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SCI 102 - Anatomy and Physiology-Evenings Dr. Woodfield TEST TWO WORKSHEET True/False: Indicate whether the statement is true or false. ____ 1. The highest arch of the foot, formed by the calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuneiforms, and medial metatarsal bones, is called the medial longitudinal arch. ____ 2. Bone develops from spindle-shaped cells called osteoblasts. ____ 3. Yellow bone marrow is connective tissue consisting chiefly of osteocytes. ____ 4. There are 206 bones in the skeleton. ____ 5. The skull, in the correct use of the term, includes the cranial and the facial bones. ____ 6. The cervical vertebrae are the smallest vertebrae. ____ 7. The sternum, or breastbone, develops in three parts: the manubrium, the gladiolus, and the x iphoid process. ____ 8. The twelve pairs of ribs are also referred to as the costae. ____ 9. The largest and longest bone of the upper arm is the radius. ____ 10. The ulna is the longer, medial bone of the forearm. ____ 11. The radius is the shorter, lateral bone of the forearm. ____ 12. It is possible for an individual to shrink. ____ 13. In the anatomic position, the ulna is medial to the radius. ____ 14. The spinous process of the scapula is on the anterior surface of the scapula. ____ 15. The anatomic neck of the humerus is distal to the surgical neck of the humerus. ____ 16. A joint in which a conical process fits into a socket and is held in place by ligaments is known as a gomphosis. ____ 17. Synarthroses are joints or unions between bones that do not allow movement. ____ 18. The range of motion of a joint is related to the laxity, or looseness, of the joint. ____ 19. A ball and socket joint is a uniaxial joint because motion is limited to rotation in a single plane. ____ 20. Joints are classified in three main groups based upon their structure and the degree of movement they allow. ____ 21. A symphysis is a joint in which the bones are joined by a disc of fibrocartilage. 1 ____ 22. Subcutaneous bursae are found between muscles. ____ 23. When the inside of a cell is negatively charged while the outside of the cell is positively charged, it is known as resting potential. ____ 24. Calcium ions have a greater concentration inside the resting muscle cell. ____ 25. The source of energy for muscle contraction is ATP molecules. ____ 26. Muscles make up about 10% of a person’s body weight. ____ 27. When the contraction of a skeletal muscle is studied in the laboratory by applying an electrical charge to the muscle, the analysis of the contraction is called a muscle twitch. ____ 28. The “all-or-none law” means that a muscle contraction either occurs or it does not. ____ 29. Muscles that bend a limb at a joint are called flexors. ____ 30. The quadriceps femoris muscle consists of two parts that extend the foot. ____ 31. Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscles. ____ 32. All of the muscle cells or fibers innervated by the same motor neuron are called a motor unit. ____ 33. Muscles can be named according to their action, shape, origin and insertion, location, or the direction of their fibers. ____ 34. Rotator muscles revolve a limb around an axis. ____ 35. During muscle contraction, the width of the Z-lines remains constant. ____ 36. Phosphocreatine is found only in muscle and provides a slow, sustained source of high energy for muscle contraction. ____ 1. A single long extension of the nerve cell body that transmits the nerve impulse away from the cell body is called an axon. ____ 2. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates digestion, urination, and defecation, and restores or slows down other activities. ____ 3. Schwann cells are located only in the peripheral nervous system and make up the neurilemma an d myelin sheath. ____ 4. Bipolar neurons have one dendrite and one axon. ____ 5. The autonomic nervous system uses adrenaline (also called epinephrine) as the transmitting agent. ____ 6. The body has three nervous systems: the central, peripheral, and sympathetic nervous systems. ____ 7. During depolarization, K+ ions rush in, causing a change inside the nerve membrane from negative to positive. 2 ____ 8. A deep bridge of nerve fiber known as the corpus callosum connects the two cerebral hemispheres. ____ 9. The cerebellum is the largest portion of the brain. ____ 10. