase  anaphase  metaphase  telophase 
d)  prophase  metaphase  telophase  anaphase  G1 S  G2 
e)  G1  S  G2  metaphase  prophase  anaphase  telophase 
__ 51. When does chromosome replication occur in a eukaryotic cell?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Interphase
e) Telophase
__ 52. The longest period of a cell's life cycle is:
a) Prophase
b) Telophase
c) Interphase
d) Anaphase
e) Metaphase
__ 53. During mitotic anaphase, chromatids migrate
a) from the poles of the cell toward the metaphase plate.
b) from the metaphase plate toward the poles.
c) toward the nuclear envelope.
d) along with their sister chromatids toward one pole.
e) along with the other member of the homologous pair toward the metaphase plate.
__ 54. The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to a specialized structure in the centromere
region of each chromosome, called the
a) kinetochore.
c) equatorial plate.
e) centrosome.
b) nucleosomes.
d) nucleotide.
__ 55. If a liver cell of an animal has 24 chromosomes, then the sperm cells of this animal would
also have 24 chromosomes.
a) True
b) False
__ 56. Cytokinesis refers to the division of the:
a) Cell
c) Mitochondria
e) Chromosomes
b) Nucleus
d) Centrioles
__ 57. Sister chromatids are:
a) Duplicate chromosomes held together by a common centromere
b) Specialized gamete-forming cells
c) Non-functional chromosomes
d) Homologous pairs of chromosomes
e) Different in their genetic content
__ 58. Mitosis in humans usually results in the formation of:
a) 2 diploid cells
c) 2 haploid cells
e) Sperm or egg cells
b) 4 diploid cells
d) 4 haploid cells
__ 59. During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes line up at the equator of the spindle
apparatus?
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase
e) The chromosomes do not line up at all
__ 60. Which of the following does not occur during prophase?
a) The nuclear membrane disintegrates
d) The chromosomes condense
b) Nucleoli break up
e) DNA replicates
c) The spindle apparatus forms
__ 61. Nuclear envelope reforms.
a) Metaphase
b) Prophase
c) Telophase
d) Anaphase
e) None of the these
__ 62. Spindle apparatus formation occurs.
a) Metaphase
d) Anaphase
b) Prophase
e) None of the these
c) Telophase
__ 63. Cytokinesis occurs.
a) Metaphase
b) Prophase
c) Telophase
d) Anaphase
e) None of the these
__ 64. Sexual reproduction by necessity involves which two processes?
a) Meiosis and fertilization
d) Mitosis and fertilization
b) Mutation and translocation
e) Differentiation and specialization
c) Nondisjunction and pleiotropy
__ 65. Meiosis results in the production of:
a) Diploid cells with no homologous chromosomes
d) Haploid cells with homologous chromosomes
b) Diploid cells with homologous chromosomes
e) None of the above choices is correct
c) Haploid cells with no homologous chromosomes
__ 66. During anaphase of meiosis I, what segregates?
a) Sister chromatids
c) Homologous chromosomes
e) The nucleolus
b) The spindle
d) Non-allelic genes
__ 67. Reciprocal exchange of genetic material between similar chromosomes is called:
a) Synapsis
c) Tetrad formation
e) Crossing-over
b) Segregation
d) Meiosis
__ 68. Meiosis results in the production of:
a) Diploid cells with no homologous chromosomes
b) Diploid cells with homologous chromosomes
c) Haploid cells with no homologous chromosomes
d) Haploid cells with homologous chromosomes
e) None of the above choices is correct
__ 69. During anaphase of meiosis I, what segregates?
a) Sister chromatids
c) Homologous chromosomes
e) The nucleolus
b) The spindle
d) Non-allelic genes
__ 70. Reciprocal exchange of genetic material between similar chromosomes is called:
a) Synapsis
c) Tetrad formation
e) Crossing-over
b) Segregation
d) Meiosis
__ 71. In human females, when does meiosis II occur?
a) at ovulation
b) before birth
c) right after birth
d) immdiately after the sperm penetrates the oocyte
e) None of the choices are correct.
__ 72. Where in the human male does spermatogenesis occur?
a) ovaries
c) testes
e) prostate gland
b) penis
d) epididymus
__ 73. Oogenesis always involves an equal division of cell contents in the formation of an egg and
polar bodies.
a) True
b) False
__ 74. The chromatids are held together at a region called the centromere.
a) True
b) False
__ 75. Apoptosis
a) is programmed cell suicide.
d) is used to replace worn out cells.
b) occurs only in haploid cells.
e) All of these are correct
c) works to oppose the effects of meiosis.
