Download Human Genetics and Populations: Chapters 14, 15 and 5 (mrk 2012)

Biology TEST: Human Genetics and Populations: Chapters 14, 15 and 5 (mrk 2012)
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
The answers to the following questions can be found in Chapter 14.
____
1. Human females produce egg cells that have
a. one X chromosome.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X or one Y chromosome.
d. one X and one Y chromosome.
Figure 14–1
____
2. According to Figure 14–1, what is the approximate probability that a human offspring will be female?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
____
3. A human female inherits
a. two copies of every gene located on the X chromosome.
b. twice as many sex chromosomes as a human male inherits.
c. one copy of every gene located on the Y chromosome.
d. all of the same genes that a human male inherits.
____
4. How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype?
a. 2
b. 23
c. 44
d. 46
____
5. Sex-linked genes are located on
a. the autosomal chromosomes.
b. the X chromosome only.
c. the Y chromosome only.
d. both the X chromosome and the Y chromosome.
____
6. Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because the allele for colorblindness is
a. dominant and located on the X chromosome.
b. recessive and located on the Y chromosome.
c. recessive and located on the X chromosome.
d. recessive and located on the Y chromosome.
____
7. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Females cannot have hemophilia.
b. A colorblind girl’s father must be colorblind.
c. A sex-linked allele cannot be dominant.
d. A colorblind boy’s father must be colorblind.
____
8. Human males have
a. one X chromosome only.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X and one Y chromosome.
d. two Y chromosomes.
____
9. Which of the following form(s) a Barr body?
a. one of the Y chromosomes in a male cell
b. one of the X chromosomes in a male cell
c. one of the X chromosomes in a female cell
d. both of the X chromosomes in a female cell
____ 10. The formation of a Barr body inactivates
a. half of the genes on one X chromosome in a female cell.
b. one whole X chromosome in a female cell.
c. one whole Y chromosome in a male cell.
d. one gene on one X chromosome in a male cell.
____ 11. A cat that has spots of more than one color
a. has no Barr bodies.
b. is probably female.
c. is probably male.
d. could be male or female.
____ 12. Which of the following pairs of genotypes result in the same phenotype?
a. IAIA and IAIB
b. IBIB and IBi
c. IBIB and IAIB
d. IBi and ii
Blood Types
Blood Type
Combination of Alleles
A
IAIA or IAi
B
IBIB or IBi
AB
IAIB
O
ii
Figure 14–2
____ 13. If a man with blood type A and a woman with blood type B produce an offspring, what might be the
offspring’s blood type?
a. AB or O
b. A, B, or O
c. A, B, AB, or O
d. AB only
Figure 14–3
____ 14. Examine the pedigree in Figure 14–3. The allele for the presence of a white forelock is dominant. Therefore,
we can tell from the chart that in the couple labeled 2
a. the male is heterozygous and the female is homozygous.
b. the male is homozygous and the female is heterozygous.
c. the male is homozygous and the female is homozygous.
d. the male is heterozygous and the female is heterozygous.
Figure 14–5
____ 15. The trait in pedigree in Figure 14–5 has two alleles: P (dominant) and p (recessive). The black symbols show
the dominant phenotype, and the white symbols show the recessive phenotype. What is the genotype of
individual number 1?
a. PP
b. Pp
c. P
d. p
____ 16. How many generations are shown in the pedigree in Figure 14–5?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
____ 17. If the allele for having a white forelock is dominant, family members WITHOUT a white forelock are
a. homozygous recessive.
b. heterozygous.
c. homozygous dominant.
d. trisomal.
Figure 14–6
____ 18. For the pedigree in Figure 14–6, shaded symbols represent afflicted people. Males are squares; women are
circles. If the trait is a sex-linked trait carried on the X chromosome, what is true about the mother represented
by circle 1?
a. She has two alleles for the disorder.
b. She has one allele for the disorder.
c. She has no alleles for the disorder.
d. She has the genotype XXY.
____ 19. Which of the following is caused by a dominant allele?
a. Huntington’s disease
b. colorblindness
c. cystic fibrosis
d. sickle-cell disease
____ 20. Sickle cell disease is caused by a
a. change in one allele.
b. change in the size of a chromosome.
c. change in two proteins.
d. change in the number of chromosomes in a cell.
____ 21. In cystic fibrosis, a change in a single gene causes the protein called CFTR to
a. become less soluble.
b. fold improperly.
c. destroy the cell membrane.
d. transport sodium ions.
