Download NEHRU ARTS AND SCIENCE COLLEGE, TM PALAYALAM

NEHRU ARTS AND SCIENCE COLLEGE, TM PALAYALAM, COIMBATORE - 105
II B.SC., MICROBIOLOGY (BATCH 2015-2018)
MICROBIAL PHYSIOLOGY
Unit 1
Section-A
1. Bacteria that can synthesise all their organic compounds are called:
A. Phototrophs
B. Chemotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. heterotrophs
2. Organisms that are ordinarily aerobic but can grow in the absence of oxygen are called:
A. Aerobes
B. Facultative anaerobes
C. Anaerobes D. Obligate anaerobes
3. The process by which complex organic compounds, such as glucose, are broken down by the
action of enzymes into simpler compounds without the use of oxygen is called:
A. Fermentation
B. Substrate-level phosphorylation
C. Oxidative phosphorylation
D. Photosynthesis
4. Organisms which are mesophilic grow at:
A. Temperature of 0-20ºC
B. Temperature of 50-60ºC.
C. Temperature of 25-40ºC
D. Concentration of 5-10% CO2
5. In the bacterial growth curve, the phase in which there is an exponential increase in the
number of cells is:
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Phase of decline
6. If photosynthesizing green algae are provided with CO2 synthesized with heavy oxygen
(18O), later analysis will show that all but one of the following compounds produced by the
algae contain the 18O label. That one is
A) PGA.
B) PGAL.
C) glucose.
D) O2
7. Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in
the Calvin cycle?
A) CO2 and glucose
B) H2O and O2
C) ADP, Pi, and NADP+
D) ATP and NADPH
8. What are the products of the light reactions that are subsequently used by the Calvin cycle?
A) oxygen and carbon dioxide B) carbon dioxide and RuBP
C) water and carbon
D) electrons and photons E) ATP and NADPH
9. Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
A) stroma of the chloroplast
B) thylakoid membrane
C) cytoplasm surrounding the Chloroplast
D) chlorophyll molecule
10. In any ecosystem, terrestrial or aquatic, what group(s) is (are) always necessary?
A) autotrophs and heterotrophs
B) producers and primary consumers
C) photosynthesizers
D) autotrophs
11. In autotrophic bacteria, where are the enzymes located that can carry on organic synthesis?
A) Chloroplast membranes
B) nuclear membranes
C) free in the cytosol
D) along the inner surface of the plasma membrane
12. When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a by-product of which of the
following?
A) reducing NADP+
B) splitting the water molecules
C) chemiosmosis
D) the electron B transfer system of photosystem - I
13. A plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish
yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are being absorbed by this pigment?
A) red and yellow
B) blue and violet
C) green and yellow D) blue, green, and red B
14. What did Engelmann conclude about the congregation of bacteria in the red and blue areas?
A) Bacteria released excess carbon dioxide in these areas
B) Bacteria congregated in these areas due to an increase in the temperature of the red and
blue light
C) Bacteria congregated in these areas because these areas had the most oxygen being
released
D) Bacteria are attracted to red and blue light and thus these wavelengths are more reactive
than other wavelengths
15. If you ran the same experiment without passing light through a prism, what would you
predict?
A) There would be no difference in results.
B) The bacteria would be relatively evenly distributed along the algal filaments.
C) The number of bacteria present would decrease due to an increase in the carbon dioxide
concentration
D) The number of bacteria present would increase due to an increase in the carbon dioxide
Concentration
16. Light behaves not only as waves, but also as particles, which are referred to as:
A. electrons
B. protons
C. photons
D. radiation
17. The most important photosynthetic pigment(s) is (are):
A. carotenoids
B. xanthophylls
C.chlorophyll a.
