Download Principles of Biology Exam

Principles of Biology Exam
1.
2.
Which of the following is NOT usually found in a phospholipid:
A. Fatty acid
B. Glycerol
C. Phosphate
D. Sugar
Select the incorrect association.
A. Hydroxyl - alcohol
B. Carbonyl - aldehyde
C. Carboxyl - acid
Phosphate - thiol
D.
3.
Two substances with the same molecular formulas, but different structural formulas, are called:
A. Inbred
B. Isotopes
C. Isomers
D. Isotonic
4.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of water?
A. It is polar, and an excellent solvent
B. It is adhesive, and tends to stick to other things
C. It is non-polar, and an excellent solvent D. It is cohesive, and tends to stick to other water
5.
A hypothesis is a(n)_______________.
A. Proposed explanation
B. Observation
C. Conclusion
D. Result
6.
Which of the following is NOT correct about amino acids?
A. Amino acids contain asymmetric carbon atoms.
B. Amino acids contain an amino group and a carboxyl group fastened to an asymmetric carbon.
C. Amino acids can make peptide bonds.
D. There are over 30 kinds of individual amino acids found in the lipids of a cell.
7.
α-helix or β-sheets structures of polypeptides best describe ______ level of protein structure?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D.
Quaternary
8.
Carbon:
A. Has 4 electrons in its outermost shell so it forms 4 chemical bonds.
B. Prefers to give up 3 electrons to form ions.
C. Has 2 electrons in its outer shell so it forms 2 chemical bonds.
D. Is never found in inorganic molecules but always found in organic molecules.
9.
Saturated fatty acids contain the maximum number of _____________atoms per molecule.
A. Phosphorus
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
10.
Statement A. The molecular mass of a molecule can be obtained by adding the atomic
masses of all of the atoms contained in the molecule.
Statement B. One mole of any substance always contains Avogadro's number of units.
A. Only statement A is true. C. Both statements A and B are true.
B. Only statement B is true.
D. Neither statement A nor statement B is true.
11.
Acids:
A. Are proton acceptors.
B. Have pH's below 7.
C. Do not form salts when mixed with bases, but form water instead.
D. Are hydrocarbons with hydrogen bonded to carbon.
12.
All nucleic acids:
A. Are polymers of nucleotide monomers organized in a double stranded molecule.
B. Are polymers containing deoxyribose, and carry the genetic information of the cell.
C. Are made of monomers which contain a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a
nitrogenous base of either the purine or pyrimidine type.
D. Are polymers of nucleotide monomers organized in a three stranded molecule.
13.
Phospholipids:
A. Are important components of biological membranes because they are hydrophilic.
B. Are monoacyl glycerides with 2 phosphates attached to the glycerol molecule.
C. Have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions that forms bilayer in aqueous
solution.
D. Usually contain amphophilic domains, hydrophobic domains, and water.
14.
Functional hemoglobin has four polypeptides (2 α and 2 β subunits). Hemoglobin with
these four subunits best describe its ______ structure:
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
15.
An atom has six protons and eight neutrons. Its atomic number is
A. Two
B.
Six
C. Eight
D. Fourteen
16.
17.
Buffers
A. Make solutions acidic
C. Minimize pH changes
B. Make solutions basic
D. Have no effect on pH
Which type of chemical bond results from electron sharing?
A. Hydrogen
B. Ionic
C. Covalent
18.
Each is a property of water except
A. Exhibits cohesive forces
C. Helps to resist temperature change
D.
Hydrophobic
B. Exhibits adhesive forces
D. Maximum density is at 0 degrees
Celsius
19.
Amino acids are fastened together by _______ to form protein.
A. Phosphodiester bonds
B. Glycosidic bonds
C. Peptide bonds
20.
Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides fastened by ___________.
A. Peptide bonds
B. Glycosidic bonds
C. Phosphodiester bonds
21.
Atoms with similar atomic number but different atomic mass are:
A. Isotopes
B. Isomers
C.
Have
different positions in periodic table
22.
Chemically pure water has:
A. 0.00001 moles of H+/liter of water
C. Both A and B.
B. 0.000000001 moles of OH-/liter
of water
D. None of the above
23.
A solution has H+ ion concentration of 0.0001 moles/liter. This solution is:
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. None of the
above
24.
Amino acids have:
A. Carboxyl group
B
.
A
m
i
n
o
g
r
o
u
p
C
.
B
o
t
h
A
a
n
d
B
.
D
.
n
o
n
e
25.
A fatty acid with ___________ is unsaturated fatty acids:
A. Double carbon bond(s) in hydrocarbon chain
B. Single carbon bonds in
hydrocarbon chain
C. Double hydrogen bond
D. None of the
above
26.
Which of the following is NOT true about a good scientific hypothesis ?
A. Explains existing observations
B. Predicts outcome of
certain experiment
C. It can not be tested by experiment
D. It can be tested by
scientific experiment
27.
Which of the following is NOT true about living matter?
A. Made up of cells
B. Can
reproduce
C. Can grow and develop
D. Can not
carry out metabolic process
28.
During a hydrolysis reaction, _________ is associated with ________ of a water
molecule.
A. Synthesis / formation
B.
Breakdown / formation
C. Synthesis / use
D.
