Download 1 SCI 102 - Anatomy and Physiology

SCI 102 - Anatomy and Physiology-Evenings
Dr. Woodfield
TEST TWO WORKSHEET
True/False: Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
____
1.
The highest arch of the foot, formed by the calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuneiforms, and medial
metatarsal bones, is called the medial longitudinal arch.
____
2.
Bone develops from spindle-shaped cells called osteoblasts.
____
3.
Yellow bone marrow is connective tissue consisting chiefly of osteocytes.
____
4.
There are 206 bones in the skeleton.
____
5.
The skull, in the correct use of the term, includes the cranial and the facial bones.
____
6.
The cervical vertebrae are the smallest vertebrae.
____
7.
The sternum, or breastbone, develops in three parts: the manubrium, the gladiolus, and the x iphoid
process.
____
8.
The twelve pairs of ribs are also referred to as the costae.
____
9.
The largest and longest bone of the upper arm is the radius.
____
10.
The ulna is the longer, medial bone of the forearm.
____
11.
The radius is the shorter, lateral bone of the forearm.
____
12.
It is possible for an individual to shrink.
____
13.
In the anatomic position, the ulna is medial to the radius.
____
14.
The spinous process of the scapula is on the anterior surface of the scapula.
____
15.
The anatomic neck of the humerus is distal to the surgical neck of the humerus.
____
16.
A joint in which a conical process fits into a socket and is held in place by ligaments is known as a
gomphosis.
____
17.
Synarthroses are joints or unions between bones that do not allow movement.
____
18.
The range of motion of a joint is related to the laxity, or looseness, of the joint.
____
19.
A ball and socket joint is a uniaxial joint because motion is limited to rotation in a single plane.
____
20.
Joints are classified in three main groups based upon their structure and the degree of movement they
allow.
____
21.
A symphysis is a joint in which the bones are joined by a disc of fibrocartilage.
1
____
22.
Subcutaneous bursae are found between muscles.
____
23.
When the inside of a cell is negatively charged while the outside of the cell is positively charged, it is
known as resting potential.
____
24.
Calcium ions have a greater concentration inside the resting muscle cell.
____
25.
The source of energy for muscle contraction is ATP molecules.
____
26.
Muscles make up about 10% of a person’s body weight.
____
27.
When the contraction of a skeletal muscle is studied in the laboratory by applying an electrical charge
to the muscle, the analysis of the contraction is called a muscle twitch.
____
28.
The “all-or-none law” means that a muscle contraction either occurs or it does not.
____
29.
Muscles that bend a limb at a joint are called flexors.
____
30.
The quadriceps femoris muscle consists of two parts that extend the foot.
____
31.
Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscles.
____
32.
All of the muscle cells or fibers innervated by the same motor neuron are called a motor unit.
____
33.
Muscles can be named according to their action, shape, origin and insertion, location, or the direction of
their fibers.
____
34.
Rotator muscles revolve a limb around an axis.
____
35.
During muscle contraction, the width of the Z-lines remains constant.
____
36.
Phosphocreatine is found only in muscle and provides a slow, sustained source of high energy for muscle
contraction.
____
1.
A single long extension of the nerve cell body that transmits the nerve impulse away from the cell body
is called an axon.
____
2.
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates digestion, urination, and
defecation, and restores or slows down other activities.
____
3.
Schwann cells are located only in the peripheral nervous system and make up the neurilemma an d
myelin sheath.
____
4.
Bipolar neurons have one dendrite and one axon.
____
5.
The autonomic nervous system uses adrenaline (also called epinephrine) as the transmitting agent.
____
6.
The body has three nervous systems: the central, peripheral, and sympathetic nervous systems.
____
7.
During depolarization, K+ ions rush in, causing a change inside the nerve membrane from negative to
positive.
2
____
8.
A deep bridge of nerve fiber known as the corpus callosum connects the two cerebral hemispheres.
____
9.
The cerebellum is the largest portion of the brain.