D. All of these
18. Which of the following is not associated with the thylakoid membranes?
A. photosystems I and II
B. The Calvin cycle
C. electron transport chain
D. antenna complex
19. The pinocytosis is otherwise called as _______________
20. The word "oligotroph" means
A. Greek oligo meaning few B.Trophikos meaning "feeding" C. None of the above
D. Both a and b
21. Oligotrophic environments include
A. Deep oceanic sediments
B. Caves, glacial and polar ice, deep sub surface
C. Soil, Ocean waters, and leached soils
D. All the above
22. _____________ is the bacteria which can live abundant in the ocean
A. Pelagibacter ubique
B. Helicobacter
C. Citrobacter
D.Campylobacters
23. Enzymes catalyzing electron transport are present mainly in the
A. Ribosomes
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Lysosomes
D. Inner mitochondrial membrane
24. Fatty acids can be transported into and out of cell membrane by
A. Active transport
B. Facilitated transport
C. Diffusion
D. Osmosis
25. Which of the following is located in the mitochondria?
A. Cytochrome oxidase
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
D. All of these
Section - B
1. Differentiate between Photoautotrophs and Chemoautotrophs
2. Comment on nutrition of oligotrophs
3. Differentiate between autotrophs and heterotrophs
4. Comment on Copiotrophs
5. Explain about Active transport
Section - C
1. Discuss the role of major nutrients in microbial physiology and growth
2. Write a detailed account on nutritional types of microorganisms with examples
3. Compare the physiology of Chemoautotrophs and photoautotrophs
4. Write in detail about transport of nutrients in the cell.
Unit – II
Section - A
1. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a growth curve?
A. Shows development of microbial population under relatively stable environmental
conditions
B. Plotted with logarithmic numbers
C. Graphs numbers of microbes versus time
D. Each growth curve consists of four distinct phases
2. Generation time of Escherichia coli is ____________
A. 20 minutes
B. 20 hours
C. 20 days
D. 200 hours
3. The organism which obtain their energy from chemicals are designated as
A. prototrophs
B. chemotrophs
C. organotrophs
D. autotrophs
4. Nutrient content and biological structures are considered as ____________
A. implicit factor for microbial growth
B. intrinsic factor for microbial growth
C. processing factor
D. none of the above
5. The organism which grows best above 45°C are called _______________
A. psychrophilic
B. mesosphilic
C. thermophilic
D. any of these
6. Implicit factors
A. depend on developing microflora
B. can be synergistic
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
7. Lag phase is also known as ___________
A. period of initial adjustment
B. transitional period
C. generation time
D. none of these
8. Which of the following is used to grow bacterial cultures continuously?
A. Chemostat
B. Coulter Counter C. Hemostat
D. Petroff Hausser chamber
9. A microbe, which grows at temperatures above 95° C is most likely to be _____________
A. an archaean
B. a fungus
C. a protozoan
D. none of these
10. Some organisms can use reduced inorganic compounds as electron donors and are termed as
A. lithotrophs
B.phototrophs
C. chemotrophs
D.photoorganotrophs
11. The total biomass of an organism will be determined by the nutrient present in the
lowest concentration relative to the organism's requirements is a statement of
A. Liebig's law of the minimum
B. Shelford's law of tolerance
C. quorum sensing
D. Heisenberg's principle of uncertainty
12. The growth is normally expressed as __________ in turbidimetric measurement
A. cells per ml
B. cfu/ml
C. optical density
D. mg N2 /ml
13. Which of the following organisms typically get their carbon for biosynthesis from CO2?
A. Glucose fermenting bacteria (fermentation)
B. Anaerobic, glucose respiring bacteria (anaerobic respiration)
C. Aerobic, glucose respiring bacteria (aerobic respiration)
D. Ammonia oxidizing bacteria (chemolithotrophic bacteria)
14. An organism that expends energy to grow in a habitat with a low water activity in order to
maintain internal solute concentrations to retain water is
A. osmotolerant
B. acidophile
C. aerotolerant anaerobe
D. alkalophile
15. The straightforward method of binary fission explains how bacteria
A. grow in nutrient agar
B. evolve
C. move
D. reproduce
16. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
A. Osmosis
B . Diffusion [True]
C. Active transport
D . Phagocytosis
17. Thirty six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of sample withdrawn from a solution
diluted to 105 in a standard plate count procedure. How many cells were in the original
sample?
A) 360
B) 3,600
C)360,000
D) 3,600,000
18. Which of the following is the best definition of generation time?
A)The length of time it takes for lag phase
B)The length of time it takes for a population of cells to double
C)The maximum rate of doubling divided by the initial count
D)The duration of log phase
19. Which section shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying is greater than the
number of cells dividing?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
20. Which section shows a growth phase where the cells dividing at their maximum rate of
division?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
21. An organism has an optimal growth rate when the hydrogen ion concentration is very high.
This organism is a(n)________________
A. Osmotolerant
B. Acidophile
C. Neutrophile
D. aerotolerant anaerobe
22. Starvation proteins are produced by a culture during which of the following parts of the
growth curve?