Breakdown / use
29.
A molecule of glycerol bonding to two molecules of fatty acids is_________.
A. Phospholipid
30.
In a chemical reaction, oxidation is the ___________:
A. Loss of electrons
C. Gain of electron
31.
Two molecules of glucose are linked together by a ________ bond and makes_________.
A. peptide bond / sucrose
B. glycosidic bond / sucrose
C. glycosidic bond / maltose
D. ester bond / maltose
32.
Ionic bonds are made because
A. Cations & anions have different electronegativity
B. Cations gain electron
B. Diac
C. Anions loose electron
33.
D. None of the above
Glucose and fructose are__________
A. Optical-/ stereoisomer
B. Geometric isomers
C. Structural isomers
34.
Proteins are made from_____________
A. 30 different L-amino acids
B. 20 different D-amino acids
C. 20 different L-amino acids
D. none of the above
35.
What is NOT correct about cAMP?
A. Is an amino acid
B. Is a regulatory molecule
C. Is a nucleotide
D. Phosphate is attached to both 3’ 5’ C of ribose
36.
What is NOT correct about ATP?
A. Is an energy–rich molecule
B. Has a pyrimidine and a ribose
sugar
C Has a purine and a ribose sugar
D. Has three phosphates
37.
Phospholipids make bilayer in water because it is (a)____________
A. Hydrophobic molecule
B. Hydrophilic molecule
C. Part hydrophilic & part hydrophobic
D. None of the above
38.
Which of the following is not a part of an ATP molecule?
A. A purine base called adenine
B. 3 phosphate groups
C. A ribose sugar
D. A deoxyribose sugar
39.
Isoptopes differs with respect to the number of __________.
A. Protons
B. Electrons
C. Neutrons
40.
D. None
In a polar covalent bond:
A. Unequal sharing of electrons leads to distinct areas of positive and negative charge in
the molecule.
B. Electrons are actually donated from one atom to another
C. Transient attractions cause hydrophobic interactions
D. More energy is used to make the bond, so there is more reduction
41.
Select correct match for questions 41-43 from A-C
Electron
A. Positive charge
42.
Neutron
B. Negative charge
43.
Proton
C. One mass unit (Dalton)+ no charge
44.
Following are the organic compounds, except_______.
A. Glucose
B. Phospholipid
C. Water
D. Amino acid
45.
Condensation reaction involving a glycerol and 2 fatty acid molecules yield_______ and ______.
A. 1 Phospholipid / 2 phosphate
B. 1 Diacylglycerol / 2 water
C. 2 Monoacylglycerol / 2 water
D. 2 Monoacylglycerol / 1 water
46.
Catabolic process involves_____________
A. building of complex molecules from simple molecules
C. breakdown of large molecules into simple molecules
47.
Parts of the enzyme that interacts with substrate is called_________
A. cofactor
B. active site
C. competitor
D. apoenzyme
48
Which of the following is not true about enzymes?
A. lowers activation energy
B. do not change the equilibrium of reaction
C. are catalyst that can be reused
D. properties are permanently changed as it
catalyzes a reaction
49.
Cells do not regulate rate of metabolism by:
A. control of intracellular amounts of enzyme
C. heat inactivation of enzyme
B. feed back inhibition of enzyme
D. binding of allosteric molecule to enzyme
50.
Transfer of electrons from one molecule to another is equivalent to _________ transfer.
A. heat
B. oxygen
C. carbon
D. energy
51.
Starch and cellulose
A. are polymers of glucose and amino acids, respectively
B. are polymers of fatty acids and glucose, respectively
C. are both polymers of different isomeric forms of glucose
D. are both polymers of -glucose
E. are both polymers of -glucose
52.
Hydrolysis of ATP is _____ reaction.
A. endergonic
B. exergonic
C. entropy
D. enthalpy
53.
Energy stored in ATP molecules is in the form of __________ energy.
A. heat
B. potential
C. kinetic
D. nuclear
54.
Peptide bonds are important the level of ___________ structure of proteins.
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
55.
Glycogen is a ___________ polymer of _______ glucose.
A. unbranched / beta
B. unbranched / alpha
C. branched / beta
D. branched / alpha
Exam II
1.
B. energy expenditure
D. non of the above
Each is a component of the DNA nucleotide except a:
A. nitrogen base
B. pentose sugar
C. phosphate group
D. fatty acid
2.
3.
4.
The two strands of the DNA double helix are:
A. parallel
B. antiparallel
C. polypeptides
D. semiconservative
DNA replication is best described as being:
A. dispersive
B. conservative
D. semiconservative
C. repressive
RNA polymerase recognizes a(n) _______ sequence of the gene.
A. origin
B. promoter
C. repressor
D. operator
5.
New aminoacyl-tRNAs (tRNA with attached amino acid) bind to mRNA at the _______ site of the
ribosome.
A. A
B. B
C. T
D. P
E. Z
6.
The first amino acid in any protein is coded for by which codon?
A. UGA which codes for leucine.
B. UAA which codes for glycine.
C. AUG which codes for methionine .
D. UUA which is a stop codon
E. Varies from protein to protein so it cannot be determined.
7.