____ 22. People who are heterozygous for sickle cell disease are generally healthy because they
a. are resistant to many different diseases.
b. have some normal hemoglobin in their red blood cells.
c. are not affected by the gene until they are elderly.
d. produce more hemoglobin than they need.
____ 23. The failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis is called
a. nondisjunction.
b. X-chromosome inactivation.
c. Turner’s syndrome.
d. Down syndrome.
____ 24. Because the X chromosome contains genes that are vital for normal development, no baby has been born
a. with one X chromosome.
b. with three X chromosomes.
c. without an X chromosome.
d. with four X chromosomes.
____ 25. If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis,
a. only two gametes may form instead of four.
b. some gametes may have an extra copy of some genes.
c. the gamete cannot join another to form a organism.
d. the gametes redistribute chromosomes after meiosis.
Figure 14–7
____ 26. What is illustrated in Figure 14–7?
a. mutation
b. dominance
c. electrophoresis
d. nondisjunction
____ 27. Which piece of DNA would move fastest in gel electrophoresis? A segment that is
a.
b.
c.
d.
100 base pairs long.
1,000 base pairs long.
5,000 base pairs long.
100,000 base pairs long.
____ 28. What is the role of restriction enzymes in studying the human genome?
a. copying pieces of DNA
b. labeling different nucleotides with different colors of dyes
c. separating different pieces of DNA based on their size
d. cutting large DNA molecules into smaller pieces
Figure 14–9
____ 29. What new field is described by the overlap area in the Venn diagram in Figure 14–9?
a. biotechnology
b. bioinformatics
c. gene therapy
d. genetic engineering
____ 30. Why is it helpful to sequence many human genomes, instead of just one?
a. Scientists can confirm that everyone’s genome is identical.
b. Scientists can find how the human genome varies.
c. Scientists can find out how to get rid of viral DNA from our cells.
d. Scientists can provide insurance companies with everyone’s genome.
____ 31. Which was the first step in sequencing the human genome?
a. locating overlapping sequences
b. identifying genes by finding promoters
c. cutting the DNA into manageable pieces
d. sorting between introns and exons
____ 32. The Human Genome Project is an attempt to
a. sequence every person’s DNA.
b. sequence the DNA of every human gene.
c. cure infectious human diseases.
d. identify all restriction enzymes.
____ 33. The human genome was sequenced
a. by sequencing each gene on each chromosome, one at a time.
b. in order of the chromosome number on a karyotype.
c. by finding overlapping regions between sequenced DNA fragments.
d. by first organizing all the single-base differences into haplotypes.
____ 34. More than forty percent of the proteins coded for in the human genome are
a. used to help protect the DNA.
b. coded for on the X and Y chromosomes
c. thought to have the same function.
d. similar to proteins found in other organisms.
The answers to the following questions can be found in Chapter 15.
____ 35. To create animals that have the characteristics of both species, some people have bred buffalo and cattle
together. This is an example of
a. inbreeding
b. hybridization
c. genetic engineering
d. transformation
____ 36. To produce animals with certain desirable characteristics by selective breeding, humans take advantage of
a. the natural variations that exist among individuals.
b. the ideal traits produced by genetic engineering.
c. recombinant plasmids with foreign DNA.
d. drugs and radiation that can cause new mutations to arise.
____ 37. Suppose a bacterial culture was transformed with recombinant plasmids containing a gene for resistance to
penicillin. The bacterial culture was then treated with penicillin. Which of the following statements will
happen to the transformed bacteria?
a. They will die.
b. They will live.
c. They will under go PCR.
d. They will become polyploid.
____ 38. During transformation,
a. a prokaryote is changed into a eukaryote.
b. a cell takes in DNA from outside the cell.
c. foreign DNA is inserted into a plasmid.
d. the chromosome of a bacterium is mutated.
____ 39. A gene that makes it possible to distinguish bacteria that have been transformed by a plasmid from those that
have not is called
a. a resistance gene.
b. an antibiotic.
c. a genetic marker.
d. a clone.
____ 40. Which of the following joins two pieces of DNA together?
a.
b.
c.
d.
restriction enzyme
DNA ligase
plasmid
genetic marker
Figure 15–1
____ 41. What does Figure 15–1 represent?
a. gel electrophoresis being used to sequence DNA
b. hybridization being used to manipulate DNA
c. an enzyme being used to cut DNA
d. polymerase chain reaction being used to copy DNA
____ 42. Which of the following correctly describes the polymerase chain reaction?
a. A piece of DNA is cut with restriction enzymes into smaller pieces. DNA ligase is then
used to join the pieces together.
b. A restriction enzyme cuts a plasmid, and an antibiotic resistance gene is added. The
plasmid is then used to transform bacteria.
c. The gene for the GFP protein is inserted into a bacterial genome. The bacteria then make
the protein and pass the gene to their offspring.
d. DNA is heated to separate the strand, then primers are added. DNA polymerase then
builds new strands in the region between the primers.