A. Lag phase
B. Exponential phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Balanced growth phase
23. An organism that expends energy to grow in a habitat with a low water activity in order to
maintain internal solute concentrations to retain water is
A. osmotolerant
B. acidophile
C. neutrophile
D. aerotolerant anaerobe
24. A bacterial population increases from 100 to 100,000,000 in 15 hours. What is the generation
time of this culture?
A. 30 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 2 hours
25. An organism has an optimal growth rate when the hydrogen ion concentration is very high.
his organism is a(n) ______________
A. osmotolerant
B. acidophile
C. neutrophile
D. aerotolerant anaerobe
Section - B
1. Explain the physiology of exponential phase cells
2. Write short notes on synchronous growth of bacteria
3. Write a brief account on reasons for decline phases in growth curve
4. Comment on diauxic growth of bacteria
5. Explain the physiology of cells in different phases of growth
Section – C
1. Discuss the factors influencing microbial growth
2. Explain continuous cultivation of bacteria in chemostat
3. Give an account on bacterial growth curve
Unit - III
Section-A
1. Which of the following is not an amino acid?
(a) glutamic acid
(b) aspartic acid
(c) glutamine
(d) palmitic acid
2. What type of covalent bonds link the amino acids in a protein?
(a) peptide bonds (b) hydrogen bonds (c). ionic bonds
(d) glycosidic bonds
3. Letter “a” is pointing to the location of the ________________
(a) citric acid cycle (b) glycolysis reactions (c) calvin cycle
(d) electron transport chain
4. Which of the following factors can affect enzyme activity?
(a) temperature
(b) pH
(c) the presence of certain metal ions
(d) the addition or removal of phosphate
5. Prosthetic groups are:
(a) required by all enzymes in the cell
(b) loosely bound to enzymes via hydrogen bonds
(c) sites on the enzyme molecule that permit allosteric modification of enzyme activity
(d) linked to phosphate groups
6. HDL is synthesized and secreted from ______________
(a) Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c) Kidney
(d) Muscle
7. Kinase reactions:
(a) inhibit ATP breakdown
(b) involve the addition or removal of a phosphate group
(c) involve the addition or removal of a ketone group
(d) involve the addition or removal of an amino acid to a polypeptide chain
8. The energy for all forms of muscle contraction is provided by:
(a) ATP
(b) ADP
(c) phosphocreatine
(d) oxidative phosphorylation
9. For very high force contractions lasting 1-2 seconds, the initial energy source is from:
(a) glycolysis
(b) creatine phosphorylation (c) phosphocreatine stores (d) ATP stores
10. Anaerobic metabolism refers to the generation of ATP:
(a) without the involvement of ADP
(b) without the use of glycogen
(c) without the use of oxygen
(d) in the absence of available oxygen
11. The most rapid method to resynthesise ATP during exercise is through:
(a) glycolysis
(b) phosphocreatine breakdown
(c) tricarboxylic acid cycle (Krebs’ cycle)
(d) glycogenolysis
12. In general, the higher the intensity of exercise, the greater the proportional contribution of:
(a) aerobic energy production
(b) anaerobic energy production
(c) TCA cycle to the production of ATP (d) the electron transfer chain to production of ATP
13. The energy charge of the cell is:
(a) the difference between the charge on the outside and inside of a cell
(b) generated by the sodium-potassium ATPase
(c) the overall rate of energy use by the cell
(d) the extent to which the total adenine nucleotide pool is phosphorylated
14.
