Download AP Biology Fall Semester Review

AP Biology Fall Semester Review
1) During the S stage of the cell cycle, the cell:
a. undergoes cytokinesis
b. undergoes meiosis
c. replicates its DNA
d. undergoes mitosis
e. enters interphase
2) If there are 12 single-chromatid chromosomes in a cell in G1 of the cell cycle, what is the
diploid number of chromosomes for the organism?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 36
e. 48
3) Which one of the following occurs during mitosis?
a. Homologous chromosomes synapse
b. Twin-chromatid chromosomes move to the poles
c. Crossing over takes place between homologous chromosomes
d. Chromosome number is reduced form diploid to haploid
e. Cells genetically identical to the parental cell are produced
4) Cytokinesis
a. always accompanies mitosis
b. occurs in animal cells by a pinching-in of the plasma membrane
c. occurs in higher-plant cells by an inward growth of new wall and membrane
d. Two of the above are correct
5) If there are 12 chromosomes in a cell that has just completed meiosis, what is the diploid
number of chromosomes for that organism?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 36
e. 48
6) Which one of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
a. Double chromatid chromosomes move to the poles
b. Chromosomes shorten and thicken and are double-stranded
c. Single-chromatid chromosomes move to the poles
d. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear
e. Centromeres divide
7) Which one of the following occurs in the first divisional sequence of meiosis?
a. Diploid daughter cells are produced
b. Single-chromatid chromosomes move to the poles
c. Centromeres divide
d. Homologous chromosomes synapse
e. Two of the above are correct
8) If a cell in the process of meiosis is haploid and its chromosomes are becoming individually
visible, which stage is it in?
a. first meiotic prophase
b. first meiotic anaphase
c. second meiotic prophase
d. second meiotic telophase
e. interkinesis
9) At what stage of cell division does synapsis occur?
a. anaphase of mitosis and meiosis
b. prophase of mitosis and meiosis
c. metaphase of mitosis and meiosis
d. prophase of mitosis and meiosis
e. metaphase of the second meiotic division
10) Which one of the following statements is false concerning meiosis?
a. DNA is replicated between each cell division
b. Each chromosome is double-stranded during prophase
c. Each chromosome pairs with a homologous chromosome during meiosis I
d. Cell division follows chromosome migration
e. Each chromosome may exchange a part of a chromosome with the equivalent part of a
homologous chromosome
11) From each primary oocyte that undergoes meiosis, the number of functional egg cells
produced is
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
e. eight
12) If the following events in the formation of the synaptonemal complex and crossing over were
arranged in order, which event would be third?
a. Homologous chromosomes are brought into the perfect alignment and protein cross bridges
perform
b. Recombination nodules appear
c. Axial proteins gather the DNA of the chromatids into paired loops
d. Chromatids from one chromosome exchange fragments with chromatids of the other
chromosome
e. Chromosomes shorten and thicken; replication has already occurred
13) Genetic recombination occurs during
a. mitosis
b. first division of meiosis
c. second division of meiosis
d. crossing over
e. b and d are correct
14) Each centromere sends kinetochore microtubules toward both poles during
a. mitosis
b. first divisional sequence of meiosis
c. second divisional sequence of meiosis
d. a and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct.
15) Suppose the diploid chromosome number of a particular organism is 10. How many different
chromosomal combinations could be produced by meiosis in this organism (i.e. how many
different kinds of gametes could be formed)? Exclude combinations resulting from crossing over.
a. 5
b. 16
c. 25
d. 32
e. 64
Below are listed some of the important events that led to our present knowledge of
the nature of the gene and its action. Match each of these with the investigators
associated with it.
A. Feulgen
B. Chargraff
C. Griffith
D. Hershey and Chase
E. Meselson and Stahl
F. Watson and Crick
G. Franklin
16) Proposal of double-helix model of DNA
17) Transformation of bacteria by material extracted from heat-killed virulent cells
18) Infection of bacteria using radioactively labeled bacteriophage
19) Discovery that in any DNA the amount of A equals the amount of T and the amount of G
equals the amount of C
20) X-ray diffraction studies of DNA
21) Use of 15N-labeled DNA to obtain evidence in support of the Watson-Crick mechanism of
DNA replication.