____
10.
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system prepares the body for stressful situations
that require energy expenditure, like increasing heartbeat and respiratory rate to flee from a
threatening situation.
____
11.
The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system operates under normal nonstressful
conditions.
____
12.
The sclera regulates the amount of light that enters through the pupil.
____
13.
Tetanus is caused by the introduction of the bacterium clostridium tetani into an open wound.
____
14.
Otitis media is another name for a middle ear infection, a common occurrence in young children.
____
15.
Cerebral palsy is a condition caused by inflammation of brain tissue, usually caused by a virus and
transmitted by the bite of a mosquito.
____
16.
Color blindness is an X-chromosome inherited genetic trait occurring more frequently in males, resulting
in the inability to perceive one or more colors.
____
17.
The eardrum is also called the external meatus.
Multiple Choice: Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 37.
A disorder of the skeletal system characterized by a decrease in bone mass with accompanying
increased susceptibility to bone fractures is called ____.
a.
osteoporosis c.
Paget’s disease
b.
osteoarthritis d.
gigantism
____
a.
b.
38.
A rupture of the fibrocartilage surrounding an intervertebral disk is known as (a) ____.
spina bifida
c.
herniated disk
Paget’s disease
d.
cystocele
____ 39.
A congenital defect in the development of the posterior vertebral arch in which the laminae do not unite
at the midline is known as ____.
a.
spina bifida
c.
herniated disk
b.
Paget’s disease d.
cystocele
____
a.
b.
40.
The fibrovascular membrane that covers a bone is called the ____.
endosteum
c.
epiosteum
peritoneum d.
periosteum
____ 41.
A condition in which the bones are soft, weak, and easily broken is known as rickets in children and in
adults as ____.
a.
scoliosis
c.
lordosis
b.
osteomalacia d.
kyphosis
3
____
a.
b.
42.
The formation of platelets and red and white blood cells within the red bone marrow is known as ____.
hematopoiesis c.
intramembranous ossification
osteoprogenitor
d.
erythroleukocytosis
____
a.
b.
43.
Large cells, present in the cavities of bone, that function in the reabsorption of bone are known as ____.
osteocytes
c.
osteoblasts
monocytes
d.
osteoclasts
____
a.
b.
44.
The expanded prominence of the upper hip bone is known as the ____.
ischiumc.
iliac fossa
iliac crest
d.
pubis
____
a.
b.
45.
The largest of the sesamoid bones is the kneecap, known as the ____.
tibia c.
patella
fibula d.
calcaneus
____ 46.
The only bone in the body that does not articulate with any other bones, but is suspended by ligaments
from the styloid process of the temporal bone, is the ____.
a.
hyoid bone
c.
zygomatic bone
b.
vomer bone
d.
mandible
____
a.
b.
47.
The first cervical vertebra, which supports the head, is called the ____.
gladiolus
c.
atlas
acromion
d.
axis
____ 48.
The strongest portion of the hip bone, the bone that bears the weight of the body in the sitting position,
is known as the ____.
a.
ilium c.
pubis
b.
ischiumd.
greater trochanter
____
a.
b.
49.
The breaking of bone or associated cartilage is known as (a) ____.
fracturec.
capitate
costae d.
lunate
____
a.
b.
50.
The shaft of the bone is called the ____.
epiphysis
c.
diaphysis
spine d.
hamate
____
a.
b.
51.
The flared portion at the end of each bone is called the ____.
epiphysis
c.
diaphysis
spine d.
hamate
____
a.
b.
52.
The accentuated outward curvature of the thoracic vertebrae (hunchback) is known as ____.
lordosisc.
kyphosis
scoliosis
d.
osteoporosis
____
a.
b.
53.
The accentuated inward curvature of the lumbar vertebrae (swayback) is known as ____.
lordosisc.
kyphosis
scoliosis
d.
osteoporosis
4
____
____.
a.
b.
54.