Chromosomes & Karyotypes
__ 76. A eukaryotic chromosome is made up of:
a) DNA only
b) Histones and nucleic acid
c) Centromeres and centrioles
d) Loops of naked DNA
e) DNA and RNA only
__ 77. Which of the following describes the inheritance of a whole extra set of chromosomes?
a) polyploid
c) inversion
e) inversion
b) monosomy
d) deletion
f) translocation
__ 78. Which of the following is always fatal in humans?
a) polyploid
c) inversion
e) inversion
b) monosomy
d) deletion
f) translocation
__ 79. Which of the following contains the normal amount of genetic material?
a) polyploid
b) monosomy
c) inversion
d) deletion
e) inversion
__ 80. Which of the following contains the normal amount of genetic material?
a) polyploid
b) monosomy
c) inversion
d) deletion
e) translocation
__ 81. Which of the following describes the switching of a region from one chromosome to
another?
a) transformation
b) transduction
c) tranversion
d) conjugation
e) translocation
__ 82. An extra chromosome 21.
a) Down syndrome
c) Klinefelter syndrome
e) Edwards syndrome
b) Jacobs syndrome
d) Turner syndrome
__ 83. Describes by 47,XXY.
a) Down syndrome
c) Klinefelter syndrome
e) Edwards syndrome
b) Jacobs syndrome
d) Turner syndrome
__ 84. Described by 45,X
a) Down syndrome
c) Klinefelter syndrome
e) Edwards syndrome
b) Jacobs syndrome
d) Turner syndrome
__ 85. A person with a karyotype of 47,XXY would be:
a) male
b) female
c) hermaphroditic
d) asexual
__ 86. What is the advantage of chorionic villi sampling over amniocentesis?
a) less chance of a miscarriage
d) results are more conclusive
b) can be done earlier in the pregnancy
e) none of these
c) results are more accurate
__ 87. Aneuploidies include:
a) polyploid
b) monosomy
c) inversion
d) deletion
e) inversion
__ 88. Meiotic nondisjunction can cause:
a) polyploid
b) monosomy
c) inversion
d) deletion
e) inversion
__ 89. What are the ends of chromosomes called?
a) telomers
b) centromeres
c) endonucleases
d) telemarkets
e) endosomes
__ 90. The short arm of a chromosome is designated:
a) A
b) B
c) P
d) Q
e) S
Inheritance
__ 91. Which of the following is not an autosomal recessive disease in humans?
a) Tay Sachs disease
c) Huntingdon’s disease
b) Cystic fibrosis
d) Phenylketonuria
e) all of these are autosomal recessive diseases
__ 92. Which of the following diseases is characterized by the inability to break down a
sphingolipid, resulting in its accumulation in lysosomes?
a) Tay Sachs disease
c) Huntingdon’s disease
b) Cystic fibrosis
d) Phenylketonuria
e) all of these are autosomal recessive diseases
__ 93. Which of the following diseases is characterized by the inability to secrete chloride ions,
resulting in thicker then normal mucus?
a) Tay Sachs disease
c) Huntingdon’s disease
b) Cystic fibrosis
d) Phenylketonuria
e) all of these are autosomal recessive diseases
__ 94. Gregory Mendel was a German monk who first came up with patterns of inheritance.
a) True
b) False
__ 95. What is a gene?
a) location of a gene on a chromosome
b) codes for the amino acid sequence of a protein
c) different forms of a gene
d) the sequence of the telomers
e) used in test crosses
__ 96. If a homozygous red individual was crossed with a homozygous white individual, what
would you expect would be the phenotype of their offspring if these alleles were
incompletely dominant?
a) white
b) red
c) pink
d) red and white
__ 97. If a homozygous red individual was crossed with a homozygous white individual, what
would you expect would be the phenotype of their offspring if these alleles were codominant?
a) white
b) red
c) pink
d) red and white
__ 98. If a homozygous dominant individual for widow’s peak was crossed with a heterozygote,
what percentage of their offspring would be expected to have widow’s peak?
a) 0
c) 3/16
e) 1/4
g) 3/4
b) 1/16
d) 9/16
f) 1/2
h) 1
__ 99. If a heterozygote individual with widow’s peak was crossed with a heterozygote, what
percentage of their offspring would be expected to have widow’s peak?