Match each item below with the appropriate term. A term may be used once or not at
all.
a. sugar-phosphate groups
b. purine(s)
c. pyrimidines(s)
d. covalent bonds
e. hydrogen bonds
22)
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
backbone of the DNA molecule
forces between the two polynucleotide chains
single-ring nitrogenous bases
double-ring nitrogenous bases
adenine and guanine
cytosine and thymine
28) All of the following statements are compatible with the concept that DNA is the genetic
material except:
a. DNA content of nuclei in any one species is constant in every cell but the gametes, which have
only half the usual amount in their nuclei.
b. Each species has equal amounts of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine.
c. DNA content of the nuclei doubles before division
d. Only the DNA of a bacteriophage enters a new host bacterium.
29) A nucleic acid is composed of a chain of nucleotides. Nucleotides themselves are made of
three components. Which of these components could be removed from a nucleotide that is part
of a nucleic acid chain without breaking the chain?
a. sugar
b. phosphate
c. nitrogenous base
30) The structure of DNA as proposed by Crick and Watson depended on all of the following
observations except:
a. that DNA is capable of replicating itself precisely
b. that DNA base sequences vary from organism to organism
c. that DNA contains nitrogenous bases, sugars, and phosphates’
d. X-ray periodicities of 3.4mm, 2mm, and 0.34mm
e. Chargaff’s finding that DNA contained equal amounts of A and T nucleotides and G and C
nucleotides
31) A parent molecule of DNA containing only radioactive nitrogen 15N is placed in an
environment containing only 14N. After four replications, how many DNA molecules would still
contain some 15N?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. 16
32) If a segment of nucleic acid is CATCATTAC, the complementary DNA strand is:
a. CATTACTAC
b. CAUCAUUAC
c. GUAGUAAUG
d. GTAGTAATG
e. CUACUACAT
33) The DNA of a certain organism has guanine as 30 percent of its bases. What percentage of
its bases would be adenine?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
e. 50
34) Suppose that you provide an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria with radioactive
thymine. What would you expect to happen if a cell replicated its DNA and divided once in the
presence of the radioactive base?
a. One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA
b. Neither daughter cell would have radioactive DNA
c. All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive
d. Radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive guanine
e. DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive
35) Which one of the following statements best describes the replication of DNA?
a. The double helix is cleaved at the phosphate bonds and new nucleotides pair with the
appropriate sugars
b. The hydrogen bonds between the bases are broken and new nucleotides pair with
complementary bases on the old strands
c. The hydrogen bonds between the bases are broken and these bases are replaced by new
ones.
d. New bases are added to the 5’ carbon on the sugar so that DNA synthesis occurs in a 3’ to 5’
direction
e. DNA is cleaved by DNA polymerases and new nucleotides are assembled by ligases
36) Which of the following statements about DNA structure and replication in prokaryotes and
cell organelles is correct?
a. There is a single circular chromosome composed of DNA
b. Chromosomes are wound around nucleosome cores.
c. Replication begins at multiple initiation sites.
d. Chromosomes line up in the center of the cell during replication
e. Cell organelle DNA encodes all of the proteins the organelle needs.
