Download Summer 2003 Test 3

Bil 150
Summer I 2005
Material Since Last Test
Test #3 & Cumulative Final
June 24, 2005
Multiple Choice:
Directions: Pick the BEST answer from among the choices given.
01) E. coli cells grown on 15N medium are transferred to 14N medium and allowed to grow for two more
generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA extracted from these 3rd generation cells is centrifuged.
How many of the DNA molecules of these cells would contain 14N in their DNA?
a) 2 molecules
b) 4 molecules
c) 34 molecules
d) all of the DNA molecules
e) none of these is correct
02) After allowing phages, grown in a medium that contained 32P and 35S, to infect bacteria Hershey and
Chase used a centrifuge to separate the phage ghosts from the infected cell. They then examined the
infected bacteria and found that they contained _____, which demonstrated that _____ is the phage's
genetic material.
a) labeled protein ... DNA
b) labeled protein ... protein
c) labeled DNA ... labeled protein
d) labeled DNA ... DNA
e) none of these is correct
03) Cells from Science Officer Data (of Star Ship Enterprise), an android, are found to synthesize proteins
from 33 different amino acids, rather than the 20 used on Earth. The four bases in Mr. Data's DNA are the
same as those found in earth creatures. What is the minimum codon length for Mr. Data?
a) one "letter" per codon
b) two "letters" per codon
c) five "letters" per codon
c) four "letters" per codon
e) same as on earth
04) The LAC operon gene sequence that is responsible for binding the repressor protein is known as?
a) regulator gene b) promoter sequence c) structural gene d) operator gene e) none of these
05) Sickle cell anemia?
b) is a mis-sense mutation
a) has valine substituting for glutamic acid at amino-site # 6
c) is a recessive gene disease
d) all of the above are correct
06) The anticodon for the DNA sequence
a) 5'-CUG-3'
b) 5'-CTG-3'
---5'-CAG-3'--c) 3'-AUC-5'
is?
d) 5'-GAC-3'
e) none of these
07) An RNA segment or piece of the primary RNA transcript that never reaches the eukaryotic cytoplasm is?
a) exon
b) intron
c) tDNA
d) rDNA
e) choose this answer if none of these is correct
08) The effect of a substitution of A (adenine) for G (Guanine) in a DNA molecule would?
a) be beneficial
b) be lethal
c) result in decreased enzyme activity
d) result in increased activity
e) choose this answer if all of these are possible
09) Which of the following methods for "re"-combining DNA molecules involves plasmids?
a) bacterial conjugation
b) fertilization
c) transduction
d) crossing over
e) choose this answer if all of the above are methods of recombining DNA’s
10) Which of these is generally the smallest piece of RNA, made by transcription, from a DNA template?
a) rRNA
b) tRNA
c) hnRNA
d) mRNA
e) none of these is correct
11) The region of DNA that initially binds the RNA polymerase during the process of transcription is?
a) initiator codon
b) promoter
c) stop codon
d) spacer
e) none of these is correct
12) The structure at one end of an mRNA molecule that is a reversed G-nucleotide and that seems to help
prevent the digestion of this mRNA by nucleases within the nucleoplasm is known as the?
a) promoter
b) primary transcript
c) 5'-cap
d) Poly-A tail e) none of these is correct
150ss05 Test 3-Final page 2
13) The nuclear component that is responsible for cutting out fragments of the primary RNA transcript is?
a) ribosome
b) restriction endonuclease
c) exon
d) spliceosome
e) none of these is correct
14) The molecular component responsible linking two amino acids together during translation is?
a) DNA polymerase
b) amino-acyl synthetase
c) a ribozyme
d) release factor
e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct
15) How many different codon sequences are possible for a polypeptide that contains just these 3 amino
acids: PRO, SER, and MET? (use attached Code) a) 3 b) 9 c) 11 d) 64 e) none of these
16) The absorption, by a cell, of a piece of DNA, either by natural or artificial means, is known as?
a) conjugation
b) transformation
c) transduction
d) virulence
e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct
17) Which of the following enzymes is NOT needed for DNA replication?