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, occurring most often in the thoracic region, is known as
lordosisc.
scoliosis
kyphosis
d.
osteoporosis
____ 55.
The first seven pairs of ribs, which connect with the thoracic vertebrae in the back and with the sternum
in the front, are called the ____.
a.
true ribs
c.
floating ribs
b.
false ribs
d.
thoracic ribs
____ 56.
Rib pairs 8, 9, and 10, which connect with the thoracic vertebrae in the back but do not join directly with
the sternum in the front, are called the ____.
a.
true ribs
c.
floating ribs
b.
false ribs
d.
thoracic ribs
____ 57.
Rib pairs 11 and 12, which connect with the thoracic vertebrae in the back but do not attach at all
anteriorly, are called the ____.
a.
true ribs
c.
floating ribs
b.
false ribs
d.
thoracic ribs
____
a.
b.
58.
Tough connective tissue structures that attach bones to bones are called ____.
ligaments
c.
costae
tendons
d.
stapes
____
a.
b.
59.
The connective tissue bands that attach muscle to bone are called ____.
ligaments
c.
costae
tendons
d.
stapes
____
a.
b.
60.
The formation of bone is called ____.
osteoprogenesis
c.
osteoclasis
ossification
d.
triquetral
____
a.
b.
61.
If a bone’s length exceeds its width, it is classified as a ____.
cancellous bone
c.
short bone
sesamoid bone d.
long bone
____
a.
b.
62.
Longitudinal growth of the bone takes place at the ____.
epiphyseal line c.
shaft
diaphysis
d.
metaphysis
____
a.
b.
63.
Bones that lack a long axis and have a somewhat irregular shape are known as ____.
cancellous bones
c.
short bones
sesamoid bones
d.
long bones
____ 64.
Bones, usually curved and found wherever there is a need for extensive mus cle attachment or
protection for soft or vital parts of the body, are called ____.
a.
cancellous bones
c.
sesamoid bones
b.
flat bones
d.
irregular bones
5
____
____.
a.
b.
65.
Small, rounded bones enclosed in tendons and fascial tissue and located adjacent to joints are called
____
____.
a.
b.
66.
____
a.
b.
67.
In compact bone, concentric rings of bone are called ____.
lacunae
c.
osteon
cannaliculi
d.
lamallae
cancellous bones
sesamoid bones
axis
costae
c.
d.
short bones
long bones
The second cervical vertebra, which acts as the pivot on which the atlas and head rotate, is known as the
c.
d.
hamate
neck
____ 68.
Which of the following types of bone has a sponge-like appearance with a meshwork of interconnecting
bone?
a.
compact bone
c.
osteon
b.
trabecular bone
d.
Volkmann bone
____
a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
Which of the following is true of yellow bone marrow?
contains chiefly fat cells
produces blood cells and their precursors
contains mostly platelets
is plentiful at birth and decreases with age
____
a.
b.
c.
d.
70.
Which of the following is NOT correct for the femur?
largest and heaviest bone of the body
distributes weight of the body
the large head articulates with the tibia
is not in a vertical line with the axis of the erect body
____
a.
b.
71.
The movement that occurs only with the thumb and allows us to use tools is known as ____.
supination
c.
opposition
pronation
d.
proximation
____
72.
A type of joint in which the movement is limited to flexion and extension in a single plane is known as a
____.
hinge joint
c.
pivot joint
ball and socket joint d.
suture
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
73.
Inflammation of a synovial bursa, which can be caused from excessive stress or tension placed on the
bursa, is known as ____.
fibrositis
c.
arthritis
synovitis
d.
bursitis
74.
An accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joint at the base of the large toe and other joints of the feet
and legs causes a condition known as ____.
gout
c.
fibrositis
arthritis
d.
bursitis
6
____
a.
b.
75.
Inflammation of the fibrous connective tissue in a joint, commonly called rheumatism, is also known as
____.
gout
c.
primary fibrositis
osteoarthritis
d.
degenerative joint disease
____
a.
b.
