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1 BSC 2010- Exam4 (80 points total); 11/07/03 Name___KEY____________ Social Security#_____________________ Honor Code Pledge- In taking this exam I have adhered to the Academic Honor Code of Florida State University. ____________________________(your signature) On the back of the last page of the exam list any questions on this exam which you feel were ambiguous, unclear or unfair and why. Instructions. Insert the following information in the box in the upper left had corner of the test form (see figure at right): InstructorEllington, Course- BSC 2010, Section- 01, formexam # 4B, Date – 11/7. In the space marked “print last name first” write your name in block letters (last name then “space” first name) and bubble the appropriate letter in using a # 2 pencil. In the “special coding section”, B PRINT A LARGE “ ”. Put your social security number in the “identification no.” space and bubble numbers below. Failure to follow the above directions may lead to you getting no credit for the exam. 1 2 INSTRUCTIONS: There are 40 x 2 pts questions. Best of luck! 1. If you were to determine the base content of DNA, you would discover that in terms of relative amounts ___________. (A) A=C, (B) A=T, (C) A=G, (D) G=A (E) G=U. 2. The backbone of each DNA strand ( not the double helix) is formed by ______ (A) the covalent bonding of base to base, (B) hydrogen bonding of base to base, (C) hydrogen bonding of amino group to the sugar, (D) hydrogen bonding of sugar to base, (E) covalent bonding of sugar to sugar 3. Which of the following proteins is (are) involved in DNA replication _____ (A) helicase, (B) primase, (C) single strand binding proteins, (D) DNA polymerase (E) all of the above. 4. An Okazaki fragment ________ (A) is found in the lagging strand, (B) is made during DNA replication, (C) is started by the presence of an RNA-DNA complex (D) all of the above (E) none of the above. 5. The promoter on the DNA molecule consists of the following _____ (A) TATA box and initiation site, (B) introns plus exons, (C) TATA box plus termination site site, (D) initiation and termination sites (D) TATA box plus poly A tail 6. DNA consists of two strands wrapped around each other. If you are looking at one end of the DNA double helix, one strand begins with a(an) ______ and the other strand begins with a(an) ________. (A) phosphate, phosphate, (B) amino group, phosphate, (C) phosphate, hydroxyl, (D) hydroxyl, hydroxyl (E) none of the above. 7. After the first round of DNA replication, the original parent strands will _____ (A) be found as one of the strands in both daughter DNA double helices, (B) be found in none of the daughter DNA helices, (C) be found in only one of the daughter DNA helices, (D) be found as fragments in all the strands of the daughter double helices (E) not appear until the third round of replication 8. During transcription, the direction of synthesis of the RNA is ____ (refers to the RNA) (A) from 3’ to 3’, (B) from 5’ to 3’, (C) from 5’ to 5’, (D) from 3’ to 5’ (E) in the same direction as reading from the DNA template. 2 3 9. RNA plays a special role in DNA replication in that ___ (A) RNA forms the major structure of ribosomes, (B) RNA forms small primers for initiation of synthesis of the new strand, (C) RNA is involved in opening of the DNA double helix, (D) RNA carries the message out of the nucleus (E) RNA provides energy. For questions 10-12 refer to the table below. UUU UUC UUA UUG CUU CUC CUA CUG AUU AUC AUA AUG GUU GUC GUA GUG Phe Phe Leu Leu Leu Leu Leu Leu Ile Ile Ile Met Val Val Val Val UCU UCC UCA UCG CCU CCC CCA CCG ACU ACC ACA ACG GCU GCC GCA GCG Ser Ser Ser Ser Pro Pro Pro Pro Thr Thr Thr Thr Ala Ala Ala Ala UAU UAC UAA UAG CAU CAC CAA CAG AAU AAC AAA AAG GAU GAC GAA GAG Tyr Tyr Stop Stop His His Gln Gln Asn Asn Lys Lys Asp Asp Glu Glu UGU UGC UGA UGG CGU CGC CGA CGG AGU AGC AGA AGG GGU GGC GGA GGG Cys Cys Stop Trp Arg Arg Arg Arg Ser Ser Arg Arg Gly Gly Gly Gly 10. Which of the amino acids listed below is the most redundant in terms of codons ? (A) Phe, (B) Tyr, (C) Asn, (D) Leu or (E) Trp. 11. Suppose you isolated a small piece of mRNA consisting of the following sequence- 5’AUCGGGGACUAU-3’. What would be the sequence of this small peptide coded for by the RNA? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) IleLysMetGly, GlyTyrLeuVal, IleGlyAspTyr, TyrAspGlyPhe GlyGlyGlyGly. 12. For the mRNA sequence in question # 39, suppose there was a mutation in which the first A was deleted leaving only 11 nucleotides. What would be the sequence of this small peptide? (A) GlyThrPhe, (B) SerGlyThr, (C) GlySerTyr, (D) AlaSerTyr (E) LysGlyAsp. 13. Bacteriophage genetic material that has become incorporated into the host cell’s DNA is known as _______ (A) a retrophage, (B) a plasmid, (C) a prophage, (D) lysis (E) none of the above 14. A mature mRNA molecule (one ready for translation) in eukaryotes has the following components EXCEPT ____ (A) INTRONS, (B) EXONS, (C) polyA tail, (D) GTP cap (E) none of the above. 3 4 15. Which of the following is(are) a function of RNA polymerase II _____ . (A) binds to promoter site (B) unwinds DNA duplex (C) catalyzes the attachment of nucleotides to a growing RNA chain, (D) all of the above (E) none of the above. 16. One strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence 5’-ATTCGC-3’. What would be the sequence of the other strand of DNA?(A) 5’-ATTCGC-3’, (B) 3’-ATTCGC-5’, (C) 3’-UAAGCG-5’, (D) 5’-TAAGCG-3’ (E) 3’-TAAGCG-5’ 17. Reverse transcriptase (RT) catalyzes which of the following reactions: (A) RNA DNA, (B) RNA protein, (C) mRNA tRNA, (D) DNA mRNA (E) protein RNA. 18. Consider the DNA sequence: 3’- ATGAGGTCTTTTACGT-5’. The mRNA transcript from this DNA sequence would be _______________________. (A) 5’- TACTCCAGAAAATGCA-3’, (B) 3’- TACTCCAGAAAATGCA-5’, (C) 3’- UACUCCAGAAAAUGCA-5’, (D) 5’- UACUCCAGAAAAUGCA-3’ or (E) 5’- TACTCCAGAAAATGCA-5’. 19. ______________ is a small circular piece of DNA found in bacteria which usually carries a few genes that code for traits used in special environments. (A) nucleoid, (B) chromosome, (C) plasmid, (D) provirus or (E) prophage. 20. Newly synthesized mRNA in prokaryotes can be used immediately for translation because____________. (A) it does not need to be transported out of the nucleus, (B) it lacks INTRONS, (C) it does not require a polyA tail, (D) it does not require a GTP cap or (E) all of the above. 21. Signal or targeting sequences in proteins _______________. (A) tell the cell to transport the protein to particular places such as mitochondria or the Golgi apparatus, (B) are located at the N-terminal end of the protein, (C) are cleaved (cut by protease) to form the mature protein, (D) all of the above or (E) none of the above. 22. The P and the A sites are located in the ____ (A) mRNA, (B) spliceosome, (C) ribosome, (D) tRNA (E) none of the above. 23. The number of different tRNA molecules is _____ (A) equal to the number of different amino acids, (B) equal to the number of different codons, (C) somewhat less than the number of different codons, (D) greater than the number of different codons (E) equal to twelve. 4 5 24. During translation, when the termination codon reaches the _____ site, a _________ binds to the codon causing the cleavage (=cutting) of the peptidyl-tRNA thereby releasing the polypeptide. (A) A, termination factor, (B) P, waterase, (C) A, waterase, (D) P, cap protein, (E) A, P protein. 25. Polyribosomes consist of _____ (A) many ribosomes cooperating together to translate two or more messages at the same time, (B) many ribosomes cooperating together to translate a single mRNA message into many copies of the protein, (C) many ribosomes cooperating together to make a single protein molecule, (D) structures which are found in the nucleus (E) none of the above. 26. Consider the following DNA sequence- AATGACAT. Which of the following is a point mutation. (A) substitution of an A for the G in the sequence, (B) substitution of a T for the C in the sequence, (C) deletion of the G in the sequence, (D) all of the above (A) none of the above. 