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Note that the numbers are not consecutive because previous exams covered different ranges of lectures.
13. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase detected the protein of their bacteriophage by incorporating radioactive isotopes of
a. nitrogen
b. carbon
c. phosphorus
d. sulfur
14. The nucleotides or monomers of DNA that have a single-ringed base are called pyrimidines and are
a. adenine and guanine
b. adenine and thymine
c. cytosine and guanine
d. cytosine and thymine
15. In addition to James Watson and Francis Crick, the Nobel Prize for solving the structure of DNA was awarded to
a. Rosalind Franklin.
b. Maurice Wilkins.
c. Alfred Hershey.
d. Erwin Chargaff.
16. The uniform diameter of 2nm for the DNA double helix first detected by Rosalind Franklin was explained by the
reliable pairing of __________ in the double-helix model of Watson and Crick.
a. adenine and guanine
b. cytosine and thymine
c. guanine and thymine
d. purines and pyrimidines
17. The process of making a mRNA copy of the DNA genetic template, transcription, is catalyzed by
a. DNA polymerase.
b. RNA polymerase.
c. reverse transcriptase.
d. ribosomes.
18. Which is NOT true of RNA molecules?
a. They contain uracil instead of thymine.
b. Their five carbon sugar is ribose.
c. They are usually double-stranded.
d. They are usually reasonably short.
19. Which does NOT occur during maturation of mRNAs in eukaryotes?
a. The introns are spliced together and the exons are discarded.
b. The exons are spliced together and the introns are discarded.
c. A G-cap is added to the 5’ or front end of the mRNA.
d. A poly-A tail is added to the 3’ or tail end of the mRNA.
20. The human genome sequence was completely determined in time for the 50 th anniversary of the publication by Watson and
Crick of DNA structure, that is in
a. 1990.
b. 1993.
c. 2000.
d. 2003.
21. Major changes in the numbers of genes in genomes are correlated with the evolution of
a. eukaryotes from prokaryotes.
b. multi-cellular organisms from single-celled ancestors.
c. mammals from earlier vertebrates.
d. huge genomes like those of crickets and lungfish.
22. If there are three codons that mean STOP in translation, how many encode amino acids?
a. 17
b. 20
c. 61
d. 64
23. How many amino acids would be translated from the following short mRNA (UGA, UAG, and UAA are stop codons)?
GCGGCAAUGUUCACGCAUCUGUCCCAUUAAGAUAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
24. An anticodon is a sequence of three bases on a ______ molecule.
a. DNA
b. mRNA
c. rRNA
d. tRNA
25. The enzyme reverse transcriptase, characteristic of retroviruses such as HIV, catalyses the conversion of
a. RNA to DNA.
b. DNA to RNA.
c. protein to DNA.
d. RNA to protein.
26. A frameshifting mutation can be caused by
a. insertion of 12 base pairs into a gene’s coding region.
b. deletion of 5 base pairs from the intron of a gene.
c. insertion of 1 base pair into a gene’s coding region.
d. deletion of 3 base pairs from a gene’s coding region.
27. The Frenchmen Jaques Monod and Francois Jacob were awared a Nobel Prize for their research on gene regulation
involving
a. the Lac operon in E. coli bacteria.
b. transcription factors in early development of Drosophila.
c. inactivation of one X chromosome in female mammals.
d. oncogenes implicated in promoting tumors and cancer.
28. In eukaryotic cells the DNA is organized into nucleosomes by a group of proteins called
a. histones.
b. hemoglobins.
c. actins.
d. myosins.
29. In female mammals one of the two X chromosomes is highly condensed and inactivated in a darkly-staining clump
that can be seen with a light microscope and is called a
a. polar body.
b. Barr body.
c. mosaic factor.
d. transcription factor.
30. Oncogenes that promote tumor and cancer formation were first identified as
a. components of cancer-causing viruses.
b. transcription factors in Drosophila.
c. proto-oncogenes in our own genome.
d. supressor genes that when inactivated by mutation prevent cell death.
31. The contribution of R plasmids to the man-made hybrid plasmids used in recombinant DNA is
a. a restriction enzyme.
b. a gene encoding a protein conferring resistance to an antibiotic.
c. genes encoding proteins allowing for conjugation between different bacteria.
d. genes encoding proteins from humans.
32. A cDNA clone would contain only the __________ of a protein-coding gene.
a. exons
b. introns
c. promoter
d. spacer
33. Short tandem repeats (microsatellites) in our genome are used in forensic DNA techniques to uniquely identify individuals.
How many such loci are typically examined for this “DNA fingerprinting” to meet FBI standards?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 13
d. 100
34. The DNA sequencing company Pacific Biosciences hopes to sequence individual human genomes for less than $10,000,
using their SMRT or single-molecule real-time technology in which
a. the Sanger sequencing technique is speeded up by automation.
b. nucleotides are visualized using radioisotope labels and X-ray film.
c. single DNA polymerase enzymes are monitored as they incorporate each nucleotide.
d. nucleotides are monitored electrically as they pass through a protein nanopore in a membrane.