Pieces of mRNA that are transcribed from the DNA, but are NOT found in the mature
mRNA molecule once it reaches the cytoplasm, are called:
A. exons
B. introns
C. codons
D. anti-codons
8.
Okazaki fragments are:
A. pieces of chromosomes created by topoisomerases
B. made from 3' to 5' so that they can be joined together at the replication fork.
C. made on the lagging strand from 5' to 3'.
D. ligated together by DNA helicases.
E. made on the leading strand from 5' to 3'.
9.
DNA is always synthesized _____________ on both the leading and lagging strands?
A. from 3'--->5'
B. from 5'--->3'
C. as the Okazaki fragment
D. in both directions
E. at the replication fork
10.
Working with mutations in mould, Beadle & Tatum demonstrated relationship between one gene and
one __________.
A. lipid
B. enzyme
C. sugar
D. amino acid
11.
DNA molecules have:
A. an alternating sugar-phosphate backbone
B. 2 hydrogen bonds between G and C base pairs
E. none of the above
12.
13.
C. 3 hydrogen bonds between A and T base
pairs
D. all of the above
Nucleotides are fastened together by ____________ bond.
A. glycosidic
B. ester
C. peptide
D. phosphodiester
Eukaryotic mRNA is transcribed in ________________and translated in_______________.
A. chloroplast/ nucleus
B. mitochondria/ cytoplasm
C. nucleus/ cytoplasm
D.cytoplasm/ nucleus
14.
Replicate this piece of DNA: 5'-TATGATCCCGTACCT-3' (keep in mind the correct orientation for
nucleic acids in selecting your answer)
A. 5'-AUACUAGGGCAUGGA-3'
B. 5'-ATACTAGGGCATGGA-3'
C. 5'-AGGUACGGGAUCAUA-3'
D. 5'-AGGTACGGGATCATA-3'
15.
Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of translation?
A. chain elongation
B. initiation
C. chain termination
D. RNA folding
16.
Anticodon sequence is present on __________
A. ribsome
B. tRNA
C. mRNA
D. rRNA
Introns are found in ________ mRNA.
A. prokaryotic
B. eukaryotic
D. None of the above
17.
C. both A & B
18.
For a complete translation (including termination) of a protein synthesis containing 330 amino acids
would require an mRNA coding region of ____________ bases long.
A. 993
B. 663
C. 660
D. 330
E. 990
19.
Codons are:
A. responsible for making sure DNA replication does not produce mutations.
B. used to translate an mRNA into the amino acid sequence of a protein.
C. the code geneticists use to let A stand for adenine, G for guanine, C for cytosine, and T for thymidine.
D. sequences of one, two or three bases depending on how many amino acids are found in a protein.
20.
Untranslated leader sequence is present at the ______ of the _________.
A. 5’ end / mRNA
B. 5’end / tRNA
C. 3’ end / mRNA
D. 3’end / rRNA
21.
The genetic code contains
A. 4
B. 61
22.
Translation terminates when:
A. a missense mutation is encountered.
C. the ribosome runs out of tRNA.
___ different codons for twenty different amino acids..
C. 64
D. 128
B. a stop codon is encountered.
D. the 3' end of the mRNA is reached.
23.
Ploy A+ is added to eukaryotic mRNA after transcription at ______ end.
A. 3’
B. 5’
C. both 3’ & 5’
D. in the middle
24.
Which of the following serves as an adapter during translation?
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. cDNA
Matching. Choose the one definition from the list at the right (A-D) which best describes the activity of
enzymes (25-28).
25.
DNA polymerase
A. Synthesizes DNA from a DNA template, requires primer
26.
Topoisomerase
B. Joins together Okazaki fragments on lagging strands
27.
DNA ligase
C. Nicks and rejoins DNA to relieve "knotting"
28
Helicase
D. Unwinds the DNA double helix for replication and transcription
29.
30.
31.
Where is the amino acid binding site located on the tRNA?
A. in the anticodon loop
B. at the 5’ end
D. randomly located
C. at the 3’ end
The first tRNA to initiate translation has 5’______ 3’ anticodon nucleotide sequence.
A. AUG
B. GUA
C. TAC
D. CTU
DNA replication requires_________________
A. DNA polymerase
B. small RNA primer
D. both A & B
E. Both B & C
E. CAU
C. RNA polymerase
32.
DNA synthesis on lagging strand takes place________________.
A. by series of Okazaki fragments
B. entirely by complementary RNA
C. by complementary copy of leading strand D. by RNA primers only
33.
DNA strand is replicated continuously on the ___________.
A. primary strand
B. secondary strand
C. leading strand
D. lagging strand.
34.
Which of the following represents Frame shift mutation of of the sequence AGACTTCAG?
A. AGAGTTCAG
B. AGTACTCAG
C. AGACTTCAG
D. AGATTCAG
35.
Translation of mRNA begins from _____end and produce polypeptide from ________terminal end.
A. 3’ / carboxyl
B. 5’ / amino
C. 3’ / amino
D. 5’ / carboxyl
36.
A single deletion of base in coding sequence results in _____.
A. transcription termination
B. a frameshift mutation
C. missense mutation
D. nonsense mutation
37.
An example of point mutation in the codon GGG is ______.