The energy released from the breakdown of the high-energy phosphates, ATP and
phosphocreatine, can sustain maximal exertion exercise for about:
(a) 1-2 seconds
(b) 5-10 seconds
(c) 30-40 seconds
(d) 50-60 seconds
15. Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the conversion of:
(a) glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate
(b) glycogen or glucose to fructose
(c) glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate
(d) glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or acetyl CoA
16. The conversion of one molecule of glucose to two molecules of pyruvate results in the net
formation of:
(a) six molecules of water
(b) two molecules of ATP
(c) three molecules of ATP
(d) thirty-eight molecules of ATP
17. The complete resynthesis of phosphor creatine after very high intensity exercise
normally takes:
(a) about 10 seconds
(b) about 30 seconds
(c) about 1 minute
(d) about 4 minutes
18. The enzymes of glycolysis are located in the:
(a) mitochondrion
(b) nucleus
(c) cytoplasm
(d) lysosomes
19. Glycogen breakdown in exercising muscle is activated by:
(a) insulin
(b) cortisol
(c) increased pH
(d) amylase
20. Hydrogen ions are formed when:
(a) glycogen becomes depleted
(b) phosphocreatine breakdown occurs
(c) pyruvate is converted to lactate
(d) pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA
21. The net production of ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis is:
(a) 2 from glucose and 3 from glycogen
(c) 3 from glucose and 4 from glycogen
(b) 2 from glucose and 4 from glycogen
(d) 3 from glucose and 2 from glycogen
22. Which of the following generates free glucose during the enzymatic breakdown of
glycogen in skeletal muscle?
(a) phosphorylase
(b) debranching enzyme
(c) 1-6-amyloglucosidase
(d) amylase
23. The rate of blood lactate accumulation is determined by:
(a) the rate of muscle lactate production and the rate of muscle lactate efflux
(b) the rate of anaerobic glycolysis
(c) the rate of muscle glucose uptake
(d) the rate of muscle glycogen depletion
24. Embedded in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion are:
(a) the enzymes of the tricarboxylic acid cycle (Krebs’ cycle)
(b) the components of the electron transport chain
(c) glycogen molecules
(d) triacylglycerol molecules
25. Glucose enters muscle cells mostly by:
(a) simple diffusion
(b) facilitated diffusion using a specific glucose transporter
(c) co-transport with sodium (d) co-transport with amino acids
Section- B
1. Compare EMP and HMP pathways
2. Write a brief account on Coenzymes on electron transport chain
3. Write the significance of TCA cycle
4. Comment on Cytochromes
5. Explain ATP synthesis in substrate level physophorylation
Section-C
1. Discuss HMP pathways and its importance
2. Discuss the influencing of salt concentration and nutrients on microbial growth
3. Describe the different phases of growth curve with illustrations
Unit - IV
Section -A
1. Which of the following is not true of glycolysis?
(A) ADP is phosphorylated to ATP via substrate level Phosphorylation
(B) The pathway does not require oxygen
(C) pathway oxidizes two moles of NADH to NAD+ for each mole of glucose that enters
(D) Pathway oxidizes three moles of NADH
2. The glycolytic pathway (glucose 2 pyruvate) is found
(A) in all living organisms (B) only in eukaryotes (C) only in yeast (D) Only in Prokaryotes
3. During glycolysis, the major energy generating step involves
(A) pyruvate kinase
(B) phosphoglycerate kinase
(C) glyceraldehyde-3 –dehydrogenase
(D) glyceraldehyde-3 – hydrogenase
4. In what form does the product of glycolysis enter the TCA cycle?
(A) Acetyl CoA
(B) Pyruvate
(C) NAD
(D) NADH
5. To stop ATP synthesis which chemical is generally used?
(A) DNSA
(B) 2,4 dinitrophenol
(C) DDT
(D) DD
6. Which steps in glycolysis require the input of energy?
(A) the glucose priming steps
(B) the phosphorylation of fructose 6-phosphate
(C) All of the steps require the input of energy
(D) glucose secondary steps
7. The hexose monophosphate shunt is:
(A) Found mostly in the mitochondria of muscle cells
(B) Found in the cytosol of all cells
(C) Found mostly in the cytosol of cells that rely heavily upon anaerobic glycolysis
