Download Biology Final Exam Review

Biology Final Exam Review
Chapters 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 16, 18
• Which statement is true regarding a cell’s
surface area-to-volume ratio?
• As the size of a cell increases, its volume
decreases.
• As the size of a cell decreases, its volume
increases.
• Larger cells will have a greater surface area-tovolume ratio.
• Smaller cells will have a greater surface areato-volume ratio.
• Smaller cells will have a greater surface areato-volume ratio.
• Which of the following is NOT an advantage of
asexual reproduction?
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increases genetic diversity
produces large number of offspring quickly
requires one parent
simple and efficient
• increases genetic diversity
• At the beginning of cell division, a
chromosome consists of two
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centromeres.
centrioles.
chromatids.
spindles.
• chromatids.
• What regulates the timing of the cell cycle in
eukaryotes?
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chromosomes
cyclins
DNA and RNA
nutrients
• cyclins
• The period between cell divisions is called
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cytokinesis.
interphase.
G3 phase.
prophase.
• interphase.
• Which of the following is TRUE about
totipotent cells?
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Adult stem cells are totipotent cells.
Embryonic stem cells are totipotent cells.
Totipotent cells are differentiated cells.
Totipotent cells can differentiate into any type
of cell and tissue.
• Totipotent cells can differentiate into any type
of cell and tissue.
• In sexually reproducing species, the number of
chromosomes in each body cell remains the
same from one generation to the next as a
result of
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differentiation and aging
homeostasis and dynamic equilibrium
meiosis and fertilization
mitosis and fertilization
• meiosis and fertilization
• What happens to the chromosome number
during meiosis?
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It becomes diploid.
It doubles.
It halves.
It stays the same.
• It halves.
• Which ratio of short to tall pea plants did
Mendel find in his F2 generation when he
crossed Tt x Tt?
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1:2
1:3:1
3:1
3:4
• 3:1
• Two pink-flowering plants are crossed. The
offspring flower as follows: 25% red, 25%
white, and 50% pink. What pattern of
inheritance does flower color in these flowers
follow?
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dominance
incomplete dominance
multiple alleles
polygenic traits
• incomplete dominance
• Which of the following is used to construct a
gene map?
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chromosome number
mutation rate
rate of meiosis
recombination rate
• recombination rate
• Alleles for the same trait (homologous
chromosomes) are separated from each other
during the process of
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cytokinesis.
meiosis I.
meiosis II.
metaphase II.
• meiosis I.
• Which of the following is NOT one of Gregor
Mendel’s principles?
• Crossing-over occurs during meiosis.
• Some forms of a gene may be dominant.
• The alleles for different genes usually
segregate independently.
• The inheritance of characteristics is
determined by factors (genes).
• Crossing-over occurs during meiosis.
• Genes A, B, C, and D are located on the same
chromosome. After calculating recombination
frequencies, a student determines that these
genes are separated by the following map
units: C–D, 25 map units; A–B, 12 map units;
B–D, 20 map units; A–C, 17 map units.
• How many map units apart are genes A and
D?
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5
8
10
12.5
• 8
• Genes A, B, C, and D are located on the same
chromosome. After calculating recombination
frequencies, a student determines that these
genes are separated by the following map
units: C–D, 25 map units; A–B, 12 map units;
B–D, 20 map units; A–C, 17 map units.
• Which gene map best reflects the student’s
data?
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A
B
C
D
• D
• The diagram to the right shows a process that
can occur during meiosis. The most likely
result of this process is:
• an inability to pass either of these
chromosomes to an offspring
• an increase in the chromosome number of the
organisms in which this process occurs
• a loss of genetic information that will produce
a genetic disorder in the offspring
• a new combination of inheritable traits that
can appear in the offspring
• new combination of inheritable traits that can
appear in the offspring
• During replication, which sequence of
nucleotides would bond with the DNA
sequence TATGA?
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AGTAT
ATACT
CACTA
TATGA
• ATACT
• The scientist(s) responsible for the discovery
of bacterial transformation is (are)
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Avery.
Franklin.
Griffith.
Watson and Crick.
