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Transcript
Test Paper
: III
Test Subject
: LIFE SCIENCE
Test Subject Code :
Test Booklet Serial No. : _______________________
OMR Sheet No. : _________________________________
K-2814
Roll No.
(Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator/s
Signature: ____________________________________
Name
: ____________________________________
Signature : ___________________________________
Name
: ___________________________________
Paper
: III
Subject : LIFE SCIENCE
Time : 2 Hours 30 Minutes
Maximum Marks : 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16
Number of Questions in this Booklet : 75
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K-2814
1
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to
open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately
by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the
period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C)
and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the
correct response against each item.
Example :
A
B
C
D
where (C) is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the question of Paper III are to be indicated
in the OMR Sheet kept inside the Booklet. If you mark at any
place other than in the ovals in OMR Answer Sheet, it will not be
evaluated.
6. Read the instructions given in OMR carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself
liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return the test OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators
at the end of the examination compulsorily and must NOT
carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. You can take away question booklet and carbon copy of
OMR Answer Sheet soon after the examination.
11. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
12. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.
13. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.
±Üâ.£.®æãà./P.T.O.
*2814*
Total Number of Pages : 16
LIFE SCIENCE
PAPER – III
Note :
This paper contains seventy-five (75) objective type questions. Each question
carries two (2) marks. All questions are compulsory.
4. Segmentation genes in Drosophila are
1. Polytene chromosomes are found in
divided into three groups-gap, pair rule
(A) Metaphase I
and segment polarity, based on their
(B) Prophase I
mutant phenotype. Which of the following
(C) Interphase
sequences of genes expressed from early
to late embryo is correct ?
(D) Leptotene stage
(A) hairy
paired
patched
tailless
2. The differentiated part of the chromosome
(B) hunchback
which gets associated with
even-skipped
fushi tarazu
spindle fibers during cell division is
(C) odd
(A) Telomere
paired
(B) Centriole
(D) tailless
(C) Kinetochore
wingless
skipped
giant
wingless
hairy
fushi tarazu
gooseberry
(D) Centrosome
5. During urine formation, the filtration of
blood at the glomerulus is
3. TATA boxes and Pribnow boxes are
components of
(A) An active process
(A) Operators
(B) An osmotic process
(C) A pressure-dependent physical
(B) Enhancers
process
(C) Promoters
(D) a non energy-mediated transport
(D) Activators
Paper III
process
2
K-2814
*2814*
Total Number of Pages : 16
9. Lethal autosomal dominant trait with
complete penetrance has a population
6. A technique for visualizing chromosome
aberrations using fluorescent labelled
frequency of 1 : 50000. What is the rate
of new mutation ?
DNA probes which are hybridized to
chromosomal DNA
(A) 1/150000
(A) Karyotyping
(B) 1/100000
(B) G banding
(C) 1/50000
(C) Chromosome painting
(D) 1/25000
(D) ELISA
10. The correct order of performing DNA
profiling is
7. When two mutants having the same
(A) DNA isolation
PCR amplification
electrophoresis
southern
autoradiography
blotting
analysis of DNA pattern
phenotype were crossed, the progeny
obtained showed a wild phenotype.
Thus the mutations are
(B) DNA isolation
restriction
PCR amplification
digestion
electrophoresis
southern
autoradiography
blotting
analysis of DNA pattern
(A) segregating from each other
(B) non allelic
(C) allelic
(D) independently assorting
(C) DNA isolation
PCR
amplification
restriction
digestion
electrophoresis
southern blotting
autoradiography
analysis of
8. In humans, the haploid number of
chromosomes is 23. By independent
assortment, how many possible different
DNA pattern
gametes can be produced ?
(A) 23
restriction
(D) DNA isolation
digestion
PCR amplification
southern blotting
electrophoresis
autoradiography
analysis of
2
(B) 223
(C) 24
23
(D) 23
K-2814
DNA pattern
3
Paper III
*2814*
Total Number of Pages : 16
14. The formation of the acrosome
11. Uptake of naked DNA by a bacterium is
(A) Occurs in the epididymis
(A) Transduction
(B) Involves the maturation of lysosomal
enzymes
(B) Transfection
(C) Involves mitotic activity
(C) Conjugation
(D) Involves meiotic divisions
(D) Transformation
15. The primary regulator of Leydig cell
secretion is
12. Which part of the chromosome is
(A) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
involved in aging ?