(D) Found usually in the cell
8. The first substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis
(A) Produces 3-phosphoglycerate as a product
(B) Produces ADP from AMP
(C) Is called Phosphofructokinase
(D). Produces ADP from ATP
9. The two major factors determining whether a cell oxidizes glucose by aerobic glycolysis or
by anaerobic glycolysis are
(A) NADH and the ATP/ADP ratio
(B) Oxygen pressure and the number of mitochondria
(C) FADH2 and the number of mitochondria
(D). NAD and NADH
10. Oxidizing which of the following substances yields the most energy?
(A) glucose
(B) fatty acids
(C) water
(D) Acid
11. How many molecules of ATPs are synthesized per NADH oxidation?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 5
12. Phosphofructokinase, the major flux-controlling enzyme of glycolysis is allosterically
inhibited and activated respectively by
(A) ATP and PEP
(B) AMP and Pi
(C) ATP and ADP
(D) NAD and NADH
13. Which of these enzyme reactions in glycolysis is reversible?
(A) Hexokinase
(B) glucokinase
(C) phosphoglycerate kinase
(D) none
14. How many molecules of CO2 are produced for each molecule of glucose that passes through
glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 4
15. The electrons generated from the Krebs cycle are transferred to ____________ and then are
shuttled to _______________
(A) NAD+ / oxygen
(B) NAD+ / electron transport chain
(C) NADH / oxygen
(D) FAD/hydrogen
16. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is a multienzyme complex that catalyzes a series of reactions.
Which of the following is not carried out by pyruvate dehydrogenase?
(A) decarboxylation reaction
(B) the production of ATP
(C) producing an acetyl group from Pyruvate
(D) the production of ATP
17. After a 24 hour fast, the maintenance of blood glucose is largely a result of the change in the
insulin to glucagon ratio. All of the following help to explain this mechanism EXCEPT:
(A) More free fatty acid is mobilized from adipose tissue
(B) Oxaloacetate is used as the principal source of energy to drive gluconeogenesis
(C) More glycerol is mobilized from adipose tissue
(D) few fatty acid is mobilized
18. After ingestion of a high carbohydrate meal, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
(A) Glucose transport into muscle and adipose tissue is increased
(B)Glucose uptake by the brain is increased
(C) Glucose storage in glycogen is increased
(D) Glucose storage in glycogen is decreased
19. During catabolism, only about 40% of the energy available from oxidizing glucose is used to
synthesize ATP. Remaining 60%
(A) is lost as heat
(B) is used to reduce NADP
(C) remains in the products of metabolism
(D) Temperature is reduced
20. Why does the glycolytic pathway continue in the direction of glucose catabolism?
(A) There are essentially three irreversible reactions that act as the driving force for the
Pathway
(B) High levels of ATP keep the pathway going in a forward direction
(C) The enzymes of glycolysis only function in one direction
(D) glycolytic pathway stop
21. Coenzyme Q is involved in electron transport as
(A) directly to O2
(B) a lipid-soluble electron carrier
(C) a water-soluble electron donor
(D) irreversible to O2
22. Which of the following is not a feature of oxidative phosphorylation?
(A) Direct transfer of phosphate from a substrate molecule to ADP
(B) An electro chemical gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane
(C) A membrane bound ATP synthase
(D) Indirect transfer of substrate
23. During electron transport, protons are pumped out of the mitochondrion at each of the major
sites except for
(A) complex - I
(B) Complex - II
(C) Complex - III
(D) Complex - IV
24. Which is the total yield of ATP in TCA cycle in eukaryote cells?
(A) 30
(B) 34
(C) 38
(D) 39
25. Only partial breakdown of glucose molecule (C6H12O6) takes place in
(A) aerobic respiration
(B) passive respiration
(C) anaerobic respiration
(D) Active respiration
Section - B
1. Write the significance of nitrate respiration
2. Explain the mixed acid fermentation
3. Comment on denitrification process
4. Define fermentation and name three fermenting organisms
5. Write a brief account on propionic acid fermentation
Section – C
1. Explain anaerobic respiration in which sulphate is the final electron acceptor
2. Discuss the alcoholic fermentation by yeast
3.Compare anaerobic respiration and fermentation in microorganisms
Unit – V
Section - A
1. Which of the following is not a product of fermentation?
(A) CO2
(B) O2
(C) ethanol
(D) Carbon
2. The usefulness of fermentation as a means of deriving energy is limited because
(A) it cannot generate enough ATP
(B) it produces too much NH2
(C) the end products are toxic to the producer
(D) None of the above
3. What substance is regenerated by fermentation?
(A) NAD+
(B) ATP
(C) glucose
(D) None
4.The final electron acceptor in lactic acid fermentation is
(A) NAD+ (B) pyruvate (C) lactic acid (D) None of the above Ans:B
5. When energy-depleted elements associated with a proton are accepted by an organic
molecule, the process is called
(A) fermentation
(B) anaerobic
(C) aerobic
(D) Conversion of acid in to alcohol
6. An example of anaerobic would be
(A) production of sulfates from H2S
(B) production of methane by methanogens
(C) utilization of methane by methanogens
(D) utilization of methane
7. Cramps during exercise are caused by:
(A) chemiosmosis
(B) lactic acid fermentation
(C) alcohol fermentation
(D). dehydration of water
8. Digestive reactions where large molecules are broken down into smaller ones are referred as
(A) anabolism
(B) catabolism
(C) metabolism
(D). Both A and B
9. Aerobic catabolism of glucose yields how much energy (ATP synthesized) relative to glucose
fermentation?