27. Viruses containing DNA cause the cells that they infect to _____ (A) make virus protein, (B) make virus mRNA, (C) replicate virus DNA, (D) all of the above (E) none of the above. 28. Which of the following is a kind of post-translational modification(A) cleavage of protein by a protease (enzyme that cuts proteins), (B) attachment of phosphate molecules, (C) attachment of sugar molecules, (D) attachment of lipid molecules (E) all of the above. 29. Aminoacylsynthetases are enzymes that ____ (A) catalyze peptide bond synthesis, (B) attach amino acids onto mRNAs, (C) attach amino acids onto tRNAs, (D) are involved in post-translational modification of proteins (E) terminate RNA translation. 30. In the lytic phase of the phage life cycle which of the following does not occur? (A) new phages are assembled, (B) the bacterial cell dies, (C) phage proteins are synthesized, (D) the phage DNA becomes incorporated into the bacterial DNA (E) phage DNA is replicated. 31. Transformation in bacteria is the process by which _______________. (A) plasmids are exchanged between bacteria, (B) genes are expressed, (C) genes are transferred to bacteria by phages, (D) foreign DNA is taken up and incorporated, OR (E) RNA is made from DNA. 5 6 32. Consider the TRYP OPERON. When tryptophan levels are high in bacterial cells___________. (A) the repressor protein becomes capable of binding to the TATA box, (B) the repressor protein becomes incapable of binding to the TATA box, (C) the repressor protein becomes capable of binding to the regulatory gene, (D) the repressor protein becomes incapable of binding to the operator OR (E) the repressor protein becomes capable of binding to the operator. 33. Consider the LAC OPERON. When lactose is removed from the medium, lactose levels in the bacterial cell fall. This will _______________. (A) cause the repressor protein to be incapable of binding to the operator, (B) result in a decrease in the transcription of structural genes controlled by the LAC operon, (C) make the repressor protein capable of binding to the operator, (D) A and B but not C OR (E) B and C but not A. 34. The role of the polyA tail in mRNA is to _____ (A) facilitate binding of the mRNA to the nucleus, (B) enhance the stability of the mRNA, (C) prevent the mRNA from leaving the nucleus, (D) stop transcription (E) stop translation. 35. HIV, the causative agent of AIDS, _______ (A) is a retrovirus, (B) contains RNA, (C) triggers synthesis of viral proteins by the infected cell, (D) all of the above (E) none of the above. 36. After the tRNA molecule advances to the E site on the ribosome it _____________ . (A) is attached to the growing polypeptide chain (B) has water attached to the amino acyl end (C) becomes complexed with an initiation factor (D) is released from the ribosome/mRNA complex (E) is polyadenylated 37. The mutation that produced the sickle cell hemoglobin defect is a ____________mutation. (A) chromosomal (B) nonsense (C) silent (D) missense (E) frame shift 38. When the ___________ binds to the enhancer sites in a eukaryotic gene, the DNA folds in such a way that it comes in close proximity to the ____________. (A) RNA polymerase II, promoter region, (B) mRNA, activator region, (C) activator proteins, termination site, (D) start codon, stop codon OR (E) activator proteins, promoter region. 39. A prion _____________. (A) consists of protein, (B) lacks DNA, (C) is infectious, (D) all of the above OR (E) none of the above. 40. Retroviruses differ from bacteriophages in that they ______________. (A) Infect bacterial cells only, (B) contain both DNA and RNA as their genetic information, (C) do not produce diseases in humans, (D) contain RNA as their genetic information OR (E) lack protein in their capsids. PLEASE CHECK TO SEE IF YOU HAVE FILLED AND BUBBLED IN ALL THE NECESSARY INFORMATION ON THE BUBBLE SHEET! 6