37) A mutation that cannot be detected by the repair enzymes is:
a. substitution of a guanine for an adenine
b. fusion of two thymines
c. misalignment between a series of adenines and thymines
d. a cytosine that has been modified to form a thymine
e. conversion of cytosine to uracil
For the next series of questions, indicate whether the structural or functional features are
true for:
a. DNA only
b. RNA only
c. both DNA and RNA
d. neither DNA nor RNA
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
43)
44)
45)
46)
47)
48)
is usually single-stranded
contains pyrimidines
contains deoxyribose
is coiled in a double helix
contains thymine
contains cytosine
contains uracil
brings amino acids to the ribosome
is present in the ribosome
is involved is transcription
is involved in translation
49) Fill in the blanks
DNA (strand 1)
TGT _ _ _ _ _ _
DNA (strand 2)
_ _ A C_ _ _ _ _
mRNA (from strand 2) U _ _ _CA _ _ _
tRNA anticodons
_ _ _ _ _ _ GCA
For the following questions, indicate whether the structural or functional features are true
for:
a
b
c
d
e
mRNA only
rRNA only
tRNA only
all RNA
no RNA
50)
51)
52)
53)
54)
Has an anticodon at one end and a binding site for an amino acid at the other.
Forms parts of the ribosome.
Serves as a template for protein synthesis.
Is synthesized from a DNA template in the nucleus.
Carries the code for a particular protein to the ribosome.
55) Which of the following steps of transcription occurs in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a. A length of mRNA is “tagged” to produce the primary transcript.
b. mRNA crosses the nuclear envelope to reach the ribosomes.
c. Exons are snipped out from the primary transcript.
d. Exons are bonded together to make the mRNA that will be transcribed.
e. RNA polymerase bonds to the promoter on the DNA.
56) All of the following are true about the termination signal in transcription except that:
a. the termination signal is followed by a sequence of adenines.
b. a string of relatively weak A-U bonds between the DNA template and mRNA transcript allows
the transcript to separate from the DNA.
c. a hairpin loop puts physical stress on the enzyme complex and cause transcription to speed
up.
d. the termination signal is a nucleotide sequence on the DNA that tells the RNA polymerase
when to stop transcribing.
e. the termination signal causes mRNA to form a hairpin loop.
57) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between the primary mRNA
transcript and functional mRNA?
a. the primary transcript goes to the nucleus, where it is snipped and pasted to become
functional mRNA.
b. the primary transcript must have both the “tagged” ends and introns removed in order to
become functional mRNA.
c. the primary transcript must be activated by ATP to become functional mRNA
d. the introns are removed from the primary transcript and the remaining pieces spliced together
to form functional mRNA
e. Introns are snipped out of the primary transcript and ligated together to form functional mRNA
58) One strand of DNA molecule has the sequence of bases:
3’ TACCTTCAGCGT 5’
a. What is the sequence of bases on the complementary strand of DNA?
b. What is the sequence of bases on the strand of mRNA that is synthesized from the original
stand?
c. Name the organelle where synthesis of mRNA takes place.
d. How many different codons are there in this strand?
e. Name the organelle where the codon and anticodon couplings take place.
59) If mRNA is transcribed from a chain of DNA with the base sequence 3’ CATTAG 5’, the mRNA
will have the sequence
a. GUAAUC
b. GTAATC
c. TGCCGA
d. TUCCUA
e. GTUUTC
60) DNA, but not RNA, contains
a. adenine
b. guanine
c. thymine
d. cytosine
e. uracil
61) Transfer RNA functions in
a. carrying RNA from the ribosomes to mRNA
b. attaching RNA to the ribosomes
c. joining proteins to form the ribosomes
d. carrying mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
e. carrying amino acids to the correct site on the mRNA
Questions 62-64 refer to the following
segment of a base sequence of a gene: 3’ ACGTGCCCGGAT 5’
62) How many amino acids would the polypeptide encoded by this gene segment have?
a. 1
2. 3
c. 4
d. 12
e. 36
63) The second codon on the mRNA derived from the segment will be
a. TAC
b. ACG
c. ATG
d. CAC
e. UGC
64) The anticodon of the tRNA for the first codon will be
a. TCG
b. ACG
c. TCG
d. UGC
e. GCA
Questions 65-67 refer to the following
short mRNA sequence: 5’ AUGCCCUACUAC 3”
65) The sequence of the template stand of DNA of the gene that codes for this message will be
(assume 3’ end is at the left side in the answers)
a. AUGCCCAACUAC
b. TACGGGATGATG
c. UTGCCCUUCTAC
d. UACGGGUUGAUG
e. ATGCCCTACTAC
66) The anticodon in the tRNA that attaches to the first codon will be
a. UAC
b. TAC
c. AUG
d. GUA
e. ATG
67) The protein coded for by this message will have ________ amino acids
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 12
68) Which of the following statements is false?