(A) Slightly less
(B) More than 10 times as much
(C) About the same
(D) More than 15 times
10. Most of the energy in aerobic respiration of glucose is captured by
(A) substrate-level phosphorylation
(B) electron transport of electrons from NADH
(C) long-chain fatty acid oxidation
(D) Short chain fatty acid
11. Biomass concentrations during fermentation is
(A) diluting the samples to optical density less than 0.3
(B) monitored by controlling the changes in biomass concentrations
(C) dilute the sample
(D) all of the above
12. In aerobic respiration, the terminal electron acceptor is
(A) oxygen
(B) nitrogen
(C) hydrogen
(D) Carbon
13.Most bacterial fermentations yield how many NET ATP molecules per molecule of glucose?
(A) 2
(B) 36
(C) 4
(D) 5
14. Which of the following best explains why the production of ethanol is important in yeast
cells that are under anaerobic conditions?
(A) Ethanol keeps the electron transport system functioning
(B) The process regenerates NAD+, which is required for glycolysis
(C) Ethanol stimulates mitochondrial activity
(D).acetone stimulates cell activity
15. The number of ATP molecules produced from one glucose molecule by a bacterium
producing lactic acid. The number of ATP molecules produced from one glucose molecule by
a bacterium producing ethanol.
(A) I is greater than II
(B) I is exactly or approximately equal to II
(C) I may stand in more than one of the above relations to II
(D) All the reactions not correct
16. Which of the following is the best most complete definition of fermentation?
(A) The reduction of glucose to pyruvic acid
(B) The oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors
(C) The complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and H2O
(D) Pyruvic acid is metabolized
17. The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is
(A) cytochrome
(B) FMN
(C) oxygen
(D) mitochondria
18. High energy transfer compounds are capable of ___________
(A) accepting large amounts of free energy
(B) transferring large amounts of free energy
(C) measuring free energy
(D) No energy is transfer
19. The reactions of the cell that are carried out for capturing energy are called ___________
(A) catabolism
(B) metabolism
(C) anabolism
(D) Both A and B
20. Under normal conditions, as electrons flow down the electron transport chain of the
mitochondria
(A) NADH and FADH2 are oxidized
(B) an electrochemical gradient is formed
(C) No chemical gradient is formed
(D) all of the above
21. Under which condition would you expect the mitochondrial proton gradient to be highest and
therefore ATP synthesis to proceed?
(A) pyruvate (present)-oxygen (present)-ATP levels (high)
(B) pyruvate (present)-oxygen (present)-ATP levels (low)
(C) pyruvate (present)-oxygen (absent)-ATP levels (high)
(D) Pyruvate (present)-Oxygen (absent)
22. Anaerobic environment, the sugar in dough is converted into
(A) glucose
(B) alcohol
(C) water
(D) acetate
23. In dough, the starch is digested into sugar through
(A) amylase
(B) protease
(C) pectinase (D) Amylase
24. The amount of energy received from one ATP is ____________
(A) 76 kcal
(B) 7.3 kcal
(C) 760 kcal
(D) 6.8 kcal
25. Totally how many ATP are synthesized at the end of all the cycle?
(A) 40
(B) 36
(C) 37
(D). 38
Section – B
1. Differentiate between cyclic and non-cyclic phosphosphorylation
2. Comment on bioluminescence in bacteria and enzyme involved
3. Write the physiological characteristics of purple sulphur bacteria
4. Compare bacterial photosynthesis and algal photosynthesis
5. Compare the photosystem I and photosystem II
Section - C
1.Write a detailed account on photosynthesis in anaerobic bacterium
2. Describe the biosynthesis of glutamic acids in microorganisms
3. Discuss CO2 fixation in calvin cycle
All the best