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system prepares the body for stressful situations that require energy expenditure, like increasing heartbeat and respiratory rate to flee from a threatening situation. ____ 11. The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system operates under normal nonstressful conditions. ____ 12. The sclera regulates the amount of light that enters through the pupil. ____ 13. Tetanus is caused by the introduction of the bacterium clostridium tetani into an open wound. ____ 14. Otitis media is another name for a middle ear infection, a common occurrence in young children. ____ 15. Cerebral palsy is a condition caused by inflammation of brain tissue, usually caused by a virus and transmitted by the bite of a mosquito. ____ 16. Color blindness is an X-chromosome inherited genetic trait occurring more frequently in males, resulting in the inability to perceive one or more colors. ____ 17. The eardrum is also called the external meatus. Multiple Choice: Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 37. A disorder of the skeletal system characterized by a decrease in bone mass with accompanying increased susceptibility to bone fractures is called ____. a. osteoporosis c. Paget’s disease b. osteoarthritis d. gigantism ____ a. b. 38. A rupture of the fibrocartilage surrounding an intervertebral disk is known as (a) ____. spina bifida c. herniated disk Paget’s disease d. cystocele ____ 39. A congenital defect in the development of the posterior vertebral arch in which the laminae do not unite at the midline is known as ____. a. spina bifida c. herniated disk b. Paget’s disease d. cystocele ____ a. b. 40. The fibrovascular membrane that covers a bone is called the ____. endosteum c. epiosteum peritoneum d. periosteum ____ 41. A condition in which the bones are soft, weak, and easily broken is known as rickets in children and in adults as ____. a. scoliosis c. lordosis b. osteomalacia d. kyphosis 3 ____ a. b. 42. The formation of platelets and red and white blood cells within the red bone marrow is known as ____. hematopoiesis c. intramembranous ossification osteoprogenitor d. erythroleukocytosis ____ a. b. 43. Large cells, present in the cavities of bone, that function in the reabsorption of bone are known as ____. osteocytes c. osteoblasts monocytes d. osteoclasts ____ a. b. 44. The expanded prominence of the upper hip bone is known as the ____. ischiumc. iliac fossa iliac crest d. pubis ____ a. b. 45. The largest of the sesamoid bones is the kneecap, known as the ____. tibia c. patella fibula d. calcaneus ____ 46. The only bone in the body that does not articulate with any other bones, but is suspended by ligaments from the styloid process of the temporal bone, is the ____. a. hyoid bone c. zygomatic bone b. vomer bone d. mandible ____ a. b. 47. The first cervical vertebra, which supports the head, is called the ____. gladiolus c. atlas acromion d. axis ____ 48. The strongest portion of the hip bone, the bone that bears the weight of the body in the sitting position, is known as the ____. a. ilium c. pubis b. ischiumd. greater trochanter ____ a. b. 49. The breaking of bone or associated cartilage is known as (a) ____. fracturec. capitate costae d. lunate ____ a. b. 50. The shaft of the bone is called the ____. epiphysis c. diaphysis spine d. hamate ____ a. b. 51. The flared portion at the end of each bone is called the ____. epiphysis c. diaphysis spine d. hamate ____ a. b. 52. The accentuated outward curvature of the thoracic vertebrae (hunchback) is known as ____. lordosisc. kyphosis scoliosis d. osteoporosis ____ a. b. 53. The accentuated inward curvature of the lumbar vertebrae (swayback) is known as ____. lordosisc. kyphosis scoliosis d. osteoporosis 4 ____ ____. a. b. 54. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, occurring most often in the thoracic region, is known as lordosisc. scoliosis kyphosis d. osteoporosis ____ 55. The first seven pairs of ribs, which connect with the thoracic vertebrae in the back and with the sternum in the front, are called the ____. a. true ribs c. floating ribs b. false ribs d. thoracic ribs ____ 56. Rib pairs 8, 9, and 10, which connect with the thoracic vertebrae in the back but do not join directly with the sternum in the front, are called the ____. a. true ribs c. floating ribs b. false ribs d. thoracic ribs ____ 57. Rib pairs 11 and 12, which connect with the thoracic vertebrae in the back but do not attach at all anteriorly, are called the ____. a. true ribs c. floating ribs b. false ribs d. thoracic ribs ____ a. b. 58. Tough connective tissue structures that attach bones to bones are called ____. ligaments c. costae tendons d. stapes ____ a. b. 59. The connective tissue bands that attach muscle to bone are called ____. ligaments c. costae tendons d. stapes ____ a. b. 60. The formation of bone is called ____. osteoprogenesis c. osteoclasis ossification d. triquetral ____ a. b. 61. If a bone’s length exceeds its width, it is classified as a ____. cancellous bone c. short bone sesamoid bone d. long bone ____ a. b. 62. Longitudinal growth of the bone takes place at the ____. epiphyseal line c. shaft diaphysis d. metaphysis ____ a. b. 63. Bones that lack a long axis and have a somewhat irregular shape are known as ____. cancellous bones c. short bones sesamoid bones d. long bones ____ 64. Bones, usually curved and found wherever there is a need for extensive mus cle attachment or protection for soft or vital parts of the body, are called ____. a. cancellous bones c. sesamoid bones b. flat bones d. irregular bones 5 ____ ____. a. b. 65. Small, rounded bones enclosed in tendons and fascial tissue and located adjacent to joints are called ____ ____. a. b. 66. ____ a. b. 67. In compact bone, concentric rings of bone are called ____. lacunae c. osteon cannaliculi d. lamallae cancellous bones sesamoid bones axis costae c. d. short bones long bones The second cervical vertebra, which acts as the pivot on which the atlas and head rotate, is known as the c. d. hamate neck ____ 68. Which of the following types of bone has a sponge-like appearance with a meshwork of interconnecting bone? a. compact bone c. osteon b. trabecular bone d. Volkmann bone ____ a. b. c. d. 69. Which of the following is true of yellow bone marrow? contains chiefly fat cells produces blood cells and their precursors contains mostly platelets is plentiful at birth and decreases with age ____ a. b. c. d. 70. Which of the following is NOT correct for the femur? largest and heaviest bone of the body distributes weight of the body the large head articulates with the tibia is not in a vertical line with the axis of the erect body ____ a. b. 71. The movement that occurs only with the thumb and allows us to use tools is known as ____. supination c. opposition pronation d. proximation ____ 72. A type of joint in which the movement is limited to flexion and extension in a single plane is known as a ____. hinge joint c. pivot joint ball and socket joint d. suture a. b. ____ a. b. ____ a. b. 73. Inflammation of a synovial bursa, which can be caused from excessive stress or tension placed on the bursa, is known as ____. fibrositis c. arthritis synovitis d. bursitis 74. An accumulation of uric acid crystals in the joint at the base of the large toe and other joints of the feet and legs causes a condition known as ____. gout c. fibrositis arthritis d. bursitis 6 ____ a. b. 75. Inflammation of the fibrous connective tissue in a joint, commonly called rheumatism, is also known as ____. gout c. primary fibrositis osteoarthritis d. degenerative joint disease ____ a. b. 76. Degenerative joint disease is also known as ____. gout c. primary fibrositis osteoarthritis d. rheumatism ____ a. b. 77. A joint is place of union or junction between two or more bones, and is known as a(n) ____. articulation c. bursa gomphosis d. depression ____ 78. Creating a smooth gliding surface for opposing bones and nourishing the articular cartilage are the two functions of ____. a. chondrocytes c. collagenous fibers b. synovial fluid d. hyaline cartilage ____ a. b. 79. An articulation in which the bones are united by a thin layer of fibrous tissue is known as a ____. suture c. bursa depression d. condyloid joint ____ a. b. 80. Moving a part of the body forward on a plane parallel to the ground is known as ____. flexion c. protraction retraction d. depression ____ a. b. 81. Raising a body part is known as ____. pronation c. depression elevation d. opposition ____ a. b. 82. A closed sac within a synovial membrane lining is called (a) ____. tendon