a. tRNA binds to an amino acid and activates it with the energy from ATP
b. In base substitution mutations only a single nucleotide of a gene is altered
c. Molecules of mRNA are synthesized on the ribosomes from the nucleotides brought by tRNA
d. Some amino acids are specified by several “synonymous” codons
69) Though a gene codes ultimately for all aspects of a proteins structure, it codes directly only
for
a. primary structure
b. secondary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. quaternary structure
70) As proteins are being synthesized, tRNA molecules are constantly being released from the
site of amino acid incorporation. What happens to these tRNA molecules?
a. They return to the nucleus and bind to the DNA again
b. They are used to code for synthesis of a protein
c. They immediately bind to another mRNA
d. They pick up another amino acid of the same type that they had before
e. They pick up an amino acid of another type, specifically the amino acid coded for by the codon
next to the one to which they originally bound
71) Which of the following statements about ribosomes and protein synthesis are false?
a. Ribosomes are made of rRNA, enzymes, and proteins.
b. After the small ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA, the large subunit can bind, forming the
functional ribosome
c. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) codes for the proteins that make up ribosomes.
d. Proteins synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum usually do not stay in the cytosol.
e. The large ribosomal subunit has two sites for the bonding of tRNA.
72) The direction of transfer of genetic information in most living organisms is:
a. protein>DNA>mRNA
b. DNA>mRNA> protein
c. DNA>tRNA>protein
d. Protein>tRNA>DNA
e. RNA>DNA>mRNA>protein
73) A certain prokaryotic gene codes for a polypeptide that is 126 amino acids long. The
terminal methionine has been removed. The portion of the gene that codes for this polypeptide,
not including introns, is probably how many nucleotides long?
a. 42
b. 126
c. 252
d. 381
e. 504
74) Suppose a gene has the DNA nucleotide sequence:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
3’ C T G G C A T G C T T C G G A A A 5’
(No real gene could be this short, but for our purposes this will suffice.) Which one of the following
mutations would probably have the greatest change in the activity of the protein for which this gene codes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
substitution of A for G in position 3
deletion of the C at position 5
deletion of the A at position 16
addition of a G between positions 14 and 15
75) An intron is:
a. a foreign RNA sequence inserted in the normal message for a protein
b. an RNA sequence that is edited from a transcript before translation
c. a DNA sequence that is used to link a plasmid with a foreign DNA
d. a DNA sequence that codes for the protein product of the gene
e. a DNA sequence that is not transcribed
76) In the lactose operon system in E. coli, the suppressor is
a. a product of a structural genome locus
b. bound to the promoter sequence
c. lactose
d. protein
e. a short length of DNA
77) Which of the following statements concerning the regulator gene (R) associated with the lac
operon is correct?
a. mRNA is transcribed from the R gene whether or lactose is present or not
b. mRNA is transcribed from the R gene only when lactose is present
c. mRNA is transcribed from the R gene only when lactose is not present
d. Lactose inhibits the translation of R gene in mRNA
e. Lactose binds to the promoter of the lac operon
78) According to the Jacob-Monod (lac operon) model of the gene regulation inducer substances
in bacterial cells probably
a. combine with operator regions, activating the associated operons
b. combine with structural genes, stimulating them to synthesize messenger RNA
c. combine with repressor proteins, inactivating them
d. combine with promoter regions activating RNA polymerase
e. combine with the nucleoli, triggering production of more ribosomes
79) The promoter region of a bacterial operon
a. codes for the repressor proteins
b. codes for the inducer substances
c. codes for the corepressor substances
d. is a binding site for inducers
e. is a binding site for RNA polymerase
80) The regulator gene of a bacterial operon
a. codes for the inducer substances
b. codes for the repressor proteins
c. acts ad an on-off switch for the structural genes
d. is a binding site for RNA polymerase
e. is a binding site for inducers
81) The sugar lactose induces synthesis of the enzyme lactase. What happens when E. coli
(bacterial) cell runs out of lactose?