____ 43. The process of making changes in the DNA code of a living organism is called
a. selective breeding.
b. genetic engineering.
c. inbreeding.
d. hybridization.
____ 44. A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is known as
a. a mutant.
b. a hybrid.
c. a polyploid.
d. recombinant DNA.
____ 45. What is the role of primers in PCR?
a. They add new nucleotides to build complementary strands of DNA based on the original
template.
b. They allow for the insertion of antibiotic resistance genes, so scientists can select the
bacteria that have been transformed.
c. They create a place for DNA polymerase to start its work building new DNA strands.
d. They separate the DNA strands and hold them apart, to create room for DNA polymerase
molecules.
____ 46. Which of the following would require the use of recombinant DNA?
a. Crossing two apple trees to create better apples.
b. Breeding a donkey and a horse to make a mule.
c. Engineering bacteria that produce human insulin.
d. Creating a polyploid banana tree.
____ 47. Why are plasmids so widely used in recombinant DNA studies?
a. because it is difficult to insert new genes into them
b. because they can be used to transform bacteria
c. because they naturally contain much foreign DNA
d. because they cannot be cut with restriction enzymes
____ 48. A plant cell is successfully transformed if
a. a plasmid enters the cell and the cell breaks down the plasmid.
b. the cell integrates foreign DNA into one of its chromosomes.
c. the cell reproduces normal offspring, which also produce offspring.
d. a plasmid is unable to enter the cell.
____ 49. Dolly is a sheep produced by cloning. Which of the following is a difference between Dolly and animals
produced by sexual reproduction?
a. The source of Dolly’s DNA is a single cell taken from an adult individual.
b. The DNA molecules in each of Dolly’s cells are identical.
c. Dolly has a mix of genes from her foster mother and the sheep that donated a nucleus of
one of its cells.
d. Dolly is genetically identical to her offspring.
____ 50. What kind of technique do scientists use to make transgenic organisms?
a. hybridization
b. inbreeding
c. inducing of mutations
d. genetic engineering
____ 51. What is an advantage of using transgenic bacteria to produce human proteins?
a. The human proteins produced by transgenic bacteria work better than those produced by
humans.
b. Transgenic bacteria can produce human proteins in large amounts.
c. The human proteins produced by transgenic bacteria last longer than those produced by
humans.
d. Transgenic bacteria can produce human proteins used to make plastics.
____ 52. Which of the following is made with recombinant DNA technology and helps farmers use less insecticide?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ht cotton
Bt cotton
hybridized cotton
selectively bred cotton
____ 53. Which of these is NOT a way in which a GM animals contribute to an increased food supply?
a. Cows have increased milk production because they have been injected with hormones
made by recombinant bacteria.
b. Bacteria are engineered to produce human insulin, which is administered to people with
diabetes.
c. Growth hormone genes have been used to make transgenic salmon, which grow much
more quickly than wild salmon.
d. Genetically modified pigs have been engineered, and they produce more lean meat than
non-GM pigs.
____ 54. GM crops that produce a higher yield per plant than unmodified crops would
a. produce more food for the same acreage.
b. produce less food for the same acreage.
c. produce more food but would use more land.
d. produce less food and require more land.
____ 55. What has been an advantage of producing transgenic plants?
a. increasing the food supply
b. using more pesticides
c. producing clones
d. studying human genes
Figure 15–2
____ 56. Why would the procedure in Figure 15–2 be performed?
a. to identify a parent
b. to treat a genetic disease
c. to clone an animal
d. to identify active genes
____ 57. The procedure illustrated in Figure 15–2 is an example of
a. genetic testing.
b. DNA finger printing.
c. gene therapy.
d. cloning.
____ 58. Gene therapy is successful if the
a. viruses carrying the replacement gene infect the person’s cells.
b. replacement gene is replicated in the person’s cells.
c. replacement gene is expressed in the person’s cells.
d. replacement gene is successfully spliced to viral DNA.
____ 59. What process can prospective parents use to determine if they are carrying recessive alleles for disease?
a. DNA fingerprinting
b. gene therapy
c. genetic testing
d. Agrobacterium transformation.