35. DNA chips or microarrays can assess the expression levels of thousands of genes in a biological sample by
a. washing mRNA extracted from the sample over a glass chip with spots of mRNA from the genes.
b. washing DNA extracted from the sample over a glass chip with spots of DNA from the genes.
c. washing mRNA extracted from the sample over a glass chip with spots of DNA from the genes.
d. washing DNA extracted from the sample over a glass chip with spots of mRNA from the genes.
36. Production of human proteins from human cDNA clones in bacteria works because
a. we share the same universal genetic code.
b. the cloned human genes have been modified to be translated correctly in bacteria.
c. DNA replication in bacteria is the same as in humans.
d. bacterial genes don’t have introns.
37. Instead of using plant sugars as the starting material for producing ethanol, many researchers today wish to begin the
process with ___________ from plants.
a. starch
b. chitin
c. cellulose
d. lipids
38. Gene therapy in humans requires development of additional “vectors”, in the case of cystic fibrosis this is commonly a
a. retrovirus.
b. adenovirus.
c. transposon.
d. plasmid.
39. The resting potential of a typical neuron (the voltage difference of the inside of the cell relative to the outside) is
a. -7 millivolts
b. -70 millivolts
c. -7 volts
d. -70 volts
40. The region of a neuron that conducts signals via action potentials is the
a. dendrites.
b. cell body.
c. axon.
d. axon endings.
41. At a synapse, neurotransmitters are released from the
a. dendrites.
b. cell body.
c. axon.
d. axon endings.
42. Which is NOT a neurotransmitter?
a. potassium
b. acetylcholine
c. GABA
d. serotonin
43. Loud noises above 90 decibels can hurt your hearing primarily by damaging the
a. eardrum.
b. bones in your middle ear
c. walls of your vestibular or tympanic ducts.
d. hair cells in your cochlea.
44. Mammalian retinas contain
a. photoreceptor neurons.
b. photoreceptor neurons and bipolar interneurons.
c. photoreceptor neurons and bipolar and ganglion interneurons.
d. photoreceptor neurons, bipolar and ganglion interneurons, and at least two additional kinds of interneurons.
45. Which statement is NOT true about our retina?
a. Our blind spot results from the optic nerve exiting the eye.
b. Our fovea or central focus point has very few rod cells in it.
c. Rod cells only express rhodopsin.
d. Each cone cell has three color opsins expressed in it, one each for red, blue, and green.
46. The relatively reduced ability of humans to smell diverse chemicals results from our having
a. lost function of more than half of the typical ~1000 mammalian olfactory receptor genes.
b. less olfactory epithelium in our noses.
c. lost function completely of our vomeronasal system.
d. acquired additional taste capabilities, including umami taste.
47. The three major sections of the brain are relatively similar sized in fish, but the __________ is highly enlarged in mammals.
a. forebrain
b. midbrain
c. hindbrain
d. nobrain
48. Our hindbrain does NOT include the
a. medulla oblongata.
b. hypothalamus.
c. pons.
d. cerebellum.
49. The grey matter of the cortex of our forebrain consists of the
a. axons of sensory neurons.
b. axons of interneurons.
c. cell bodies of motorneurons.
d. cell bodies of interneurons.
50. The occipital lobe of our forebrain is primarily concerned with processing of __________ input.
a. olfactory
b. visual
c. auditory
d. touch
5. Which of the following is NOT found in the epidermis layer of our skin?
a. keratin
b. basal cells
c. capillaries
d. melanin
6. Which proteins in the vertebrate immune system are equivalent to the defensins and cecropins of insects?
a. complement proteins.
b. antibodies.
c. T-cell receptors.
d. keratins.
7. Platelets are
a. fragments of megakaryocytes.
b. immature lymphocytes.
c. over-aged red blood cells.
d. released from T lymphocytes.
8. Nonspecific immune reactions do NOT involve
a. plasma leaking out of capillaries.
b. release of histamines from mast cells.
c. recruitment of memory B cells from the spleen.
d. phagocytosis of bacterial cells.
9. In mammals, the major histocompatibility (MHC) proteins
a. are produced by white blood cells.
b. are found on the surface of every nucleated cell.
c. carry markers that signal invader.
d. are vigorously attacked by lymphocytes.
10. Antigens are
a. foreign proteins that elicit an immune response.
b. proteins that bind to molecules on the surface of pathogens and other foreign molecules.
c. present on lymphocytes.
d. a mixture of self and non-self proteins on the surface of macrophages.
11. The humoral immune response is carried out by
a. B-cells.
b. cytotoxic T-cells.
c. helper T-cells.
d. macrophages.
12. The 2nd response to a pathogen is faster and more intense because
a. T-cells have been sequestered in bone marrow as memory cells.
b. B-cells have been sequestered in as bone marrow as memory cells.
c. NK-cells have been sequestered in lymph organs as memory cells.
d. B- and T-cells have been sequestered in lymph organs as memory cells.