A. GGU
B. UGA
C. UGU
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
D. UAG
Each is a contact between animal cells except___________
A. Desmosomes
B. Tight junction
C. Plasmodesmata
The sodium-potassium pump works by
A. active transport
C. diffusion
B. osmosis
D. endocytosis
Osmosis is the
A. diffusion of water
C. active transport of water
B. diffusion of a solute
D. active transport of a solute
Dialysis is
A. diffusion of water
C. active transport of water
B. diffusion of a solute
D. active transport of a solute
D. Gap junctiom
Plant cells placed in 2M sucrose (Hypertonic solution) will______________
A. swell slightly
B. undergo lysis
C. undergo plasmolysis
D. remain unchanged
43.
44.
Most volume of plant cells is present in___________.
A. mitochondria
B. nucleus
C. vacuole
D. cytoplasm
Cell integrity is maintained best in a(an) _____________ solution.
A. hypertonic
B. hypotonic
C. isotonic
D. high sugar
45.
Which of the following is a type of cell junction that allows specific & rapid communication between
adjacent cells?
A. loose junction
B. tight junction
C. desmosome
D. gap junction
46.
47.
Turgor pressure is
A. hydrostatic pressure in animal cells
C. concentration of dissolved solutes
B. internal hydrostatic pressure in plant cells
D. non of the above
Uptake of glucose in blood cells occurs as a result of
A. pump working against concentration gradient
C. facilitated diffusion down the concentration gradient
E. active uptake against concentration gradient
B. exocytosis
D. endocytosis
48.
Plant cells show sign of wilting because of loss of ___________
A. isotonic pressure
B. turgor pressure
C. facilitated diffusion
49.
Pinocytosis is _____.
A. engulfment of large solid particles by cells
C. occurs in plant cells
B. uptake of fluid by membrane invaginations
D. transport against concentration gradient
50.
LDL-cholesterol is transported in the cells by______________
A. passive transport
B. pinocytosis
C. receptor mediated transport D. phagocytosis
51.
___________ are synthesized in smooth ER
A. proteins
B. carbohydrates
52.
C. lipids
D. peroxides
Cilia has well organized arrangement of ________ proteins.
A. actin filament
B. intermediate filament
C. glycocalyx
D. tubulin
53.
Glyoxosomes are microbodies found in _________ and help provide nutrient by breaking down
complex polymers during _______________.
A. liver / toxicity
B. plants / peroxide formation
C. plants / germination
D. liver / sickness
54.
Golgi complex is the site for _______________.
A. protein degradation
B. protein modification
C. protein synthesis
D. protein purification
55.
Chloroplasts are considered to of endosybiotic origin because ________________
A. contains DNA
B. synthesizes its own protein
C. has complex membrane
D. both A & C
E. both A & B
56.
______________ are synthesized in nucleolus.
A. proteins
B. ribosomes
C. centrioles
57.
D. lipids
Nucleosomes are made up of _________________
A. DNA and -evely charged histones
B. RNA and –evely charged histones
C. DNA and +evely charged histones
D. RNA and +evely charged histones
58.
Macromolecules and organelles are recycled in cells by _____________
A. mitochondria
B. centriole
C. vacuole
D. lysosomes
E. nucleus
59.
Plasma membrane is bilayer because phospholipids have ____________________
A. nonpolar head and polar tail
B. amphipathic molecules
C. nonpolar tail and polar head
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
60.