• Griffith.
• Which of the following does NOT describe the
structure of DNA?
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contains adenine-guanine pairs
double helix
nucleotide polymer
sugar-phosphate backbone
• contains adenine-guanine pairs
• What did Hershey and Chase’s work show?
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Bacteria contain DNA but not protein.
Genes are probably made of DNA.
Genes are probably made of protein.
Viruses contain DNA but not protein.
• Genes are probably made of DNA.
• The two “backbones” of the DNA molecule
consist of
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adenines and sugars.
adenines and thymines.
phosphates and sugars.
thymines and sugars.
• phosphates and sugars.
• In eukaryotic chromosomes, DNA is tightly
coiled around proteins called
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chromatin.
DNA polymerase.
histones.
nucleotides.
• histones.
• When prokaryotic cells copy their DNA,
replication begins at
• dozens to hundreds of points along the
molecule.
• one point on the DNA molecule.
• opposite ends of the molecule.
• two points on opposite ends of the DNA
molecule.
• one point on the DNA molecule.
• Compared to eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells
contain
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about 1000 times more DNA.
about one thousandth as much DNA.
the same amount of DNA.
twice as much DNA.
• about one thousandth as much DNA.
• Under ideal conditions, a single bacterial cell
can reproduce every 20 minutes. The graph
shows how the total number of cells under
ideal conditions can change over time.
• How many cells are present after 80 minutes?
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1
2
16
32
• 16
• If the DNA of this bacterium is 4 million base
pairs in length, how many total molecules of
A, T, C, and G are required for replication to be
successful?
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2 million
4 million
8 million
32 million
• 8 million
• When DNA separates into two strands, the
DNA would most likely be directly involved in
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differentiation
evolution
fertilization
replication
• replication
• The instructions for the traits of an organism
are coded in the arrangement of
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bases in DNA in the nucleus
energy-rich bonds in starch molecules
fat molecules in the cell membrane
glucose units in carbohydrate molecules
• bases in DNA in the nucleus
• In an experiment, DNA from dead pathogenic
bacteria was transferred into living bacteria
that do not cause disease. These altered
bacteria were then injected into healthy mice.
These mice died of the same disease caused
by the original pathogens. Based on this
information, which statement would be a valid
conclusion?
• DNA changes the organism receiving the
injection of the original organism.
• DNA from a dead organism can become active
in another organism.
• DNA functions only in the original organism of
which it was a part.
• DNA is present only in living organisms.
• DNA from a dead organism can become active
in another organism.
• The diagram to the right represents a section
of a molecule that carries genetic information.
The pattern of numbers represents:
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a sequence of paired bases
folds of an amino acid
positions of gene mutations
the order of proteins in a gene
• a sequence of paired bases
• Which statements best describe the
relationship between the terms chromosomes,
genes & nuclei?
• Chromosomes are found on genes. Genes are
found in the nuclei.
• Chromosomes are found in the nuclei. Nuclei
are found in genes.
• Genes are found on chromosomes.
Chromosomes are found in the nuclei.
• Genes are found in the nuclei. Nuclei are
found in chromosomes.
• Genes are found on chromosomes.
Chromosomes are found in the nuclei.
• How does RNA differ from DNA?
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RNA contains adenine and ribose.
RNA contains ribose and thymine.
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose.
RNA contains uracil and ribose.
• RNA contains uracil and ribose.
• How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be
transcribed to mRNA?
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CGATAT
CGAUAU
GCUAUA
GCUTUT
• CGAUAU
• Which of the following codons signifies the
end of translation?
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AUC
CAA
CCA
UGA
• UGA
• Which of the chains of amino acids
corresponds to the nucleotide sequence
UCAAGCGUA?
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glu-asp-“stop”
glu-cys-pro
ser-ser-val
thr-arg-met
• ser-ser-val
• In eukaryotes, functional messenger RNA
molecules are made from
• exons spliced together after introns are
removed.
• exons spliced together with introns.
• introns spliced together after exons are
removed.
• long pieces of RNA shortened by the Dicer
enzyme.
• exons spliced together after introns are
removed.
