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Test Paper : III Test Subject : LIFE SCIENCE Test Subject Code : Test Booklet Serial No. : _______________________ OMR Sheet No. : _________________________________ K-2814 Roll No. (Figures as per admission card) Name & Signature of Invigilator/s Signature: ____________________________________ Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________ Name : ___________________________________ Paper : III Subject : LIFE SCIENCE Time : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150 Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75 A»Ü¦ìWÜÚWæ ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá D ±Üâo¨Ü ÊæáàÆᤩ¿áÈÉ J¨ÜXst Óܧ٨ Ü È Ü É ¯ÊÜá¾ ÃæãàÇ ®ÜíÃÜ®áÜ ° ÃæÀáÄ. 2. D ±Ü£ÅPæ¿áá ÖÜá BÁáR Ë«Ü¨Ü G±Ü³ñæô¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° JÙÜWæãíw¨æ. Ü É 3. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ±ÝÅÃíÜ »Ü¨È Ü É , ±ÜÅÍ° æ ±ÜâÔ¤P¿ æ á®Üá° ¯ÊÜáWæ ¯àvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ¨Üá. Êæã¨ÜÆ 5 ¯ËáÐÜWÙÜ È ¯àÊÜâ ±ÜâÔ¤P¿ æ á®Üá° ñæÿ æ áÆá ÊÜáñÜᤠPæÙXÜ ®Üíñæ PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX ±ÜÄàQÒÓÆ Ü á PæãàÃÜÇÝX¨æ. 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OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ®Ü AívÝPÜê£ ÖæãÃÜñáÜ ±ÜwÔ ¸æàÃæ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà Óܧ٨ Ü È Ü É WÜáÃÜá£Ô¨ÜÃ,æ A¨ÜÃÜ ÊÜåèÆÂÊÜÞ±Ü®Ü ÊÜÞvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ. 1. 6. OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉ Pæãor ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° hÝWÜÃÜãPÜñæÀáí¨Ü K©Ä. 7. GÇÝÉ PÜÃÜvÜá PæÆÓÜÊÜ®Üá° ±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á Pæã®æ¿áÈÉ ÊÜÞvÜñÜPÜR¨Ü᪠. 8. ¯ÊÜá¾ WÜáÃÜáñÜ®Üá° ×ÃÜíWܱÜwÓÜÖÜá¨Ý¨Ü ¯ÊÜá¾ ÖæÓÜÃÜá A¥ÜÊÝ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà bÖæ°¿á®Üá° , ÓÜíWÜñÜÊÝ¨Ü ÓܧÙÜ ÖæãÃÜñÜá ±ÜwÔ, OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà »ÝWÜ¨È Ü É Ãæ¨ÃÜ ,æ ¯àÊÜâ A®ÜÖì Ü ñæWæ ¸Ý«ÜÂÃÝXÃÜᣤàÄ. 9. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿áá ÊÜááX¨Ü®ÜíñÜÃÜ, PÜvÝx¿áÊÝX OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ÓÜíËàPÜÒPÜÄWæ ¯àÊÜâ ×í£ÃÜáXÓܸàæ PÜá ÊÜáñÜᤠ±ÜÄàPÝÒ PæãsÜw¿á ÖæãÃÜWæ OMR ®Üá° ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ 10. 11. 12. 13. Pæãívæã¿á PÜãvܨÜá. ±ÜÄàPæÒ¿á ®ÜíñÜÃÜ, ±ÜÄàPÝÒ ±ÜÅÍæ° ±Ü£ÅPæ¿á®Üá° ÊÜáñÜᤠ®ÜPÜÆá OMR EñܤÃÜ ÖÝÙæ¿á®Üá° ¯Êæã¾í©Wæ ñæWæ¨ÜáPæãívÜá ÖæãàWÜÖÜá¨Üá. ¯àÈ/PܱÜâ³ ¸ÝÇ ±ÝÀáíp ±æ® ÊÜÞñÜÅÊæà E±ÜÁãàXÔÄ. PÝÂÆáRÇàæ oà A¥ÜÊÝ ÇÝW pæàÇ CñÝ©¿á E±ÜÁãàWÜ樆 áÜ ° ¯ÐæàÓÜÇÝX¨æ. ÓÜÄ AÆÉ¨Ü EñܤÃÜWÜÚWæ Má| AíPÜ CÃÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ . K-2814 1 Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the question of Paper III are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet kept inside the Booklet. If you mark at any place other than in the ovals in OMR Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must NOT carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy of OMR Answer Sheet soon after the examination. 11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 12. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. ±Üâ.£.®æãà./P.T.O. *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 LIFE SCIENCE PAPER III Note : This paper contains seventy-five (75) objective type questions. Each question carries two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory. 4. Segmentation genes in Drosophila are 1. Polytene chromosomes are found in divided into three groups-gap, pair rule (A) Metaphase I and segment polarity, based on their (B) Prophase I mutant phenotype. Which of the following (C) Interphase sequences of genes expressed from early to late embryo is correct ? (D) Leptotene stage (A) hairy paired patched tailless 2. The differentiated part of the chromosome (B) hunchback which gets associated with even-skipped fushi tarazu spindle fibers during cell division is (C) odd (A) Telomere paired (B) Centriole (D) tailless (C) Kinetochore wingless skipped giant wingless hairy fushi tarazu gooseberry (D) Centrosome 5. During urine formation, the filtration of blood at the glomerulus is 3. TATA boxes and Pribnow boxes are components of (A) An active process (A) Operators (B) An osmotic process (C) A pressure-dependent physical (B) Enhancers process (C) Promoters (D) a non energy-mediated transport (D) Activators Paper III process 2 K-2814 *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 9. Lethal autosomal dominant trait with complete penetrance has a population 6. A technique for visualizing chromosome aberrations using fluorescent labelled frequency of 1 : 50000. What is the rate of new mutation ? DNA probes which are hybridized to chromosomal DNA (A) 1/150000 (A) Karyotyping (B) 1/100000 (B) G banding (C) 1/50000 (C) Chromosome painting (D) 1/25000 (D) ELISA 10. The correct order of performing DNA profiling is 7. When two mutants having the same (A) DNA isolation PCR amplification electrophoresis southern autoradiography blotting analysis of DNA pattern phenotype were crossed, the progeny obtained showed a wild phenotype. Thus the mutations are (B) DNA isolation restriction PCR amplification digestion electrophoresis southern autoradiography blotting analysis of DNA pattern (A) segregating from each other (B) non allelic (C) allelic (D) independently assorting (C) DNA isolation PCR amplification restriction digestion electrophoresis southern blotting autoradiography analysis of 8. In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is 23. By independent assortment, how many possible different DNA pattern gametes can be produced ? (A) 23 restriction (D) DNA isolation digestion PCR amplification southern blotting electrophoresis autoradiography analysis of 2 (B) 223 (C) 24 23 (D) 23 K-2814 DNA pattern 3 Paper III *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 14. The formation of the acrosome 11. Uptake of naked DNA by a bacterium is (A) Occurs in the epididymis (A) Transduction (B) Involves the maturation of lysosomal enzymes (B) Transfection (C) Involves mitotic activity (C) Conjugation (D) Involves meiotic divisions (D) Transformation 15. The primary regulator of Leydig cell secretion is 12. Which part of the chromosome is (A) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) involved in aging ? (B) Luteinizing Hormone (LH) (A) Kinetochore (C) FSH releasing factor (B) Chromocenter (D) Inhibin (C) Centromere 16. During oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria synthesis of ATP occurs (D) Telomere due to (A) Oxidation of glucose by glycolysis 13. Name the techniques to identify cells (B) Electrochemical proton gradient involved in transcription (C) Oxidation of NADH to NAD+ (A) Northern blots and Restriction (D) Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA digestion 17. Copper is associated with which of the (B) PCR and Restriction digestion following mitochondrial enzymes ? (C) Northern blots and in situ (A) Cytochrome oxidase hybridization (B) Succinate dehydrogenase (C) Catalase (D) In situ hybridization and Restriction digestion Paper III (D) Acid Phosphatase 4 K-2814 *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 18. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are 22. The female sex organ of common in Batrachospermum is called as (A) Being proteinaceous (A) Oogonium (B) Being synthesized in the body of (B) Carpagonium organisms (C) Female conceptacle (C) Enhancing oxidation metabolism (D) Female cryptoblast (D) Regulating metabolism 23. During the dark reaction of photosynthesis is cyanobacteria 19. BRACA I and BRACA II are involved in diagnosis of (A) Water is split (A) Breast Cancer (B) CO is reduced to organic compound (B) Myeloma (C) Chlorophyll is activated (C) Carcinoma (D) 6-C sugar broken into 3-C sugar 2 (D) Teratoma 24. The net gain of ATP molecules in glycolysis 20. Carcinomas are tumours of (A) Zero (A) Hematopoietic system (B) Two (B) Lymph nodes (C) Four (C) Epithelial cells (D) Eight (D) Connective tissues 25. The etiological agent responsible for 21. Replica plating is used to detect tikka disease of ground nut is (A) Mutant colony (A) Cercospora sp. (B) Aerobic Bacteria (B) Alternaria sp. (C) Blue white colony (C) Xanthomonas sp. (D) Normal cells (D) Pucunia sp. K-2814 5 Paper III *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 26. The chromosomes appear as beaded 30. Bacterial blight of Paddy is caused by structure at (A) Xanthamonas oryzae (A) Leptotene (B) Xanthamonas compestris (B) Pachytene (C) Xanthamonas malvacearum (C) Diakinesis (D) Erwinia amylovora (D) Telophase I 27. Which of the following bacteria convert 31. The etiological agent of Head smut of nitrites to nitrates ? sorghum is (A) Nitrosomonas (A) Cercospora arachidicola (B) Chromatium (B) Pyricularia grysea (C) Nitrobacter (C) Sclerospora graminicola (D) Chlorobium (D) Sphacelotheca sorghi 28. The plant cell differs from the animal cell in the absence of 32. An antigen is (A) Endoplasmic reticulum (A) A highly specific protein produced by the body in response to a (B) Ribosomes foreign body (C) Mitrochondria (B) A chemical that inhibits the growth (D) Centrioles of microorganisms 29. According to Baltimore system of (C) An antibody produced by the body classification positive-sense single that stimulates the production of stranded RNA virus belongs to which of antibodies by the bodys immune the following groups ? system (A) Group IV (D) A chemical/biological substance (B) Group III that stimulates the production of (C) Group II antibodies by the bodys immune (D) Group I system Paper III 6 K-2814 *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 33. Cancerous cells are destroyed by the following type of cell 36. Which of the following is not involved in DNA damage repair ? (A) Macrophages (A) Excision repair (B) NK cells (B) Recombinational repair (C) Neutrophils (C) SOS repair (D) Eosinophils (D) RNA polymerase 34. Phagocytosis may be characterized by which of the following statements ? 37. Multigene families evolve through (A) Only gene duplication (A) It involves fluid uptake by small vesicles (B) Random mutations (B) It involves the uptake of cellular debris in large endocytic vesicles (C) Only unequal crossing-over (D) Both duplication and unequal (C) It is not important in digestive process in mammals crossing (D) It is a constitutive process 38. Antibiotic resistance among bacteria represents 35. Consider the following statements : IS elements are (A) Balancing selection 1) Cut and paste transposons (B) Stabilizing selection 2) These are sequence of DNA in genome of prokaryotes (C) Directional selection (D) Disruptive selection 3) These sequences are parasites of host genome 39. MHC class I molecules presents Which of the above statements are correct ? peptides to T-cells in which pathway ? (A) 1 and 2 are correct (A) Endocytic (B) 3 and 1 are correct (B) Humoral (C) 2 and 3 are correct (C) Complement (D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (D) Endogenous K-2814 7 Paper III *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 40. What is the meaning of Molecular clock ? 