(B) Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
(A) Kinetochore
(C) FSH releasing factor
(B) Chromocenter
(D) Inhibin
(C) Centromere
16. During oxidative phosphorylation in
mitochondria synthesis of ATP occurs
(D) Telomere
due to
(A) Oxidation of glucose by glycolysis
13. Name the techniques to identify cells
(B) Electrochemical proton gradient
involved in transcription
(C) Oxidation of NADH to NAD+
(A) Northern blots and Restriction
(D) Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
digestion
17. Copper is associated with which of the
(B) PCR and Restriction digestion
following mitochondrial enzymes ?
(C) Northern blots and in situ
(A) Cytochrome oxidase
hybridization
(B) Succinate dehydrogenase
(C) Catalase
(D) In situ hybridization and Restriction
digestion
Paper III
(D) Acid Phosphatase
4
K-2814
*2814*
Total Number of Pages : 16
18. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are
22. The female sex organ of
common in
Batrachospermum is called as
(A) Being proteinaceous
(A) Oogonium
(B) Being synthesized in the body of
(B) Carpagonium
organisms
(C) Female conceptacle
(C) Enhancing oxidation metabolism
(D) Female cryptoblast
(D) Regulating metabolism
23. During the dark reaction of
photosynthesis is cyanobacteria
19. BRACA I and BRACA II are involved in
diagnosis of
(A) Water is split
(A) Breast Cancer
(B) CO is reduced to organic compound
(B) Myeloma
(C) Chlorophyll is activated
(C) Carcinoma
(D) 6-C sugar broken into 3-C sugar
2
(D) Teratoma
24. The net gain of ATP molecules in
glycolysis
20. Carcinomas are tumours of
(A) Zero
(A) Hematopoietic system
(B) Two
(B) Lymph nodes
(C) Four
(C) Epithelial cells
(D) Eight
(D) Connective tissues
25. The etiological agent responsible for
21. Replica plating is used to detect
tikka disease of ground nut is
(A) Mutant colony
(A) Cercospora sp.
(B) Aerobic Bacteria
(B) Alternaria sp.
(C) Blue white colony
(C) Xanthomonas sp.
(D) Normal cells
(D) Pucunia sp.
K-2814
5
Paper III
*2814*
Total Number of Pages : 16
26. The chromosomes appear as beaded
30. Bacterial blight of Paddy is caused by
structure at
(A) Xanthamonas oryzae
(A) Leptotene
(B) Xanthamonas compestris
(B) Pachytene
(C) Xanthamonas malvacearum
(C) Diakinesis
(D) Erwinia amylovora
(D) Telophase I
27. Which of the following bacteria convert
31. The etiological agent of Head smut of
nitrites to nitrates ?
sorghum is
(A) Nitrosomonas
(A) Cercospora arachidicola
(B) Chromatium
(B) Pyricularia grysea
(C) Nitrobacter
(C) Sclerospora graminicola
(D) Chlorobium
(D) Sphacelotheca sorghi
28. The plant cell differs from the animal
cell in the absence of
32. An antigen is
(A) Endoplasmic reticulum
(A) A highly specific protein produced
by the body in response to a
(B) Ribosomes
foreign body
(C) Mitrochondria
(B) A chemical that inhibits the growth
(D) Centrioles
of microorganisms
29. According to Baltimore system of
(C) An antibody produced by the body
classification positive-sense single
that stimulates the production of
stranded RNA virus belongs to which of
antibodies by the body’s immune
the following groups ?
system
(A) Group IV
(D) A chemical/biological substance
(B) Group III
that stimulates the production of
(C) Group II
antibodies by the body’s immune
(D) Group I
system
Paper III
6
K-2814
*2814*
Total Number of Pages : 16
33. Cancerous cells are destroyed by the
following type of cell
36. Which of the following is not involved in
DNA damage repair ?
(A) Macrophages
(A) Excision repair
(B) NK cells
(B) Recombinational repair
(C) Neutrophils
(C) SOS repair
(D) Eosinophils
(D) RNA polymerase
34. Phagocytosis may be characterized by
which of the following statements ?
37. Multigene families evolve through
(A) Only gene duplication
(A) It involves fluid uptake by small
vesicles
(B) Random mutations
(B) It involves the uptake of cellular
debris in large endocytic vesicles
(C) Only unequal crossing-over
(D) Both duplication and unequal
(C) It is not important in digestive
process in mammals
crossing
(D) It is a constitutive process
38. Antibiotic resistance among bacteria
represents
35. Consider the following statements : IS
elements are
(A) Balancing selection
1) Cut and paste transposons
(B) Stabilizing selection
2) These are sequence of DNA in
genome of prokaryotes
(C) Directional selection
(D) Disruptive selection
3) These sequences are parasites of
host genome
39. MHC class I molecules presents
Which of the above statements are
correct ?
peptides to T-cells in which pathway ?