____ 60. The use of DNA fingerprinting relies on the fact that
a. the most important genes are different among most people.
b. no two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA.
c. most genes used for identification are dominant.
d. DNA fingerprints from different people can look very similar.
Figure 15–3
____ 61. What is shown in Figure 15–3?
a. DNA fingerprints
b. microarrays
c. engineered viruses
d. recombinant plasmids
____ 62. Which of the following correctly describes how DNA fingerprinting of certain genes can be used to establish
familial relationships?
a. The Y chromosome is used to look for links from a son to his mother, and mitochondrial
DNA is used to look for links to his father.
b. Plasmid DNA is used to look for links from a girl to her mother, and the Y chromosome is
used to look for links to her father.
c. Mitochondrial DNA is used to look for links from a son to his mother, and the Y
chromosome is used to look for links to his father.
d. Mitochondrial DNA is used to look for links from a girl to her mother, and plasmid DNA
is used to look for links to her father.
____ 63. Which of the following is true of the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act?
a. It protects Americans against being treated differently by employers or insurance
companies based on their genetic information
b. It prevents scientists from patenting the genes they discover if those genes were found in
other people.
c. It allows parents the legal right to choose specific genes for their children if the technology
becomes available.
d. It makes it legal for companies that produce genetically modified crops to keep their
genetic technologies a secret.
____ 64. Which of the following is true of patents in biotechnology?
a. Scientists are only allowed to patent genes; they cannot patent techniques they use in the
lab.
b. A scientist who holds a patent can demand high fees that block others from doing certain
research.
c. Human genes cannot be patented because they belong to everyone.
d. Genetically modified foods cannot be patented.
____ 65. One reason farmers often choose GM crops over non-GM crops because GM crops are
a. much safer.
b. more productive.
c. less expensive.
d. less controversial.
____ 66. Which of the following findings, if true, would support CRITICS of GM crops?
a. Bt corn is proven harmless to butterflies.
b. Bt cotton requires farmers to use less insecticide on their fields.
c. Bt corn reduces the populations of bees needed to pollinate the plants.
d. Bt cotton produces higher crop yields than other cotton.
____ 67. Which of the following findings, if true, would support an argument IN FAVOR of GM foods?
a. Farmers using herbicide-resistant crops pollute groundwater more than farmers growing
non-GM crops.
b. The cost of using GM crops is prohibitively expensive for 75 percent of all farmers.
c. Farmers who grow GM crops have much higher yields that farmers growing unmodified
crops.
d. The populations of bees on farms growing insect-resistant crops are half as large as bee
populations on other farms.
____ 68. Which statement below might be used by someone who is arguing against the use of GM crops?
a. GM crops reduce the amount of land and energy that need to be devoted to agriculture
because they have high yields.
b. GM crops need more insecticide to be used than other crops because they grow faster.
c. The patents for the seeds of GM crops are held by big companies, which may raise prices
and force small farmers out of business.
d. No studies have shown that GM crops are dangerous to human health.
The ansTThe
answers to the following questions can be found in Chapter 5.
____ 69. The pattern of spacing between individuals across the range of a population is its
a. growth rate.
b. distribution.
c. density.
d. habitat.
____ 70. There are 150 Saguaro cactus plants per square kilometer in a 10-square-kilometer area of Arizona desert. To
which population characteristic does this information refer?
a. growth rate
b. geographic range
c. age structure
d. population density
____ 71. If you know the range of a population, then you know
a. the number of individuals that live in an area.
b. the areas that are inhabited by the population.
c. the birth rate and the death rate.
d. the type of climate it lives in.
____ 72. Which of the following gives you information about a population’s age structure?
a. There are 10 males and 15 females under the age of two.
b. There are 25 individuals with a square kilometer.
c. All individuals are found at least 10 meters away from others.
d. Individuals live in rain forests in tropical South America.
____ 73. Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that play a role in population growth rate?
a. immigration
b. death rate
c. emigration
d. demography
____ 74. The movement of organisms into a range is called
a. immigration.
b. emigration.
c. population shift.
d. carrying capacity.
____ 75. Which of the following could describe a population that is decreasing in size?
a. The birthrate and the death rate remain the same.
b. The death rate is becoming lower than the birthrate.
c. The death rate is constant and the birthrate is increasing.
d. The death rate is becoming higher than the birthrate.