Intermediate filaments are found in ________________
A. plant cells
B. bacteria
C. animal cells
D. none of the above
Exam III
1. In which stage below does the sister chromatids disjoin (separate)?
A. anaphase
B. metaphase
C. G I phase.
D. telophase
2. Photorespiration occurs:
A. because RUBISCO always carboxylates RUBP
B. because RUBISCO some times oxygenates RUBP
C. occurs only in C4 plants
D. accounts for the formation of proton gradient used to make ATP
3. The end products of meiosis are:
A. 2 cells, genetically identical
B. 4 cells, genetically identical
C. 2 cells, genetically different
D. 4 cells, genetically different
4. Which of the following does NOT occur during prophase?
A. nuclear membrane starts to disappear
B. chromatin condenses into chromosomes
C. cell plate formation occurs
D. spindle fibers, made of microtubules, begin to form
5. Before beginning mitosis, new DNA is synthesized in:
A. S phase
B. G1 phase
C. G2 phase
6. Product of cyclic photophosphorylation is ____________.
A. NADPH
B. ATP
C. NADH
7. The four stages of mitosis in correct order are:
A. Telophase, anaphase, prophase, and metaphase.
B. Prophase, anaphase, telophase, and metaphase.
C. Prophase, prophase I, prophase II, and prophase III.
D. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
8. RUBISCO binds to________
D. interkinesis
E. prophase
D. FADH
A. nucleic acid
B. lipid
C. amino acids
9. A product of the light reaction is________________.
A. FAD
B. glucose
C. NADPH
10. Oxygen is produced during ____________.
A. cyclic photophsphorylation
C. CAM pathway
D. CO2
D. water
B. Calvin cycle
D. non-cyclic photophosphorylation
11. Two molecules of _________________ leave Calvin cycle to form sugar.
A. Ribulose bisphosphate
B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
C. 3-Phosphoglyceric acid
D. 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid
12. Which of the following is common to both photosynthesis and aerobic respiration?
A. NADPH
B. glycolysis
C. chemiosmosis
D. O2 production
13. CAM plants eliminates wasteful photorespiration by:
A. shutting down their mitochonria
B. producing malate and fixing CO2 in bundle sheath
C. fixing CO2 in night
D. making pyruvate
14. During Calvin cycle ten molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is used to produce:
A. ten molecules of PGA
B. six molecules of Ribulose Bisphosphate
C. five molecules of glucose
D. three molecules of glucose
15. Formation of one molecule of glucose and completion of Calvin cycle requires:
A. 12 ATP & 12 NADH
B. 18 ATP & 18 NADPH
C. 18 ATP & 12 NADPH
D. 12 ATP & 18 NADPH
16. C4 plants efficiently eliminate photorespiration by:
A. concentrating CO2 in bundle sheath cells
C. making sugar in mesophyll cells
B. making phosphoenol pyruvate
D. non of the above
17. Fill in the blanks: Light-independent reactions occur in the ____________while the light-dependent
reactions of photosynthesis occur in the ______________ of chloroplast.
A. thylakoid / stroma
B. mitochondria / thylakoid
C. stroma / thylakoid
D. outer membrane / thylakoid
18. Photosystem II begins with _________.
A. P700
B. P680
C. P450
D. P390
19. Two molecules of water is oxidized during light reactions to produce
A. 2e-, 2H+,½ O2
B. 4e-, 4H+, O2
C. 2e-, 2H+, O2
D. non of the above
20. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation involves:
A. only PSII
B. only PSI
C. both PSI and PSII
D. none
21. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves:
A. only PSI
B. Only PSII
C. both PSI and PSII
D. none
22. ATP synthesis during photosynthesis use
A. chemiosmosis to form proton gradients
C. protons from stroma and pump to thylakoid
B. electrons from stroma and pump to thylakoid
D. non of the above
23. Which of the following is not true about aerobic respiration?
A. glucose is completely oxidized to CO2
B. it is an endergonic reaction
C. electrons associated with glucose is transferred to oxygen in a series of steps
D. it is a redox process
24. Duplicated genetic material is divided equally at____________ during mitotic cell division.
A. prophase
B. anaphase
C. metaphase
D. S phase
25. Chlorophyll contains the ion __________.
A. iron
B. calcium
C. magnesium
D. copper
26. Engelmann’s action spectrum of shows that the maximum photosynthesis occurs in ________
A. green light
B. voilet light
C. yellow light
D. red light
27. Chlorophyll pigments are present in __________
A. stroma
B. chloroplast envelop
C. thylakoid membrane
D. outer membrane
28. Which of the following occurs during light-independent (Dark) reaction of photosynthesis ?
A. produce ATP and NADH
B. is a catabolic process
C. use ATP and NADPH to fix CO2
D. all of the above
29. ______NADH and _____FADH2 are produced from each turn of TCA cycle.
A. 2 and 2
B. 3 and 1
C. 3 and 2
D. 1 and 1
30. Which of the following is not an electron or hydrogen acceptor?
A. FAD
B. NAD+
C. ATP
31. Which of the following is not true about TCA cycle?
A. produce 3 NADH and 1FADH2 per cycle
C. produce 2 NADH and 2 FADH2 per cycle
D. cytochrome complex
B. produce 1 GTP per cycle
D. produce 2 CO2 per cycle
32. Electron transport in mitochondria provides energy for_______________
A. establishment of ATP gradient
B. establishment of H+ gradient
C. establishment of electron gradient
D. none of the above
33. Which of the following is not correct?
A. 36-38 ATP are produced by oxidation of 1 molecule of glucose in presence of O2
B. in order to produce ATP in glycolysis 2 ATP molecules must be first used
C. four molecules of ATP are produced in glycolysis, but 2 ATP are used
D. all ATP produced during cellular respiration is product of oxidative phosphorylation only
34. Fermentation occurs in the absence of O2 and is necessary for recycling of ________
A. ATP
B. cAMP
C. NAD+
D. none
35. Muscular cramp in response to prolong physical activity is caused by__________
A. ethanol formation in muscles
B. lactate accumulation
C. CO2 accumulation
D. ATP accumulation
36. During anaerobic catabolism of glucose electrons from glucose is used to make_____
A. CO2
B. H2O
C. glyceraldehydes
D. ethanol
37. During which of the following stages of meiosis do the sister chromatids separate?
A. metaphase I
B. anaphase I
C. metaphase II
D. anaphase II
38. Chromosome number is reduced to half during ______________.
A. anaphase I
B. anaphase II
C. prophase I
D. prophase II
39. During aerobic respiration, oxygen is __________.
A. oxidized
B. reduced
C. formed
40. Non-sister chromatids are ___________.
A. chromatids attached to the same centromere
C. chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes
D. carboxylated
B. chromatids of homologous chromosomes
D. none of the above
41. _______ molecule(s) of ATP is / are produced as a result of direct of phosphorylation of ADP from GTP
during one TCA cycle.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
42. During aerobic respiration, one glucose molecule is oxidized to produce six molecules of carbon dioxide.
CO2 is produced during________ and ____________.