a) 0
c) 3/16
e) 1/4
g) 3/4
b) 1/16
d) 9/16
f) 1/2
h) 1
__ 100. If a person heterozygous for both short fingers and widow’s peak was crossed with
another person heterozygous for both traits, what percent of their offspring would you
expect to have both recessive traits?
a) 0
c) 3/16
e) 1/4
g) 3/4
b) 1/16
d) 9/16
f) 1/2
h) 1
__ 101. If red and white were incompletely dominant alleles for flower color, if two heterozygotes
were crossed, what percent of their offspring would you expect to be pink?
a) 0
c) 3/16
e) 1/4
g) 3/4
b) 1/16
d) 9/16
f) 1/2
h) 1
__ 102. What is an allele?
a) different forms of a gene
d) Non-Mendelian Inheritance
b) the sequence of the telomers
e) location of a gene on a chromosome
c) used in test crosses
f) codes for the amino acid sequence of a protein
__ 103. A woman who was a carrier for sex-linked hemophilia married a man with hemophilia.
What would be the chance their daughter would have hemophilia?
a) 0
c) 3/16
e) 1/4
g) 3/4
b) 1/16
d) 9/16
f) 1/2
h) 1
__ 104. Sex linked traits are traits encoded for by which chromosome(s)?
a) X
b) Y
c) X and Y
d) none of these
__ 105. In a polygenic trait, if one individual was very dark red, and another individual the
opposite extreme (white), what would you expect would be the phenotypes of their offspring?
a) all dark red
b) all white
c) all pink
d) all shades would be represented
__ 106. In a polygenic train, if two individuals opposite extreme phenotypes are crossed, one
would expect the phenotype of their offspring to:
a) be of the intermediate type
b) be of each extreme phenotype, but lacking the intermediate phenotype
c) be of only one extreme phenotype
d) be of all different phenotypes
__ 107. A woman who was a carrier for sex-linked hemophilia married a man with hemophilia.
What would be the chance their son would have hemophilia?
a) 0
c) 3/16
e) 1/4
g) 3/4
b) 1/16
d) 9/16
f) 1/2
h) 1
__ 108. What is a test cross used for?
a) determine the genotype of a homozygous dominant person
b) determine the phenotype in a polygenic trait
d) determine the genotype in a masked trait
c) determine the genotype in a polygenic train
e) none of these
__ 109. A woman who was a carrier for sex-linked color blindness married a man with normal
vision. What would be the chance their daughter would have color blindness?
a) 0
c) 3/16
e) 1/4
g) 3/4
b) 1/16
d) 9/16
f) 1/2
h) 1
__ 110. A woman who was a carrier for sex-linked color blindness married a man with normal
vision. What would be the chance their son would have color blindness?
a) 0
c) 3/16
e) 1/4
g) 3/4
b) 1/16
d) 9/16
f) 1/2
h) 1
DNA Technology
__ 111. Which of the following creates sticky ends?
a) restriction enzymes
d) variable number tandem repeats
b) electrophoresis
e) RFLP
c) polymerase chain reaction
__ 112. Which of the following separates DNA based on size?
a) restriction enzymes
d) variable number tandem repeats
b) electrophoresis
e) RFLP
c) polymerase chain reaction
__ 113. Which of the following can create many copies of DNA identical to a portion of the
chromosome?
a) restriction enzymes
d) polymerase chain reaction
b) electrophoresis
e) variable number tandem repeats
c) RFLP
__ 114. After a piece of DNA is placed in a cloning vector, which enzyme is going to seal the
sugar-phosphate backbone by creating a phosphodiester bond?
a) DNA polymerase I
d) restriction enzyme
b) DNA polymerase II
e) phosphatase
c) DNA ligase
__ 115. A cloning vector:
a) contains an ori site
b) is cut with restriction enzymes
c) is placed back into a cell
d) is replicated by a cell
e) all of the above
__ 116. In the below diagram of DNA separated by electrophoresis, which band is the largest?
__ 117. Due to financial reasons a family puts their child in an orphanage. Five years later they
win the lottery for $100 bizzillion dollars. They want to reunite their family. To their dismay,
the orphanage has burned down and all the records destroyed except for a list of people
who have adopted children (but not who were the original parents). They narrow down a
list of possibilities to five children based on age and sex. They then compared a restriction
digest of their DNA to the children’s DNA. Which of the children was theirs?
DAD
MOM
Child A
Child B
Child C
Child D
Child E