76.
Degenerative joint disease is also known as ____.
gout
c.
primary fibrositis
osteoarthritis
d.
rheumatism
____
a.
b.
77.
A joint is place of union or junction between two or more bones, and is known as a(n) ____.
articulation
c.
bursa
gomphosis
d.
depression
____ 78.
Creating a smooth gliding surface for opposing bones and nourishing the articular cartilage are the two
functions of ____.
a.
chondrocytes c.
collagenous fibers
b.
synovial fluid d.
hyaline cartilage
____
a.
b.
79.
An articulation in which the bones are united by a thin layer of fibrous tissue is known as a ____.
suture
c.
bursa
depression
d.
condyloid joint
____
a.
b.
80.
Moving a part of the body forward on a plane parallel to the ground is known as ____.
flexion
c.
protraction
retraction
d.
depression
____
a.
b.
81.
Raising a body part is known as ____.
pronation
c.
depression
elevation
d.
opposition
____
a.
b.
82.
A closed sac within a synovial membrane lining is called (a) ____.
tendon c.
bursa
fascia d.
ligament
____
a.
b.
83.
Inflammation of an entire joint is called ____.
arthritisc.
chondritis
bursitis d.
fibrositis
____
a.
b.
84.
A debilitating connective tissue disorder resulting in severe inflammation of the small joints, which can
destroy the joints of the hands and feet, is known as ____.
rheumatic feverc.
gout
bursitis d.
rheumatoid arthritis
____
a.
b.
85.
Raising the foot up at the ankle joint is known as ____.
dorsiflexion
c.
inversion
plantar flexion d.
eversion
____
a.
b.
86.
The act of bending or decreasing the angle between bones is known as ____.
hyperextensionc.
extension
opposition
d.
flexion
7
____
a.
b.
87.
The act of moving a bone in such a way that the end of the bone or limb describes a circle in the air is
known as ____.
opposition
c.
rotation
circumduction d.
reposition
____
a.
b.
88.
Moving a bone or limb away from the midline of the body is known as ____.
abduction
c.
dorsiflexion
adduction
d.
plantar flexion
____
a.
b.
89.
When the palms are facing upward, as in carrying a bowl of soup, the movement of the forearm so the
radius and ulna are parallel is known as ____.
protraction
c.
supination
pronation
d.
retraction
____
a.
b.
90.
Moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle is known as ____.
inversion
c.
dorsiflexion
eversion
d.
plantar flexion
____
a.
b.
91.
A joint in which movement can occur in all planes and directions is known as a ____.
hinge joint
c.
pivot joint
suture d.
ball and socket joint
____
a.
b.
92.
Joints that do not allow movement are known as ____.
synarthroses c.
amphiarthroses
diarthroses
d.
synovial joints
____ 93.
The act of moving the bone around a central axis, where the plane rotational motion is perpendicular to
the axis, is known as ____.
a.
hyperextensionc.
rotation
b.
flexion d.
circumduction
____
a.
b.
c.
d.
94.
Which of the following is NOT true of a synovial joint?
They have a cavity.
They are enclosed by a capsule.
They contain synovial fluid.
They are united by a layer of fibrous tissue.
____
a.
b.
95.
Nodding your head as in “yes” is an example of neck ____.
flexion c.
abduction
rotation
d.
retraction
____
a.
b.
96.
Moving your head in the direction to say “no” is an example of head ____.
flexion c.
abduction
rotation
d.
retraction
____
a.
b.
97.
Kicking a ball is an example of knee ____.
flexion c.
extension
rotation
d.
retraction
8
____
a.
b.
98.
Inflammation of a tendon is known as ____.
myositis
c.
tendinitis
bursitis d.
fasciculitis
____
a.
b.
99.
The rapid, uncontrolled contraction of individual cells in the heart, resulting in the heart’s inability to
pump blood properly, is known as ____.
fibrillation
c.
endocarditis
myalgiad.
muscle twitch
____
a.
b.