A. glycolysis / TCA cycle
B. electron transport / TCA cycle
C. TCA cycle / acetyl CoA formation
D. acetyl CoA formation / glycolysis
43. In the absence of carbohydrate, amino acids from protein can be converted into carbohydrate by _____
and used in TCA cycle.
A. oxidation
B. amination
C. deamination
D. phosphorylation
44. Calvin cycle is also called C3 cycle because the first stable product of reaction is _________
A. oxaloacetate
B. malate
C. PGA
D. RuBP
45. Terminal acceptor of electrons in light reaction of photosynthesis is ___________
A. oxygen
B. NAD+
C. NADP+
D. FAD
46. C4 and CAM plants produce ____________ as a result of initial CO2 fixation.
A. oxaloacetate
B. pyruvate
C. PGA
D. malate
47. Bundle sheath cells concentrate CO2 for efficient photosynthesis and are found in ___________ plants.
A. CAM
B. C4
C. C3
D. None
48. During photosynthesis, how many molecule(s) of water are split to produce one O2?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
49. Duplicated chromatin is found at_______.
A. G1 phase
B. G2 phase
C. cytokinesis
D. none of the above
50. Genetically dissimilar gametes are produced at the end of meiosis because of crossing over events
occurring at ___________.
A. metaphase I
B. anaphase II
C. prophase I
D. prophase II
51. Which of the following statement is NOT true about photorespiration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the process takes place in presence of O2
RuBP is oxidized
ATP is produced in this process
ATP is not produced in this process
Takes place in chloroplast
52. Light is absorbed by the __________ of the chlorophyll molecule while ________ is anchored in the
thylakoid membrane.
A. tail / head
B. hydrocarbon chain / prophyrin ring
C. prophyrin ring / hydrocarbon chain
D. none of the above
53. During the reactions of photosynthesis, ___________ is reduced and ________ is oxidized.
A. CO2 / O2
B. H2O / CO2
C. O2 / CO2
D. CO2 / H2O
54. Electron transport chain of photosynthesis is located in ____________.
A. outer membrane
B. inner membrane
C. intermembrane space
D. thylakoid membrane
55. Nucleosomes are eukaryotic chromatins packaged with __________.
A. eight negatively charged proteins with DNA wrapped around proteins
B. eight positively charged proteins with DNA wrapped around protein core
C. non-histone proteins associated with DNA
D. none of the above
56. Genetically dissimilar gametes are produced at the end of meiosis because of crossing over events
occurring at ___________.
A. metaphase I
B. anaphase II
C. prophase I
D. prophase II
57. Meiosis I and Meiosis II are separated by a short _____________.
A. S phase
B. interphase
C. interkinesis
D. all of the above
FINAL EXAM
1.
Avery et al. used experiment performed by _______ to show that nucleic acid is the genetic material.
A. Hershey & Chase
B. Stahl
C. Griffith
D. Rosalind
2.
Griffith found that the _______ strain of the pneumococcus bacterium was virulent and would cause
disease.
A. A
B. S
C. R
D. B
3.
An organism with the genotype of AaBb (A and B are on different chromosomes) can produce
_____different
type of gametes?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 2
D. 6
4.
An organism with a dominant phenotype is crossed with a homozygous recessive organism. None of the
numerous offspring are homozygous recessive. The genotype of the dominant parent is:
A. AA
B. Aa
C. aa
D. ab
5.
People expressing the cystic fibrosis trait are ___________ for the disease gene.
A. homozygous dominant
B. heterozygous
C. homozygous recessive
D. X-linked
6.
Each is a component of the DNA nucleotide except a:
A. Nitrogen base
B. Pentose sugar
C. Phosphate group
D. Fatty acid
7.
The two strands of the DNA double helix are:
A. parallel
B. antiparallel
C. polypeptides
D. semiconservative
DNA replication is best described as being:
A. dispersive
B. conservative
D. semiconservative
8.
9.
C. nonconservative
RNA polymerase recognizes a(n) _______ sequence of the gene.
A. origin
B. promoter
C. repressor
D. operator
10.
An unaffected couple (neither father nor mother have the disease) has two hemophilic sons and two
normal daughters. This is because
A. mother is a carrier and has XhXH genotype
B. hemophilia is an autosomal recessive
C. hemophilia is a sex influenced trait
D. father is a carrier and has XHXh genotype
11.
New aminoacyl-tRNAs (tRNA with attached amino acid) bind to mRNA at the _______ site of the
ribosome.
A. A
B. B
C. T
D. P
E. Z
12.
The first amino acid in any protein is coded for by which codon?
A. UGA which codes for leucine.
B. UAA which codes for glycine.
C. AUG which codes for N-formyl (methionine). D. UUA which is a stop codon
E. Varies from protein to protein so it cannot be determined.
13.
Pieces of mRNA that are transcribed from the DNA, but are NOT found in the mature
mRNA molecule once it reaches the cytoplasm, are called:
A. exons
B. introns
C. codons
D. anti-codons
14.
Okazaki fragments are:
A. pieces of chromosomes created by topoisomerases
B. made from 3' to 5' so that they can be joined together at the replication fork.
C. made on the lagging strand from 5' to 3'.
D. ligated together by DNA helicases.
15.
DNA is always synthesized _____________ on both the leading and lagging strands?