• Promoters are
• DNA sequences near operons that regulate
transcription.
• genes that code for individual proteins.
• proteins that bind with DNA and prevent
transcription.
• small molecules that bind with repressor
proteins.
• DNA sequences near operons that regulate
transcription.
• Mutant 1 is a(n)
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deletion.
duplication.
inversion.
translocation.
• inversion.
• Mutant 2 is a(n)
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deletion.
duplication.
inversion.
translocation.
• duplication.
• Which statement is true regarding an
alteration or change in DNA?
• It is always advantageous to the individual.
• It is always detected by the process of
chromatography.
• It is always known as a mutation.
• It is always passed to the offspring.
• It is always known as a mutation.
• The chart to the right shows the relationship
between genes, the environment, and
coloration of tomato plants. Which statement
best explains the final appearance of these
tomato plants?
• The expression of gene A is not affected by
light.
• The expression of gene A varies with the
environment.
• The expression of gene B varies with the
presence of light.
• Gene B is expressed only in darkness.
• The expression of gene A varies with the
environment.
• A sudden change in the DNA of a chromosome
can usually be passed on to future generations
if the change occurs in a
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brain cell
liver cell
sex cell
skin cell
• sex cell
• A change in the order of DNA bases that code
for a respiratory protein will most likely cause
• a change in the sequence of amino acids
determined by the gene
• the digestion of the altered gene by enzymes
• the production of a starch that has a similar
function
• the release of antibodies by certain cells to
correct the error
• a change in the sequence of amino acids
determined by the gene
• Which of the following disorders can be
observed in a human karyotype?
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colorblindness
cystic fibrosis
sickle cell disease
trisomy 21
• trisomy 21
• Which of the following disorders is a direct
result of nondisjunction?
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cystic fibrosis
Huntington’s disease
sickle cell disease
Turner’s syndrome
• Turner’s syndrome
• A woman is homozygous for A− blood type. A
man has AB− blood type. What is the
probability that the couple’s child will have
type B− blood?
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0%
50%
75%
100%
• 0%
• Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder caused by a
• deletion of an amino acid from a chloride
channel protein.
• defective gene found on the X chromosome.
• single base substitution in the gene for
hemoglobin.
• trisomy of chromosome 21.
• deletion of an amino acid from a chloride
channel protein.
• The technique used to separate DNA strands
of different lengths is
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bioinformatics.
gel electrophoresis.
restriction enzyme digestion.
shotgun sequencing.
• gel electrophoresis.
• The study of whole genomes, including genes
and their functions, is called
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bioinformatics.
genomics.
information science.
life science.
• genomics.
• DNA can be cut into shorter sequences by
proteins known as
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haplotypes.
polymerases.
restriction enzymes.
restriction fragments.
• restriction enzymes.
• A student traced the recurrence of a widow’s
peak hairline in her family. Based on her
interviews and observations, she drew the
pedigree shown below.
• Which pattern of inheritance is consistent
with the pedigree?
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codominance
complete dominance
multiple alleles
sex-linked inheritance
• complete dominance
• A student traced the recurrence of a widow’s
peak hairline in her family. Based on her
interviews and observations, she drew the
pedigree shown below.
• What are the probable genotypes of the
student’s parents?
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Mother—Ww; Father—ww
Mother—ww; Father—ww
Mother—Ww; Father—Ww
Mother—WW; Father—Ww
• Mother—Ww; Father—Ww
• Scientific studies show that identical twins
who were separated at birth and raised in
different homes may vary in height, weight,
and intelligence. The most probable
explanation for these differences is that
• environments in which they were raised were
different enough to affect the expression of their
genes
• environments in which they were raised were
different enough to change the genetic makeup of
both individuals
• original genes of each twin increased in number as
they developed
• one twin received genes only from the mother while
the other twin received genes only form the father
• environments in which they were raised were
different enough to affect the expression of
their genes
• Which scientist formulated the theory of
evolution through natural selection?
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Charles Darwin
James Hutton
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
Thomas Malthus
• Charles Darwin
• Lamarck’s ideas about evolution were wrong
because he proposed that
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acquired characteristics can be inherited.
species are adapted to their environments.
species change over time.
species descended from other species.