100.
An increase in the bulk of muscle cells that occurs as a result of exercise is known as ____.
tone c.
flexion
hypotrophy
d.
hypertrophy
____
a.
b.
101.
Spastic and painful contractions of muscles that occur because of an irritation within the muscles are
known as ____.
contractures c.
fibrillation
cramps d.
myositis
____
a.
b.
102.
A decrease in muscle bulk, or a “wasting away of the muscle,” due to a lack of exercise is called ____.
atrophyc.
dystrophy
hypertrophy d.
contracture
____
103.
An inherited muscular disorder in which the muscle tissue degenerates over time, resulting in complete
helplessness, is known as ____.
myasthenia gravis
c.
bursitis
tendinitis
d.
muscular dystrophy
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
104.
A condition in which a muscle shortens its length in the resting state and remains that way is known as
____.
contracture
c.
hypertrophy
atrophyd.
spasm
____
a.
b.
105.
Another name for chewing is ____.
deglutition
c.
psoas
mastication
d.
myalgia
____
a.
b.
106.
Smooth and cardiac muscle is under the control of the ____.
autonomic nervous system
c.
circulatory system
central nervous system d.
skeletal system
____
a.
b.
107.
Muscles that assist the prime mover muscles in performing movement are called ____.
progenitors
c.
antagonists
synergists
d.
agonists
____
a.
b.
108.
Another name for muscle pain is ____.
chondralgia
c.
myalgia
fibralgia
d.
myositis
____
a.
b.
109.
Inflammation of muscular tissue is known as ____.
myositis
c.
tendinitis
bursitis d.
fasciculitis
9
____
a.
b.
110.
Another name for a wide, flat tendon is a(n) ____.
aponeurosis c.
interossei
fibril d.
epimysium
____
a.
b.
111.
The more fixed attachment of a muscle that serves as a basis for the action is the ____.
insertion
c.
motor unit
origin d.
frontalis
____
a.
b.
112.
A condition usually beginning with the facial muscles and characterized by the easy tiring of muscles or
muscle weakness is known as ____.
muscular dystrophy
c.
myasthenia gravis
fibromyalgia d.
facial atrophy
____
a.
b.
113.
The muscle that raises the eyebrows and wrinkles the skin of the forehead is the ____.
occipitalis
c.
orbicularis oris
frontalis
d.
zygomaticus
____
a.
b.
114.
The muscle that compresses the cheeks is the ____.
zygomaticus c.
buccinator
mentalis
d.
occipitalis
____
a.
b.
115.
The muscle that closes the jaw is the ____.
masseter
c.
rhomboid major
inferior rectus d.
teres minor
____
a.
b.
116.
The muscle that rolls the eyeball upward is the ____.
trapezius
c.
rhomboid major
lateral pterygoid
d.
superior rectus
____ 117.
The muscle that abducts the arm and is also the muscle that receives injections that are given in the arm
is the ____.
a.
teres minor
c.
pectoralis major
b.
latissimus dorsi d.
deltoid
____
a.
b.
118.
The muscle responsible for moving the hand so that the palm is facing upward is the ____.
pronator quadratus
c.
flexor digitorum
supinator
d.
interossei
____
a.
b.
119.
The muscles, found between the metacarpals, that cause abduction of the proximal phalanges of the
fingers are the ____.
interossei
c.
pronator teres
flexor pollicis d.
extensor indicis
____
a.
b.
120.
The main muscle used in breathing is the ____.
trapezius
c.
diaphragm
rectus abdominis
d.
buccinator
____
a.
b.
121.
The muscle that is developed when we do sit-ups and try to tighten the abdominal wall is the ____.
latissimus dorsi c.
quadratus lumborum
rectus abdominis
d.
external intercostals
10
____
a.
b.
122.
The neurotransmitter released by the neuromuscular junction is ____.
epinephrine c.
norepinephrine
dopamine
d.
acetylcholine
____
a.
b.