A. from 3'--->5'
B. from 5'--->3'
C. toward the Okazaki fragments
D. in both directions
16.
Which of the following is a correct base pair?
A. C-T
B. A-G
C. A-T
D. A-C
17.
one
Working with mutations in mould, Beadle & Tatum demonstrated relationship between one gene and
__________.
A. lipid
B. enzyme
C. sugar
D. amino acid
18.
DNA molecules have:
A. an alternating sugar-phosphate backbone
C. 3 hydrogen bonds between A and T base
pairs
B. 2 hydrogen bonds between G and C base pairs
19.
D. all of the above
Nucleotides are fastened together by ____________ bond.
A. glycosidic
B. exter
C. peptide
D. phosphodiester
20.
Down's syndrome is caused by
A. an extra copy of chromosome #10 in most cases.
B. an extra copy of chromosome #21 in most cases.
C. people living too close to ducks and geese.
D. errors which occur during DNA replication.
21.
Eukaryotic mRNA is transcribed in________________and translated in_______________.
A. chloroplast/ nucleus
B. cytoplasm/ nucleus
C. nucleus/ cytoplasm
D. mitochondria/ cytoplasm
22.
Transcribe this piece of DNA: 5'-TATGATCCCGTACCT-3' (keep in mind the correct orientation for
nucleic acids in selecting your answer)
A. 5'-AUACUAGGGCAUGGA-3'
B. 5'-ATACTAGGGCATGGA-3'
C. 5'-AGGUACGGGAUCAUA-3'
D. 5'-AGGTACGGGATCATA-3'
23.
Which of the following is NOT one of the stages of translation?
A. chain elongation
B. initiation
C. chain termination
D. tRNA folding
24.
Anticodon sequence is present on __________
A. ribsome
B. tRNA
C. mRNA
D. rRNA
Introns are found in ________ mRNA.
A. prokaryotic
B. eukaryotic
D. None of the above
25.
C. both A & B
26.
A protein containing 220 amino acids would require an mRNA coding region of ____________ bases
long.
A. 880
B. 660
C. 440
D. 220
27.
From Mendel=s dihybrid cross, the phenotypic ratio among offspring was:
A. 3:1
9:3:3:1
28.
B. 1:2:1
D. 9:7
C.
Codons are:
A. responsible for making sure DNA replication does not produce mutations.
B. used to translate an mRNA into the amino acid sequence of a protein.
C. the code geneticists use to let A stand for adenine, G for guanine, C for cytosine, and T for thymidine.
D. sequences of one, two or three bases depending on how many amino acids are found in a protein.
29.
An allele is a(n)
A. phenotype
B. alternate form of a gene
C. deformed chromosome
30.
Leader sequence is present at the ______ of the _________.
A. 5’ end / mRNA
B. 5’end / tRNA
C. 3’ end / mRNA
D. 3’end / rRNA
31.
The genetic code contains
A. 4
B. 16
32.
different codons.
C. 64
Translation terminates when:
A. a missense mutation is encountered.
C. the ribosome runs out of tRNA.
D. genotype
D. 128
B. a stop codon is encountered.
D. the 3' end of the mRNA is reached.
33.
Ploy A+ is added to eukaryotic mRNA after transcription at ______ end.
A. 3’
B. 5’
C. both 3’ & 5’
D. in the middle
34.
Which of the following serves as an adapter during translation?
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. cDNA
35.
In the absence of crossing over between the genes (A and B) on the same chromosome, a parent with
AaBb genotype can produce _________ different kinds of gametes.
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
36.
If the phenotypic ratio among offspring is 1(Tall):1 (Short), the genotypes of the two parents is:
A. TT and tt
B. Tt and tt
C. tt and tt
D. TT and Tt
Matching. Choose the one definition from the list at the right (A-E) which best describes the activity of
enzymes (37-41).
37.
DNA polymerase
A. Synthesizes DNA from a DNA template, requires primer
38.
Topoisomerase
B. Joins together Okazaki fragments on lagging strands
39.
DNA ligase
C. Nicks and rejoins DNA to relieve "knotting" during replication
40.
Helicase
D. Synthesizes RNA from a DNA template, does not require primer
41.
RNA polymerase
E. Unwinds the DNA double helix for replication and transcription
42.
Which of the following numbered events represents correct sequence of events in translation?
1. large ribosomal subunit binds to initiation complex
2. initiation tRNA binds small ribosomal subunit
3. initiation complex binds to ribosome recognition sequence
A. 3  2  1
B. 2 3  1
C. 2  13
D. 1 3  2
E. 1 2  3
43.
Where is the amino acid binding site located on the tRNA?
A. in the anticodon loop
B. at the 5’ end
44.
C. at the 3’ end
Which condition results from a nondisjunction involving the sex chromosome?
A. Down
45.
46.
47.
B. Edwards
C. Patau
Transcription intiation requires__________.
A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA primer
Huntington's disease is a (n)
A. autosomal dominant
C. X-linked
D. Turner
C. Promoter sequence
D. all of the above
disorder.
B. autosomal recessive
D. Y-linked
DNA replication requires_________________
A. DNA polymerase
B. small RNA primer
C. Both A & B
48.
DNA synthesis in lagging strand takes place________________.