____ 76. If immigration and emigration numbers remain equal, which of these could cause a slowed growth rate?
a. increased birthrate
b. constant death rate
c. decreased birthrate
d. constant birthrate
____ 77. Which are two ways a population can decrease in size?
a. immigration and emigration
b. increased death rate and immigration
c. decreased birthrate and emigration
d. emigration and increased birthrate
Figure 5–1
____ 78. The graph in Figure 5–1 shows the growth of a bacterial population. Which of the following correctly
describes the growth curve?
a. logistic
b. limiting
c. demographic
d. exponential
____ 79. Which factor might NOT contribute to an exponential growth rate in a given population?
a. lower death rates
b. higher birthrates
c. less competition
d. reduced resources
____ 80. The various growth phases through which most populations go are represented on
a. a logistic growth curve.
b. an exponential growth curve.
c. a normal curve.
d. a population curve.
____ 81. As resources in a population become less available, the population
a. declines rapidly.
b. increases slowly.
c. reaches carrying capacity.
d. enters a phase of exponential growth.
____ 82. How are Phase 1 and Phase 2 of logistic growth similar?
a. A population is increasing, moving toward its carrying capacity during both phases.
b. A population is at its carrying capacity during both phases.
c. The death rate is higher than the birth rate during both phases.
d. The emigration rate is higher than the immigration rate during both phases.
____ 83. Something that controls the growth or size of a population is
a. the carrying capacity.
b. the growth rate.
c. a limiting factor.
d. a growth factor.
____ 84. Sea otters live in the ocean. Which of the following is NOT likely to be a limiting factor on the sea otter
population?
a. disease
b. competition
c. drought
d. predation
____ 85. Which will reduce competition within a species’ population?
a. fewer individuals
b. higher birthrate
c. fewer resources
d. higher population density
____ 86. If a population grows larger than the carrying capacity of the environment, which of these is most likely to
happen?
a. The death rate may rise.
b. The birthrate may rise.
c. The death rate must fall.
d. The birthrate must fall.
Figure 5–2
____ 87. Using Figure 5–2, what is the most likely cause of the decrease in moose population immediately after 1995?
a. Poisonous plants killed off many moose.
b. Many moose reached old age and died.
c. Overcrowding caused competition in the moose population.
d. A decrease in predators caused competition in the moose population.
____ 88. Which would be least likely to be affected by a density-dependent limiting factor?
a. a small, scattered population
b. a population with a high birthrate
c. a large, dense population
d. a population with a high immigration rate
____ 89. A disease resulting in the deaths of one third of a dense population of bats in a cave would be a
a. density-dependent limiting factor.
b. result of exponential growth.
c. density-independent limiting factor.
d. nutrient-limiting factor.
____ 90. Which of the following is a density-independent limiting factor?
a. earthquake
b. disease
c. emigration
d. parasitism
Figure 5–3
____ 91. The graph in Figure 5–3 shows the changes in a mosquito population. What caused the changes seen in the
graph?
a.
b.
c.
d.
a reduction in resources
a increase in predation.
a density-independent limiting factor
a density-dependent limiting factor
____ 92. Demography is the scientific study of
a. parasitism and disease.
b. modernized countries.
c. human populations.
d. none of the above
____ 93. Demographic transition is change from high birthrates and high death rates to
a. exponential growth.
b. low birthrates and low death rates.
c. low birthrates and high death rates.
d. indefinite growth.
____ 94. About 500 years ago, the world’s population started
a. decreasing.
b. to reach carrying capacity.
c. growing more rapidly.
d. to level off.
____ 95. Countries in the first stage of demographic transition have
a. a high death rate and a high birthrate.
b. a high death rate and a low birthrate.
c. a slowly growing population.
d. more old people than young people.
____ 96. The human population experienced exponential growth just after
a. agriculture began.
b. plowing and irrigation began.
c. the bubonic plague began.
d. the Industrial Revolution began.
____ 97. In Rwanda, there are more young children than teenagers, and more teenagers than adults. This age structure
indicates a population that
a. has stopped growing.
b. will double in 30 years.
c. has a steady growth rate.
d. will decrease in 30 years.
____ 98. In countries like India, the human population is growing
a. exponentially.
b. transitionally.
c. logistically.
d. demographically.
____ 99. Most of the worldwide human population is growing exponentially because
a. human populations have not reached their exponential curve.
b. most countries have not yet completed the demographic transition.
c. human populations do not conform to the logistic model.
d. the food supply is limitless.
____ 100. The human population in Canada contains almost equal numbers of people in each age group. This means that
the population in Canada will
a. double in 30 years.
b. grow slowly but steadily.
c. decrease exponentially.
d. decrease to its carrying capacity.