123.
During muscle contraction, calcium attaches to which of the following?
actin c.
myosin
tropomyosin d.
troponin
____
a.
b.
18.
The short, branched nerve fibers on the nerve cell that are the receptive areas of the neuron are known
as the ____.
dendrites
c.
astrocytes
axons d.
tracts
____
a.
b.
19.
A bundle of nerve fibers located inside the central nervous system is called a(n) ____.
ganglia c.
tract
neuroglia
d.
astrocyte
____
a.
b.
20.
The simplest pathway able to receive a stimulus, enter the central nervous system for immediate
interpretation, and produce a response is known as a ____.
nucleusc.
tract
reflex arc
d.
synapse
____
a.
b.
21.
The outermost layer of the meninges (the words meaning “tough mother”) is the ____.
dura mater
c.
arachnoid mater
pia mater
d.
cortex
____
a.
b.
22.
The middle layer of the meninges, known as the “spider layer,” is called the ____.
dura mater
c.
arachnoid mater
pia mater
d.
cortex
____
a.
b.
23.
The body’s control center and communication network, which directs the functions of the body’s organs
and systems, is (the) ____.
acetylcholine c.
neuroglia
reflex arc
d.
nervous system
____
a.
b.
24.
An involuntary reaction to an external stimulus is known as a(n) ____.
reflex c.
resting potential
action potentiald.
reflex arc
____
25.
Star-shaped cells that wrap around neurons for support in the brain and spinal cord and connect
neurons to blood vessels are known as ____.
microglia
c.
astrocytes
ganglia d.
axons
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
26.
Small cells that protect the central nervous system by engulfing and destroying microbes and cellular
debris are called ____.
horns c.
astrocytes
neuroglia
d.
microglia
11
____
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
____
27.
Sensory neurons that convey information from receptors in the periphery of the body to the brain and
spinal cord are also known as ____.
afferent nerves c.
horns
efferent nerves d.
microglia
28.
Transmission of nerve impulses across the synapses is brought about by the secretions of very low
concentrations of the chemicals known as ____.
neurotransmitters
c.
endorphins
dopamine
d.
chromatids
a.
b.
29.
Motor neurons that convey information from the brain and spinal cord to muscles and glands are called
____.
afferent nerves c.
horns
efferent nerves d.
microglia
____
a.
b.
30.
Nerve cell bodies located outside the central nervous system are called ____.
microglia
c.
astrocytes
ganglia d.
axons
____
31.
The three layers of connective tissue membranes that cover and protect the spinal cord and brain are
the ____.
Nissl bodies c.
meninges
neurofibral nodes
d.
ventral roots
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
32.
The area where the terminal branches of an axon are close to, but not touching, the ends of the
dendrites of another neuron is called a(n) ____.
synapsec.
tract
horn d.
ganglia
____
a.
b.
33.
Neurons that detect stimuli in the environment are known as ____.
synapses
c.
receptors
axons d.
stimulants
____
a.
b.
34.
The part of the nervous system that consists of the brain and spinal cord is known as the ____.
autonomic nervous system
c.
peripheral nervous system
central nervous system d.
somatic nervous system
____ 35.
The part of the nervous system that consists of all the ne rves that connect the brain and spinal cord with
sensory receptors, muscles, and glands is known as the ____.
a.
autonomic nervous system
c.
peripheral nervous system
b.
central nervous system d.
somatic nervous system
____
a.
b.
36.
root
horn
A bundle of nerve cells or fibers is known as a(n) ____.
c.
axon
d.
nerve
____
a.
b.
37.
Over 60% of all brain cells are ____.
neuroglia cells c.
Nissl bodies
ganglia cells d.
arachnoid cells
12
____
a.
b.
38.
The cells that are located only in the peripheral nervous system and make up the neurilemma and
myelin sheath are the ____.
neuroglia cells c.
Schwann cells
ependymal cellsd.
arachnoid cells
____
a.
b.