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(A) Endocytic
(B) 3 and 1 are correct
(B) Humoral
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Complement
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(D) Endogenous
K-2814
7
Paper III
*2814*
Total Number of Pages : 16
40. What is the meaning of Molecular clock ?
43. Which of the following cannot be
diagnosed by amniocentesis ?
(A) Rate of DNA or protein sequence
evolution is constant over time or
(A) Down syndrome
among evolutionary lineages
(B) Cystic fibrosis
(B) Rate of only protein sequence
evolution is constant over time or
(C) Sickle cell anemia
among evolutionary lineages
(D) Polio
(C) Rate of only DNA sequence
evolution is constant over time or
among evolutionary lineages
44. Which of the following plant that existed
(D) Rate of DNA or protein sequence
abundantly during Mesozoic era is
evolution is not constant over time
considered as a living fossil ?
or among evolutionary lineages
(A) Ginkgo biloba
41. Blue tongue virus causes high mortality
(B) Pinus
among
(C) Taxus
(A) Fish
(D) Glossopteris
(B) Human
(C) Sheep
45. Plant movements that take place in
(D) Poultry
response to contact stimulus is called
42. Gondwana land includes the following
(A) Thigmotrophic movement
(A) North America
(B) Thermonastic movement
(B) Europe
(C) Chemotrophic movement
(C) Antarctica
(D) Hydrotrophic movement
(D) India
Paper III
8
K-2814
*2814*
Total Number of Pages : 16
48. The binding of RNA polymerase to
46. Which of the following statement does
DNA can be established by
not relate to hydrogen bonds ?
(A) Fingerprint analysis
(A) A hydrogen bond takes place
(B) Footprint analysis
between an electron deficient
(C) Western blot analysis
hydrogen and an electron rich
(D) Northern blotting
heteroatom
49. During translation the 30S initiation
(B) Weaker than electrostatic
complex formation does not involve
interactions but stronger than
(A) fMet-tRNA
!
"
#
van der Waals interactions
(B) mRNA
(C) The electron deficient hydrogen is
(C) IF-3
called a hydrogen bond donor
(D) eIF-3
50. The maintenance of lysogeny is
(D) Water molecules interact with each
mediated by gene products of
other and form an ordered layer next
(A) cl
to hydrophobic regions
(B) N
(C) cro
47. The termination of DNA replication
(D) clll
occurs
51. Metagenomics deals with
(A) At stop codon
(A) Culture independent analysis of
(B) When replication fork reaches Ter
biodiversity
sequence
(B) Isolation of soil bacteria
(C) After formation of Tus-Ter complex
(C) Study of metabolic genes
(D) At Ori-C
K-2814
(D) Study of proteins
9
Paper III
*2814*
Total Number of Pages : 16
52. Bacteria respond to oxidative stress by
55. If two populations are merged, each
production of
with different frequencies of an allele at
(A) Super Oxide Dismutase
a locus and randomly mating occurs
(B) Phytochelatin
immediately, how long will it take to
(C) Sucrose
achieve Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in
(D) Protamine
the new population ?
(A) One generation
53. ESR spectroscopy provides information
on
(B) Ten generation
(A) Metal concentration in solutions
(C) Depends on the allele frequencies
(B) Neutrons in an element
(D) Never
(C) Free radicals
56. Multi-gene families evolve through
(D) Molecular structure
(A) Only gene duplication
54. Which of the following statement about
succession is correct ?
(B) Random mutations
(A) Secondary succession occurs
(C) Only unequal crossing-over
where no soil exists
(D) Both duplication and unequal
(B) Primary succession occurs in
crossing
areas where soil remains after a
disturbance
57. Antibiotic resistance among bacteria
(C) Secondary succession can occur
represents
where a disturbance has left soil
(A) Balancing selection
intact
(B) Stabilizing selection
(D) Some cases of succession involve
facilitation, a phenomenon in which
(C) Directional selection
local species inhibit the growth of
(D) Disruptive selection
newcomers
Paper III
10
K-2814
*2814*
Total Number of Pages : 16
Which of the following combinations is
58. Total genes of a given population is
correct ?