c. bursa fascia d. ligament ____ a. b. 83. Inflammation of an entire joint is called ____. arthritisc. chondritis bursitis d. fibrositis ____ a. b. 84. A debilitating connective tissue disorder resulting in severe inflammation of the small joints, which can destroy the joints of the hands and feet, is known as ____. rheumatic feverc. gout bursitis d. rheumatoid arthritis ____ a. b. 85. Raising the foot up at the ankle joint is known as ____. dorsiflexion c. inversion plantar flexion d. eversion ____ a. b. 86. The act of bending or decreasing the angle between bones is known as ____. hyperextensionc. extension opposition d. flexion 7 ____ a. b. 87. The act of moving a bone in such a way that the end of the bone or limb describes a circle in the air is known as ____. opposition c. rotation circumduction d. reposition ____ a. b. 88. Moving a bone or limb away from the midline of the body is known as ____. abduction c. dorsiflexion adduction d. plantar flexion ____ a. b. 89. When the palms are facing upward, as in carrying a bowl of soup, the movement of the forearm so the radius and ulna are parallel is known as ____. protraction c. supination pronation d. retraction ____ a. b. 90. Moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle is known as ____. inversion c. dorsiflexion eversion d. plantar flexion ____ a. b. 91. A joint in which movement can occur in all planes and directions is known as a ____. hinge joint c. pivot joint suture d. ball and socket joint ____ a. b. 92. Joints that do not allow movement are known as ____. synarthroses c. amphiarthroses diarthroses d. synovial joints ____ 93. The act of moving the bone around a central axis, where the plane rotational motion is perpendicular to the axis, is known as ____. a. hyperextensionc. rotation b. flexion d. circumduction ____ a. b. c. d. 94. Which of the following is NOT true of a synovial joint? They have a cavity. They are enclosed by a capsule. They contain synovial fluid. They are united by a layer of fibrous tissue. ____ a. b. 95. Nodding your head as in “yes” is an example of neck ____. flexion c. abduction rotation d. retraction ____ a. b. 96. Moving your head in the direction to say “no” is an example of head ____. flexion c. abduction rotation d. retraction ____ a. b. 97. Kicking a ball is an example of knee ____. flexion c. extension rotation d. retraction 8 ____ a. b. 98. Inflammation of a tendon is known as ____. myositis c. tendinitis bursitis d. fasciculitis ____ a. b. 99. The rapid, uncontrolled contraction of individual cells in the heart, resulting in the heart’s inability to pump blood properly, is known as ____. fibrillation c. endocarditis myalgiad. muscle twitch ____ a. b. 100. An increase in the bulk of muscle cells that occurs as a result of exercise is known as ____. tone c. flexion hypotrophy d. hypertrophy ____ a. b. 101. Spastic and painful contractions of muscles that occur because of an irritation within the muscles are known as ____. contractures c. fibrillation cramps d. myositis ____ a. b. 102. A decrease in muscle bulk, or a “wasting away of the muscle,” due to a lack of exercise is called ____. atrophyc. dystrophy hypertrophy d. contracture ____ 103. An inherited muscular disorder in which the muscle tissue degenerates over time, resulting in complete helplessness, is known as ____. myasthenia gravis c. bursitis tendinitis d. muscular dystrophy a. b. ____ a. b. 104. A condition in which a muscle shortens its length in the resting state and remains that way is known as ____. contracture c. hypertrophy atrophyd. spasm ____ a. b. 105. Another name for chewing is ____. deglutition c. psoas mastication d. myalgia ____ a. b. 106. Smooth and cardiac muscle is under the control of the ____. autonomic nervous system c. circulatory system central nervous system d. skeletal system ____ a. b. 107. Muscles that assist the prime mover muscles in performing movement are called ____. progenitors c. antagonists synergists d. agonists ____ a. b. 108. Another name for muscle pain is ____. chondralgia c. myalgia fibralgia d. myositis ____ a. b. 109. Inflammation of muscular tissue is known as ____. myositis c. tendinitis bursitis d. fasciculitis 9 ____ a. b. 110. Another name for a wide, flat tendon is a(n) ____. aponeurosis c. interossei fibril d. epimysium ____ a. b. 111. The