39.
The cells that form the lining of the cavities in the brain and spinal cord are the ____.
neuroglia cells c.
Schwann cells
ependymal cellsd.
arachnoid cells
____
a.
b.
40.
Neurons that have several dendrites and one axon are known as ____.
neurofibrilar nodes
c.
multipolar neurons
unipolar neurons
d.
bipolar neurons
____
a.
b.
41.
Gaps in the myelin sheath that allow ions to flow freely from extracellular fluids to the axons are known
as ____.
nodes of Ranvier
c.
dorsal roots
Schwann cells d.
Nissl bodies
____
a.
b.
42.
Neurons that have one dendrite and one axon are known as ____.
neurofibral nodes
c.
multipolar neurons
unipolar neurons
d.
bipolar neurons
____
a.
b.
43.
Neurons that have only one process extending from the cell body are known as ____.
neurofibral nodes
c.
multipolar neurons
unipolar neurons
d.
bipolar neurons
____
a.
b.
44.
Nerve cell bodies that are found outside the central nervous system are generally grouped together to
form ____.
ganglia c.
roots
tracts d.
dendrites
____
a.
b.
45.
Areas of gray matter in the spinal cord are called ____.
tracts c.
horns
ependymal cellsd.
astrocytes
____
a.
b.
46.
Nerve cells that transmit nerve impulses in the form of electrochemical changes are known as ____.
horns c.
ependymal cells
endorphins
d.
neurons
____
a.
b.
47.
The neuroglial cells that form the fatty myelin sheath on the neurons of the brain and spinal cord are the
____.
oligodendrogliac.
microglia
astrocytes
d.
ganglia
____
a.
b.
48.
The cells that line the fluid-filled ventricles of the brain are the ____.
glial cells
c.
Schwann cells
ependymal cellsd.
neurolemmocytes
____
a.
b.
49.
The term that refers to groups of myelinated axons from many neurons supported by neuroglia is ____.
gray matter
c.
white matter
horns d.
Nissl bodies
13
____
a.
b.
50.
The correct number of pairs of cervical nerves is ____.
one (1) c.
twelve (12)
eight (8)
d.
five (5)
____
a.
b.
51.
The correct number of pairs of thoracic nerves is ____.
one (1) c.
twelve (12)
eight (8)
d.
five (5)
____
a.
b.
52.
The correct number of pairs of lumbar nerves is ____.
one (1) c.
twelve (12)
eight (8)
d.
five (5)
____
a.
b.
53.
The correct number of pairs of coccygeal nerves is ____.
one (1) c.
twelve (12)
eight (8)
d.
five (5)
____
a.
b.
54.
The phrase that means “tough mother” is ____.
pia mater
c.
dura mater
arachnoid mater
d.
cortex
____
a.
b.
c.
d.
55.
Which of the following is true of resting membrane potential?
Membrane permeability to Na+ ions changes.
Na+ ions rush into the cell.
Membrane potential changes from negative to positive inside the cell.
Resting membrane potential is maintained by the sodium-potassium pump.
____
a.
b.
56.
Depolarization of the nerve membrane begins with ____.
increased permeability of Na+ ions
c.
decreased permeability of Na+ ions
increased permeability of K+ ions
d.
decreased permeability of K+ ions
____
a.
b.
57.
sulci
gyri
____
a.
b.
58.
The prominent fissure that separates the cerebrum into right and left halves or hemispheres is the ____.
longitudinal fissure
c.
corpus callosum
insula d.
transverse fissure
____
a.
b.
59.
iris
pupil
The white, outermost layer of the eyeball, composed of tough connective tissue, is the ____.
c.
cornea
d.
sclera
____
a.
b.
60.
pupil
iris
The area of sharpest vision in the retina of the eye is known as the ____.
c.
fovea centralis
d.
optic disk
____
a.
b.