• acquired characteristics can be inherited.
• Lyell’s Principles of Geology influenced Darwin
because it explained how
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adaptations occur.
organisms change over time.
the Galápagos Islands formed.
the surface of Earth changes over time.
• the surface of Earth changes over time.
• A farmer’s use of the best livestock for
breeding is an example of
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adaptation.
artificial selection.
extinction.
natural selection.
• artificial selection.
• The ability of an individual organism to survive
and reproduce in its natural environment is
called
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descent with modification.
evolution.
fitness.
natural selection.
• fitness.
• Which of the following is an important
concept in Darwin’s theory of evolution by
natural selection?
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descent with modification
homologous molecules
processes that change the surface of Earth
the tendency toward perfection
• descent with modification
• DNA and RNA provide evidence of evolution
because
• all organisms have nearly identical DNA and
RNA.
• each RNA codon specifies just one amino acid.
• in most organisms, the same codons specify
the same amino acids.
• no two organisms have exactly the same DNA.
• all organisms have nearly identical DNA and
RNA.
• The birds shown below are 2 of the species of
finches Darwin found on the Galápagos
Islands.
• What process produced the two different
types of beaks shown?
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artificial selection
disuse of the beak
geographical distribution
natural selection
• natural selection
• The birds shown below are 2 of the species of
finches Darwin found on the Galápagos
Islands.
• The large ground finch obtains food by
cracking seeds. Its short, strong beak is an
example of
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an adaptation.
a vestigial organ.
the struggle for existence.
the tendency toward perfection.
• an adaptation.
• Which population of organisms would be in
the greatest danger of becoming extinct?
• A population of organisms having few
variations living in a stable environment.
• A population of organisms having few
variations living in an unstable environment.
• A population of organisms having many
variations living in a stable environment.
• A population of organisms having many
variations living in an unstable environment.
• A population of organisms having few
variations living in an unstable environment.
• In order for a new species to develop, there
must be a change in the
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genetic makeup of a population
migration patterns within a population
rate of succession in the environment
temperature of the environment
• genetic makeup of a population
• Which statement in not part of the concept of
natural selection?
• Genes of an individual adapt to a changing
environment.
• Individuals that possess the most favorable
variations will have the best chance of
reproducing.
• More individuals are produced than will
survive.
• Variation occurs among individuals in a
population
• Genes of an individual adapt to a changing
environment.
• According to most scientists, which sequence
best represents the order of biological
evolution on Earth.
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ABC
BAC
BCA
CAB
• BCA
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic
of Linnaeus’s system for naming organisms?
• multipart name describing several traits
• name that identifies the organism’s genus
• name that includes the organism’s species
identifier
• two-part name
• multipart name describing several traits
• In which of the following are the Linnaean
ranks in correct order?
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genus, order, family
kingdom, phylum, class
order, class, family
phylum, kingdom, species
• kingdom, phylum, class
• In the six-kingdom system of classifying living
things, which kingdoms contain unicellular
organisms?
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Archaebacteria only
Eubacteria only
Eubacteria and “Protista” only
Eubacteria, Archaebacteria, Plantae, and
“Protista”
• Eubacteria, Archaebacteria, Plantae, and
“Protista”
• If species A and B have very similar genes,
which of the following statements is probably
true?
• Species A and species B are the same species
• Species A and B shared a relatively recent
common ancestor.
• Species A evolved independently of species B
for a long period.
• Species A is older than species B.
• Species A and B shared a relatively recent
common ancestor.
• The cladogram below shows the evolutionary
relationships among four groups of plants.
• Which of the following groups share the most
recent common ancestor?
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cone-bearing plants and flowering plants
ferns and flowering plants
mosses and ferns
mosses and cone-bearing plants
• cone-bearing plants and flowering plants
• The cladogram below shows the evolutionary
relationships among four groups of plants.
• Which derived character appeared first during
the course of the plants’ evolution?
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embryo
flowers
seeds
vascular tissues
• embryo