more fixed attachment of a muscle that serves as a basis for the action is the ____. insertion c. motor unit origin d. frontalis ____ a. b. 112. A condition usually beginning with the facial muscles and characterized by the easy tiring of muscles or muscle weakness is known as ____. muscular dystrophy c. myasthenia gravis fibromyalgia d. facial atrophy ____ a. b. 113. The muscle that raises the eyebrows and wrinkles the skin of the forehead is the ____. occipitalis c. orbicularis oris frontalis d. zygomaticus ____ a. b. 114. The muscle that compresses the cheeks is the ____. zygomaticus c. buccinator mentalis d. occipitalis ____ a. b. 115. The muscle that closes the jaw is the ____. masseter c. rhomboid major inferior rectus d. teres minor ____ a. b. 116. The muscle that rolls the eyeball upward is the ____. trapezius c. rhomboid major lateral pterygoid d. superior rectus ____ 117. The muscle that abducts the arm and is also the muscle that receives injections that are given in the arm is the ____. a. teres minor c. pectoralis major b. latissimus dorsi d. deltoid ____ a. b. 118. The muscle responsible for moving the hand so that the palm is facing upward is the ____. pronator quadratus c. flexor digitorum supinator d. interossei ____ a. b. 119. The muscles, found between the metacarpals, that cause abduction of the proximal phalanges of the fingers are the ____. interossei c. pronator teres flexor pollicis d. extensor indicis ____ a. b. 120. The main muscle used in breathing is the ____. trapezius c. diaphragm rectus abdominis d. buccinator ____ a. b. 121. The muscle that is developed when we do sit-ups and try to tighten the abdominal wall is the ____. latissimus dorsi c. quadratus lumborum rectus abdominis d. external intercostals 10 ____ a. b. 122. The neurotransmitter released by the neuromuscular junction is ____. epinephrine c. norepinephrine dopamine d. acetylcholine ____ a. b. 123. During muscle contraction, calcium attaches to which of the following? actin c. myosin tropomyosin d. troponin ____ a. b. 18. The short, branched nerve fibers on the nerve cell that are the receptive areas of the neuron are known as the ____. dendrites c. astrocytes axons d. tracts ____ a. b. 19. A bundle of nerve fibers located inside the central nervous system is called a(n) ____. ganglia c. tract neuroglia d. astrocyte ____ a. b. 20. The simplest pathway able to receive a stimulus, enter the central nervous system for immediate interpretation, and produce a response is known as a ____. nucleusc. tract reflex arc d. synapse ____ a. b. 21. The outermost layer of the meninges (the words meaning “tough mother”) is the ____. dura mater c. arachnoid mater pia mater d. cortex ____ a. b. 22. The middle layer of the meninges, known as the “spider layer,” is called the ____. dura mater c. arachnoid mater pia mater d. cortex ____ a. b. 23. The body’s control center and communication network, which directs the functions of the body’s organs and systems, is (the) ____. acetylcholine c. neuroglia reflex arc d. nervous system ____ a. b. 24. An involuntary reaction to an external stimulus is known as a(n) ____. reflex c. resting potential action potentiald. reflex arc ____ 25. Star-shaped cells that wrap around neurons for support in the brain and spinal cord and connect neurons to blood vessels are known as ____. microglia c. astrocytes ganglia d. axons a. b. ____ a. b. 26. Small cells that protect the central nervous system by engulfing and destroying microbes and cellular debris are called ____. horns c. astrocytes neuroglia d. microglia 11 ____ a. b. ____ a. b. ____ 27. Sensory neurons that convey information from receptors in the periphery of the body to the brain and spinal cord are also known as ____. afferent nerves c. horns efferent nerves d. microglia 28. Transmission of nerve impulses across the synapses is brought about by the secretions of very low concentrations of the chemicals known as ____. neurotransmitters c. endorphins dopamine d. chromatids a. b. 29. Motor neurons that convey information from the brain and spinal cord to muscles and glands are called ____. afferent nerves c. horns efferent nerves d. microglia ____ a. b. 30. Nerve cell bodies located outside the central nervous system are called ____. microglia c. astrocytes ganglia d. axons ____ 31. The three layers