(A) gene frequency
(A) i, ii, iv
(B) genotype
(B) i, iii, iv
(C) gene family
(C) i, ii, iii
(D) gene pool
(D) ii, iii, iv
59. ‘Use and disuse’ theory was proposed by
61. All of the following are believed to
(A) Morgan
contribute to genomic diversity among
various species, except
(B) Lamarck
(A) gene duplication
(C) Darwin
(B) gene transcription
(D) Weismann
(C) lateral gene transfer
60. Consider the following statements.
(D) chromosomal rearrangements
The main drawbacks of the Darwinism
were
62. Choose the correct combination of
i) The lack of any direct evidence of
molecular markers used in PCR based
the effectiveness of natural
DNA amplification
selection in nature
(A) RFLP, AFLP and SSR
ii) Considering evolution as
individual phenomena not as
(B) AFLP, SSR and RAPD
population phenomena
(C) RFLP, RAPD and SSR
iii) Ignorance of laws of inheritance
(D) RAPD, RFLP and SSR
iv) Struggle for existence
K-2814
11
Paper III
*2814*
Total Number of Pages : 16
63. Choose the correct sequence of events
64. Which of the following forms of DNA
in a next generation sequencing based
travel faster when run together in an
whole genome sequencing project
agarose gel electrophoresis ?
(A) DNA extraction
(A) Nicked supercoiled DNA
shearing
library preparation
assembly
annotation
sequencing
(B) Supercoiled DNA
finishing
submission to
(C) Linear DNA
Genbank
(D) Plasmid DNA
(B) DNA extraction
preparation
library
sequencing
assembly
annotation
finishing
submission to
65. After agarose gel electrophoresis RNA
is detected by
(A) Horse radish peroxidase
Genbank
(C) DNA extraction
adapter ligation
amplification
assembly
annotation
(B) Glucose oxidase
shearing
(C) cDNA probes
library
sequencing
(D) Spectro photometer
finishing
submission to
66. The scintillation counters detect
Genbank
radioactivity by
(D) DNA extraction
adapter ligation
(A) Absorption of radiation
library amplification
shearing
finishing
annotation
(B) Excitation of fluors
sequencing
assembly
(C) Ionization of gas by radiation
submission to
(D) Molecular size
Genbank
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67. Which of the following organisms
Which of the following is right match ?
genome was chemically synthesized ?
(A) i – 1, ii – 2, iii – 3, iv – 4
(A) Mycoplasma genitalium
(B) i – 1, ii – 3, iii – 2, iv – 4
(B) Saccharomycen cerevesae
(C) Rana pipeans
(C) i – 4, ii – 3, iii – 2, iv – 1
(D) Drosophila melanogaster
(D) i – 4, ii – 2, iii – 3, iv – 1
68. The total protein coding sequence is
70. The co-factor involved in the
the human genome is
conversion of succinic acid to fumaric
(A) 15%
acid is
(B) 1.5%
(A) NAD+
(C) 0.15%
(B) FAD
(D) 30%
(C) GTP
69. Match the following :
(D) NADP
List – I
List – II
i) Desert
1) Gibbon
71. The plants enduring salt stress tend to
adaptation
ii) Fossorial
accumulates which of the following
substance
2) Naked mole rat
adaptation
iii) Scansorial
(A) Alanine
3) Opossum
(B) Proline
adaptation
iv) Arboreal
(C) Oxalic acid
4) Horned toad
adaptation
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(D) Salicylic acid
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72. BioNET-International was initiated by
74. Antibodies obtained from hybridoma for
one antigen are known as
(A) CAB-International
(A) Polyclonal antibody
(B) ICSU
(B) Monoclonal antibody
(C) WWF
(C) Multiclonal antibody
(D) UNEP
(D) Differential antibody
73. The most preferred organism for
75. The scientist associated with work of
industrial production of Recombinant
genetically engineered bacteria for
insulin is
degradation by hydrocarbon is
(A) Saccharomyces
(A) Joseph Lister
(B) Lactobacillus
(B) Anand Chakraborthy
(C) Pichia
(C) H. G. Khoranna
(D) Bacillus
(D) Inder Verma
_______________
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bñÜᤠŸÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ
Space for Rough Work
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15
Paper III
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Total Number of Pages : 16
bñÜᤠŸÃÜÖÜPÝRX ÓܧÙÜ
Space for Rough Work
Paper III
16
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