a. Repressor protein binds to the operator
b. Repressor protein binds to the promoter
c. RNA polymerase attaches to the promoter
d. RNA polymerase attaches to the repressor
82) The lac operon is an example of
a. translation control
b. post-transcriptional control
c. replicational control
d. transcriptional control
e. positive control
83) In the lac operon, RNA polymerase
a. binds to the promoter
b. binds to the operator
c. binds to the regulator gene
d. is synthesized by the regulator gene
e. binds to regulator protein
84) In bacteria, the structural genes can be turned off when
a. the end product of a reaction combines with the repressor protein and activates it
b. the substrate combines with a repressor protein and inactivates it
c. the substrate combines with the promoter
d. the substrate combines with its enzyme and produces a repressor molecule
e. the cAMP-CAP complex binds to the promoter
85) In the tryptophan operon of E. coli, the end product of the biochemical pathway, tryptophan,
binds to the repressor protein, which then binds to the
a. promoter to inhibit transcription
b. promoter to accelerate transcription
c. operator to inhibit transcription
d. operator to accelerate transcription
e. repressor gene to accelerate transcription
86) Nucleosomes
a. are composed of DNA and histones
b. are small particles found in only the nuclei of plant cells
c. disappear during transcription
d. play a role in coiling and uncoiling the chromosomes
e. two of the above are correct
87) When a virulent phage attacks a bacterial cell,
a. only the DNA is injected into the cell
b. both the DNA and the protein coat enter the cell
c. a plasmid in injected into the cell
d. the DNA becomes integrated into the host cell chromosome
e. the cell enters the lysogenic cycle
88) A plasmid is
a. a fragment of bacterial chromosomes
b. a portion of a bacteriophage
c. self-replicating nonchromosomal circle of DNA
d. a virus that infects bacteria
e. formed from the DNA of a lysogenic virus
89) Bacteria that harbor a provirus are said to be
a. lytic
b. lysogenic
c. F+
d. virulent
e. transformed
90) The retroviruses
a. synthesize cDNA from the viral RNA
b. replicate their RNA using the enzyme RNA replicase
c. always cause lysis of the host cell
d. consistent of single-stranded DNA surrounded b a protein coat
91) The process by which a virus transfers genes from one bacterial cell to another is called
a. transformation
b. translation
c. transcription
d. transduction
e. transformed
92) Restriction endonucleases are useful in the recombinant DNA technique because they
a. cut DNA at specific sites
b. restrict the number of nucleotides that can be removed at one time
c. restore the bonds in the DNA backbone
d. synthesize cDNA from mRNA
e. can be used to locate genes for mapping
93) A genetic engineer prepares DNA fragments from two species and mixes them together. Two
of the many fragments are shown below. Which one of the following statements is correct?
__________
__________________________
TTCC
____________ATCG
________________
a. no sticky ends were produced
b. the two fragments shown above will join by complementary base pairing
c. the two fragments were prepared by two different restriction endonucleases
d. a single restriction endonucleases was used to cut at different locations in the two types of
DNA
94) If you were to arrange the following steps in gene cloning in order, which step would be
third?
a. a cDNA copy of mRNA is made using reverse transcriptase and the DNA strand replicated
b. the plasmid is inserted into the bacterial host cell
c. mRNA molecules coding for the desired product are isolated
d. Restriction endonucleases are used to cut DNA and plasmid, producing sticky ends
e. the plasmid DNA and the cloned gene are joined and sealed by ligase