of connective tissue membranes that cover and protect the spinal cord and brain are the ____. Nissl bodies c. meninges neurofibral nodes d. ventral roots a. b. ____ a. b. 32. The area where the terminal branches of an axon are close to, but not touching, the ends of the dendrites of another neuron is called a(n) ____. synapsec. tract horn d. ganglia ____ a. b. 33. Neurons that detect stimuli in the environment are known as ____. synapses c. receptors axons d. stimulants ____ a. b. 34. The part of the nervous system that consists of the brain and spinal cord is known as the ____. autonomic nervous system c. peripheral nervous system central nervous system d. somatic nervous system ____ 35. The part of the nervous system that consists of all the ne rves that connect the brain and spinal cord with sensory receptors, muscles, and glands is known as the ____. a. autonomic nervous system c. peripheral nervous system b. central nervous system d. somatic nervous system ____ a. b. 36. root horn A bundle of nerve cells or fibers is known as a(n) ____. c. axon d. nerve ____ a. b. 37. Over 60% of all brain cells are ____. neuroglia cells c. Nissl bodies ganglia cells d. arachnoid cells 12 ____ a. b. 38. The cells that are located only in the peripheral nervous system and make up the neurilemma and myelin sheath are the ____. neuroglia cells c. Schwann cells ependymal cellsd. arachnoid cells ____ a. b. 39. The cells that form the lining of the cavities in the brain and spinal cord are the ____. neuroglia cells c. Schwann cells ependymal cellsd. arachnoid cells ____ a. b. 40. Neurons that have several dendrites and one axon are known as ____. neurofibrilar nodes c. multipolar neurons unipolar neurons d. bipolar neurons ____ a. b. 41. Gaps in the myelin sheath that allow ions to flow freely from extracellular fluids to the axons are known as ____. nodes of Ranvier c. dorsal roots Schwann cells d. Nissl bodies ____ a. b. 42. Neurons that have one dendrite and one axon are known as ____. neurofibral nodes c. multipolar neurons unipolar neurons d. bipolar neurons ____ a. b. 43. Neurons that have only one process extending from the cell body are known as ____. neurofibral nodes c. multipolar neurons unipolar neurons d. bipolar neurons ____ a. b. 44. Nerve cell bodies that are found outside the central nervous system are generally grouped together to form ____. ganglia c. roots tracts d. dendrites ____ a. b. 45. Areas of gray matter in the spinal cord are called ____. tracts c. horns ependymal cellsd. astrocytes ____ a. b. 46. Nerve cells that transmit nerve impulses in the form of electrochemical changes are known as ____. horns c. ependymal cells endorphins d. neurons ____ a. b. 47. The neuroglial cells that form the fatty myelin sheath on the neurons of the brain and spinal cord are the ____. oligodendrogliac. microglia astrocytes d. ganglia ____ a. b. 48. The cells that line the fluid-filled ventricles of the brain are the ____. glial cells c. Schwann cells ependymal cellsd. neurolemmocytes ____ a. b. 49. The term that refers to groups of myelinated axons from many neurons supported by neuroglia is ____. gray matter c. white matter horns d. Nissl bodies 13 ____ a. b. 50. The correct number of pairs of cervical nerves is ____. one (1) c. twelve (12) eight (8) d. five (5) ____ a. b. 51. The correct number of pairs of thoracic nerves is ____. one (1) c. twelve (12) eight (8) d. five (5) ____ a. b. 52. The correct number of pairs of lumbar nerves is ____. one (1) c. twelve (12) eight (8) d. five (5) ____ a. b. 53. The correct number of pairs of coccygeal nerves is ____. one (1) c. twelve (12) eight (8) d. five (5) ____ a. b. 54. The phrase that means “tough mother” is ____. pia mater c. dura mater arachnoid mater d. cortex ____ a. b. c. d. 55. Which of the following is true of resting membrane potential? Membrane permeability to Na+ ions changes. Na+ ions rush into the cell. Membrane potential changes from negative to positive inside the cell. Resting membrane potential is maintained by the sodium-potassium pump. ____ a. b. 56. Depolarization of the nerve membrane begins with ____. increased permeability of Na+ ions c. decreased permeability of Na+ ions increased permeability of K+ ions d. decreased permeability of K+ ions ____ a. b. 57. sulci gyri ____ a. b. 58. The prominent