A. by series of Okazaki fragments
B. entirely by complementary RNA
C. by complementary copy of leading strand D. by RNA primers only
49.
DNA strand is replicated smoothly & continuously on the ___________.
A. primary strand
B. Secondary strand
C. leading strand
D. RNA polymerase
D. lagging strand.
50.
Which of the following represents Frame shift mutation of of the sequence AGACTTCAG?
A. AGAGTTCAG
B. AGTACTCAG
C. AGACCTTCAG D. AGACTTCAG
51.
Sickle cell anemia is an inherited ___________ disease.
A. X-linked recessive B. autosomal dominant
C. autosomal recessive
D. X-linked dominant
52.
For genetic engineering, a plasmid vector must have __________.
A. selectable marker
B. origin of replication
C. multiple restriction sites
D. all of the above
53.
Tom shows pattern baldness. His wife Tammy has normal hairs. They have two boys and two girls. All
four children have pattern baldness. The genotype of Tom and Tammy are ________and _______,
respectively.
A. B1B2 and B1B2
B. B1B1 and B1B1
C. B2B2 and B1B1
D. B2B2 and B2B2
54.
Fred has type A blood. His father was type A and his mother was type O. Wilma is type B. Her father
was type AB, and her mother was type AB. What possible offspring (in relation to blood type) could Fred
and Wilma have?
A. A, B, and AB
C. A and B
E. AB and B
B. A, B, O, and AB
D. O, A, and AB
55.
The percentage of crossing-over occurs between two genes on the same chromosome:
A. is proportional to the distance between the two genes . B. is always the same.
C. is so small it cannot be measured.
D. depends on which chromosome it is on
56.
During meiosis homologous chromosomes separates at _____________
A. prophase I
B. metaphase II
C. anaphase I
57.
D. anaphase II
Genetic recombination between nonsister chromatids of homologous chromosomes occur
during_________
A. prophase I
B. prophase II
C. metaphase I
D. metaphase II
58.
Turner’s syndrome is an example of ___________
A. trisomy
B. monosomy
C. polyploidy
D. non of the above
59.
Genes in the sex chromosomes of human male are______________
A. heterozygous
B. hemizygous
C. homozygous
60.
A person with XO karyotype has ____________syndrome.
A. Down’s
B. Klienfelter’s
C. Turner’s
61.
Down’s syndrome is an example of ___________.
A. monosomic
B. trisomic
C. polyploidy
D. Edward’s
D. disomic
62.
Translation of mRNA begins from _____end and produce polypeptide from ________terminal end.
A. 3’ and carboxyl
B. 5’ and amino
C. 3’ and amino
D. 5’ and carboxyl
63.
A Barr body is found in normal female cells, and represents a(n) ___________.
A. polar body
B. degenerate nucleus
C. inactivated X-chromosome
64.
The end products of meiosis are:
A. 2 cells, genetically identical
B. 4 cells, genetically identical
D. dead oocyte
C. 2 cells, genetically different
D. 4 cells, genetically different
65.
In which stage below does the sister chromatids disjoin (separate)?
A. anaphase
B. metaphase
C. G I phase.
D. telophase
66.
Duplicated genetic material is divided equally at____________ during mitotic cell division.
A. prophase
B. anaphase
C. metaphase
D. S phase
67.
A single deletion of base in coding sequence results in _____.
A. transcription termination
B. a frameshift mutation
C. missense mutation
D. non of the above
68.
A brief period between cytokinesis I and meiosis II is ___________.
A. interphase
B. interkinesis
C. resting pahse
D. cytokinesis II
Chromosome number is reduced to half during ______________.
A. anaphase I
B. anaphase II
C. prophase I
D. prophase II
69.
70.
Non-sister chromatids are ___________.
A. chromatids attached to the same centromere
C. random chromatids of different centromere
B. chromatids of homologous chromosomes
D. none of the above
71.
In a Polymerase Chain Reaction 10 molecules of DNA will be amplified to _______ molecules of DNA
in 5 cycles:
A. 100
B. 50
C. 1000
D.100000
72.
Plasmids are ________.
A. virus
B. page
C. Bacteria
D. autonomously replicating DNA molecule
73.
74.
An example of point mutation of the codon UUU is ______.
A. GGU
B. AAA
C. UAU
D. UUU
When a population passes through a genetic bottleneck,
A. limited population size can cause genetic drift
B. Hady-Wineberg’s equilibrium is maintained
C. both A & B
D. non of the above
Matching: Select the best answer from the following list (A-C) to answer questions 75-77.
A. stabilizing selection
B. directional selection
C. disruptive selection
75.
Selection where extremes of the population (both high and low) are selected against
76.
Selection where two or more different phenotypes are simultaneously selected
77.
Selection which favors one extreme over others
78.
Speciation:
A. requires Hardy-Wineberg’s equilibrium
B. is not based on natural selection
C. requires reproductive isolation of evolving species from its ancestral species
D. applies only to plants, but not animals
79.
The geographical isolation of Kabiba and Albert squirrels appears to be leading to________.
A. sympatric speciation
B. allopatric speciation
C. hybridization
D. non of the above
80.
In humans, heterozygote advantage is demonstrated in _____________.
A. hemophilia
B. sickle cell anemia
C. Down’s syndrome
D. malaria