61.
pupil
iris
The innermost layer of the eye is called the ____.
c.
aqueous humor
d.
retina
The elevations or folds on the surface of the cerebrum are called ____.
c.
ventricles
d.
tracts
14
____
a.
b.
62.
The area of the retina where the nerve fibers leave the eye is known as the ____.
optic disk
c.
iris
pupil
d.
fovea centralis
____
a.
b.
63.
The membrane that separates the external ear canal from the middle ear is known as the ____.
tympanic membrane c.
stapes
oval window d.
round window
____
64.
Inflammation of the meninges caused by bacterial or viral infection that results in headache, fever, and a
stiff neck is known as ____.
otitis c.
encephalitis
meningitis
d.
choroiditis
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
65.
A condition that is a normal part of aging, commonly occurring during the f orties, and resulting in a
decrease in the ability of the eye to accommodate for near vision is known as ____.
glaucoma
c.
presbyopia
myopia d.
cataracts
____
a.
b.
66.
The ability to see close objects but not distant ones is known as ____.
myopia c.
presbyopia
hyperopia
d.
glaucoma
____
67.
A disorder in which certain parts of the brain are overactive, producing convulsive seizures and possible
loss of consciousness, is ____.
cerebral palsy c.
encephalitis
Parkinson’s disease
d.
epilepsy
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
68.
An inflammation of brain tissue, usually caused by a virus and transmitted by a mosquito bite, is known
as ____.
cerebral palsy c.
encephalitis
Parkinson’s disease
d.
epilepsy
69.
A disease characterized by tremors of the hand when resting and a slow, shuffling walk with rigidity of
muscular movements is known as ____.
cerebral palsy c.
encephalitis
Parkinson’s disease
d.
epilepsy
____
a.
b.
70.
Elevations of the tongue are called ____.
papillaec.
incus
gyri
d.
sulci
____
a.
b.
71.
The part of the eye that consists of smooth muscles that hold the lens in place is called the ____.
gyri
c.
optic tracts
ciliary body
d.
sulci
____
a.
b.
72.
The colored part of the eye is the ____.
retina c.
cornea
pupil d.
iris
____
a.
b.
73.
Another name for earwax is ____.
cerumen
c.
sweat
sebum d.
rhodopsin
a.
b.
____
15
____
a.
b.
74.
The flexible, visible part of the ear (the ear flap) is called the ____.
stapes c.
auricle
incus d.
cochlea
____
a.
b.
75.
The opening in the center of the colored part of the eye , which allows light to enter the eye, is known as
the ____.
sclera c.
iris
pupil d.
cornea
____
a.
b.
76.
The transparent part of the outermost layer of the eye is the ____.
sclera c.
iris
pupil d.
cornea
____
77.
The photo-sensitive cells in the retina that function in dim light, but do not produce color vision, are
called the ____.
rods c.
ciliary body
cones d.
gyri
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
____
a.
b.
____
78.
The photo-sensitive cells in the retina that require lots of light and produce color vision are called the
____.
rods c.
ciliary body
cones d.
gyri
79.
The cavities within the brain that connect with each other, with the subarachnoid space of the
meninges, and with the central canal of the spinal cord are called ____.
ventricles
c.
gyri
sulci d.
fissures
80.
The part of the brain that contains all of the ascending and descending tracts that connect between the
spinal cord and various parts of the brain is called the ____.
hypothalamus c.
medulla oblongata
cerebrum
d.
cerebellum
81.
The part of the brain that controls our feelings of rage and aggression, contains the body’s thirst center,
and maintains waking and sleeping patterns is the ____.
cerebellum
c.
hypothalamus
thalamus
d.
cerebrum
a.
b.
82.
A condition caused by excessive pressure buildup in the aqueous humor, which can constrict blood
vessels entering the eye, is known as ____.
glaucoma
c.
cataracts
conjunctivitis d.
myopia
____
a.
b.
83.
The second layer of the eye, which contains blood vessels and pigment cells, is known as the ____.
sclera c.
cornea
choroid d.
retina
16