fissure that separates the cerebrum into right and left halves or hemispheres is the ____. longitudinal fissure c. corpus callosum insula d. transverse fissure ____ a. b. 59. iris pupil The white, outermost layer of the eyeball, composed of tough connective tissue, is the ____. c. cornea d. sclera ____ a. b. 60. pupil iris The area of sharpest vision in the retina of the eye is known as the ____. c. fovea centralis d. optic disk ____ a. b. 61. pupil iris The innermost layer of the eye is called the ____. c. aqueous humor d. retina The elevations or folds on the surface of the cerebrum are called ____. c. ventricles d. tracts 14 ____ a. b. 62. The area of the retina where the nerve fibers leave the eye is known as the ____. optic disk c. iris pupil d. fovea centralis ____ a. b. 63. The membrane that separates the external ear canal from the middle ear is known as the ____. tympanic membrane c. stapes oval window d. round window ____ 64. Inflammation of the meninges caused by bacterial or viral infection that results in headache, fever, and a stiff neck is known as ____. otitis c. encephalitis meningitis d. choroiditis a. b. ____ a. b. 65. A condition that is a normal part of aging, commonly occurring during the f orties, and resulting in a decrease in the ability of the eye to accommodate for near vision is known as ____. glaucoma c. presbyopia myopia d. cataracts ____ a. b. 66. The ability to see close objects but not distant ones is known as ____. myopia c. presbyopia hyperopia d. glaucoma ____ 67. A disorder in which certain parts of the brain are overactive, producing convulsive seizures and possible loss of consciousness, is ____. cerebral palsy c. encephalitis Parkinson’s disease d. epilepsy a. b. ____ a. b. 68. An inflammation of brain tissue, usually caused by a virus and transmitted by a mosquito bite, is known as ____. cerebral palsy c. encephalitis Parkinson’s disease d. epilepsy 69. A disease characterized by tremors of the hand when resting and a slow, shuffling walk with rigidity of muscular movements is known as ____. cerebral palsy c. encephalitis Parkinson’s disease d. epilepsy ____ a. b. 70. Elevations of the tongue are called ____. papillaec. incus gyri d. sulci ____ a. b. 71. The part of the eye that consists of smooth muscles that hold the lens in place is called the ____. gyri c. optic tracts ciliary body d. sulci ____ a. b. 72. The colored part of the eye is the ____. retina c. cornea pupil d. iris ____ a. b. 73. Another name for earwax is ____. cerumen c. sweat sebum d. rhodopsin a. b. ____ 15 ____ a. b. 74. The flexible, visible part of the ear (the ear flap) is called the ____. stapes c. auricle incus d. cochlea ____ a. b. 75. The opening in the center of the colored part of the eye , which allows light to enter the eye, is known as the ____. sclera c. iris pupil d. cornea ____ a. b. 76. The transparent part of the outermost layer of the eye is the ____. sclera c. iris pupil d. cornea ____ 77. The photo-sensitive cells in the retina that function in dim light, but do not produce color vision, are called the ____. rods c. ciliary body cones d. gyri a. b. ____ a. b. ____ a. b. ____ a. b. ____ a. b. ____ 78. The photo-sensitive cells in the retina that require lots of light and produce color vision are called the ____. rods c. ciliary body cones d. gyri 79. The cavities within the brain that connect with each other, with the subarachnoid space of the meninges, and with the central canal of the spinal cord are called ____. ventricles c. gyri sulci d. fissures 80. The part of the brain that contains all of the ascending and descending tracts that connect between the spinal cord and various parts of the brain is called the ____. hypothalamus c. medulla oblongata cerebrum d. cerebellum 81. The part of the brain that controls our feelings of rage and aggression, contains the body’s thirst center, and maintains waking and sleeping patterns is the ____. cerebellum c. hypothalamus thalamus d. cerebrum a. b. 82. A condition caused by excessive pressure buildup in the aqueous humor, which can constrict blood vessels entering the eye, is known as ____. glaucoma c. cataracts conjunctivitis d. myopia ____ a. b. 83. The second layer of the eye, which contains blood vessels and pigment cells, is known as the ____. sclera c. cornea choroid d. retina 16