43. Which of the following cannot be diagnosed by amniocentesis ? (A) Rate of DNA or protein sequence evolution is constant over time or (A) Down syndrome among evolutionary lineages (B) Cystic fibrosis (B) Rate of only protein sequence evolution is constant over time or (C) Sickle cell anemia among evolutionary lineages (D) Polio (C) Rate of only DNA sequence evolution is constant over time or among evolutionary lineages 44. Which of the following plant that existed (D) Rate of DNA or protein sequence abundantly during Mesozoic era is evolution is not constant over time considered as a living fossil ? or among evolutionary lineages (A) Ginkgo biloba 41. Blue tongue virus causes high mortality (B) Pinus among (C) Taxus (A) Fish (D) Glossopteris (B) Human (C) Sheep 45. Plant movements that take place in (D) Poultry response to contact stimulus is called 42. Gondwana land includes the following (A) Thigmotrophic movement (A) North America (B) Thermonastic movement (B) Europe (C) Chemotrophic movement (C) Antarctica (D) Hydrotrophic movement (D) India Paper III 8 K-2814 *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 48. The binding of RNA polymerase to 46. Which of the following statement does DNA can be established by not relate to hydrogen bonds ? (A) Fingerprint analysis (A) A hydrogen bond takes place (B) Footprint analysis between an electron deficient (C) Western blot analysis hydrogen and an electron rich (D) Northern blotting heteroatom 49. During translation the 30S initiation (B) Weaker than electrostatic complex formation does not involve interactions but stronger than (A) fMet-tRNA ! " # van der Waals interactions (B) mRNA (C) The electron deficient hydrogen is (C) IF-3 called a hydrogen bond donor (D) eIF-3 50. The maintenance of lysogeny is (D) Water molecules interact with each mediated by gene products of other and form an ordered layer next (A) cl to hydrophobic regions (B) N (C) cro 47. The termination of DNA replication (D) clll occurs 51. Metagenomics deals with (A) At stop codon (A) Culture independent analysis of (B) When replication fork reaches Ter biodiversity sequence (B) Isolation of soil bacteria (C) After formation of Tus-Ter complex (C) Study of metabolic genes (D) At Ori-C K-2814 (D) Study of proteins 9 Paper III *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 52. Bacteria respond to oxidative stress by 55. If two populations are merged, each production of with different frequencies of an allele at (A) Super Oxide Dismutase a locus and randomly mating occurs (B) Phytochelatin immediately, how long will it take to (C) Sucrose achieve Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in (D) Protamine the new population ? (A) One generation 53. ESR spectroscopy provides information on (B) Ten generation (A) Metal concentration in solutions (C) Depends on the allele frequencies (B) Neutrons in an element (D) Never (C) Free radicals 56. Multi-gene families evolve through (D) Molecular structure (A) Only gene duplication 54. Which of the following statement about succession is correct ? (B) Random mutations (A) Secondary succession occurs (C) Only unequal crossing-over where no soil exists (D) Both duplication and unequal (B) Primary succession occurs in crossing areas where soil remains after a disturbance 57. Antibiotic resistance among bacteria (C) Secondary succession can occur represents where a disturbance has left soil (A) Balancing selection intact (B) Stabilizing selection (D) Some cases of succession involve facilitation, a phenomenon in which (C) Directional selection local species inhibit the growth of (D) Disruptive selection newcomers Paper III 10 K-2814 *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 Which of the following combinations is 58. Total genes of a given population is correct ? (A) gene frequency (A) i, ii, iv (B) genotype (B) i, iii, iv (C) gene family (C) i, ii, iii (D) gene pool (D) ii, iii, iv 59. Use and disuse theory was proposed by 61. All of the following are believed to (A) Morgan contribute to genomic diversity among various species, except (B) Lamarck (A) gene duplication (C) Darwin (B) gene transcription (D) Weismann (C) lateral gene transfer 60. Consider the following statements. (D) chromosomal rearrangements The main drawbacks of the Darwinism were 62. Choose the correct combination of i) The lack of any direct evidence of molecular markers used in PCR based the effectiveness of natural DNA amplification selection in nature (A) RFLP, AFLP and SSR ii) Considering evolution as individual phenomena not as (B) AFLP, SSR and RAPD population phenomena (C) RFLP, RAPD and SSR iii) Ignorance of laws of inheritance (D) RAPD, RFLP and SSR iv) Struggle for existence K-2814 11 Paper III *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 63. Choose the correct sequence of events 64. Which of the following forms of DNA in a next generation sequencing based travel faster when run together in an whole genome sequencing project agarose gel electrophoresis ? (A) DNA extraction (A) Nicked supercoiled DNA shearing library preparation assembly annotation sequencing (B) Supercoiled DNA finishing submission to (C) Linear DNA Genbank (D) Plasmid DNA (B) DNA extraction preparation library sequencing assembly annotation finishing submission to 65. After agarose gel electrophoresis RNA is detected by (A) Horse radish peroxidase Genbank (C) DNA extraction adapter ligation amplification assembly annotation (B) Glucose oxidase shearing (C) cDNA probes library sequencing (D) Spectro photometer finishing submission to 66. The scintillation counters detect Genbank radioactivity by (D) DNA extraction adapter ligation (A) Absorption of radiation library amplification shearing finishing annotation (B) Excitation of fluors sequencing assembly (C) Ionization of gas by radiation submission to (D) Molecular size Genbank Paper III 12 K-2814 *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 67. Which of the following organisms Which of the following is right match ? genome was chemically synthesized ? (A) i 1, ii 2, iii 3, iv 4 (A) Mycoplasma genitalium (B) i 1, ii 3, iii 2, iv 4 (B) Saccharomycen cerevesae (C) Rana pipeans (C) i 4, ii 3, iii 2, iv 1 (D) Drosophila melanogaster (D) i 4, ii 2, iii 3, iv 1 68. The total protein coding sequence is 70. The co-factor involved in the the human genome is conversion of succinic acid to fumaric (A) 15% acid is (B) 1.5% (A) NAD+ (C) 0.15% (B) FAD (D) 30% (C) GTP 69. Match the following : (D) NADP List I List II i) Desert 1) Gibbon 71. The plants enduring salt stress tend to adaptation ii) Fossorial accumulates which of the following substance 2) Naked mole rat adaptation iii) Scansorial (A) Alanine 3) Opossum (B) Proline adaptation iv) Arboreal (C) Oxalic acid 4) Horned toad adaptation K-2814 (D) Salicylic acid 13 Paper III *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 72. BioNET-International was initiated by 74. Antibodies obtained from hybridoma for one antigen are known as (A) CAB-International (A) Polyclonal antibody (B) ICSU (B) Monoclonal antibody (C) WWF (C) Multiclonal antibody (D) UNEP (D) Differential antibody 73. The most preferred organism for 75. The scientist associated with work of industrial production of Recombinant genetically engineered bacteria for insulin is degradation by hydrocarbon is (A) Saccharomyces (A) Joseph Lister (B) Lactobacillus (B) Anand Chakraborthy (C) Pichia (C) H. G. Khoranna (D) Bacillus (D) Inder Verma _______________ Paper III 14 K-2814 *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 bñÜᤠÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ Space for Rough Work K-2814 15 Paper III *2814* Total Number of Pages : 16 bñÜᤠÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ Space for Rough Work Paper III 16 K-2814