a) helicase
b) RNA polymerase (primase)
c) DNA ligase
e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct
18) The direction of synthesis of a new DNA strand is said to be?
a) dispersive
b) in the 5' to 3' direction
c) antiparallel
d) peptidyl transferase
d) lysogenic
e) none of these
19) Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?
a) restriction enzyme and production of RFLPs
b) DNA ligase and enzyme that cuts DNA, creating the sticky ends of restriction fragments
c) DNA polymerase and its use in a PCR to amplify sections of DNA
d) reverse transcriptase and production of cDNA from mRNA
e) choose this answer if none of these is correct
20) DNA technology has many medical applications. Which of the following is not done routinely at present?
a) production of hormones for treating diabetes and dwarfism
b) introduction of genetically engineered genes into human gametes
c) prenatal identification of genetic disease genes
d) genetic testing for carriers of harmful alleles
e) choose this answer if none of these is correct
21) The period of embryo development, when the three primary cell (tissue) layers are formed is known as?
a) neuralation
b) teratogenesis
c) cleavage
d) gastrulation
e) none of these
22) In recombinant DNA methods, the term vector can refer to?
a) an enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments b) the sticky end of a DNA fragment.
c) a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell
d) a DNA probe used to identify a particular gene.
e) choose this answer if none of these is correct
23) Which of the following is a significant difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is?
a) oogenesis is not meiotic while spermatogenesis is
b) spermatogenesis is characterized by a period of cellular differentiation
c) oogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubule
d) spermatogenesis produces only one cell, a polar body
e) none of the above is a significant difference
24) The brain and spinal cord are derived from which of the following primary embryonic tissues?
a) ectoderm
b) mesoderm
c) blastoderm
d) endoderm
e) none of these
25) The primary neurotransmitter substance in the vertebrate neuromuscular junction is?
a) serotonin
b) epinephrine
c) norepinephrine
d) acetylcholine
e) none of these
150ss05 Test 3-Final page 3
26) Which of the following components of the human eye actually absorbs light and changes shape?
a) amacrine
b) cis-retinal
c) myosin
d) sclera
e) none of the above
27) Synaptic transmission in vertebrate neurons?
a) involves Ca+2 entry into the postsynaptic cells
b) is caused by a direct electrical coupling (sparks) between soma and a myofibril
c) usually requires that an enzyme destroy the postsynaptic receptor protein
d) involves the release of neurotransmitter from a presynaptic knob into the synaptic cleft
e) choose this answer if none of these is correct
28) A muscle stretch receptor probably belongs to which of the following classes of sensory receptors?
a) mechanoreceptor
b) chemoreceptor
c) phonoreceptor
d) thermoreceptor
e) choose this answer if none of these is correct
29) Myelin that wraps vertebrate neurons is derived from?
a) Schwann cells
b) cell bodies
c) post synaptic membranes
d) dendrites
e) none of these
30) Within the structure of a vertebrate neuron, open non-myelinated areas are referred to as?
a) Schwann cells
b) internuncial neurons
c) axons
d) Nodes of Ranvier
e) none of these
31) The resting potential of the squid giant axon is NOT due in part or whole to which of the following?
a) active transport of Na and K
b) differential membrane permeability to K and Na ions
c) a diffusional gradient favoring faster efflux of K than an influx of Na
d) presence of large negatively charged anions
e) choose this answer if all of the above contribute to the resting potential
32) Which of the following statements is NOT correct concerning the action potential?
a) it is an all or none phenomena
b) it is localized, i.e., is initiated at a single point on a membrane
c) occurs very rapidly, i.e., in a time frame of just over 200 mSec
d) it requires a minimal threshold stimulus intensity to elicit the action potential
e) choose this answer if all of the above are true
33) The photosensitive retinal cells of the eye that are most sensitive to light are the?
a) amacrine cells
b) rod & cone cells
c) sclera cells
d) bipolar cells
e) none of these is correct
34) The action of neurotransmitters on the post-synaptic membrane is likely to cause which of these?
a) a resting potential
b) an EPSP
c) an action potential
d) Nernst potential
e) choose this answer if none of these is correct
35) Sensory information transmitted by neurons is encoded in what form or pattern?
a) the amplitude (size) of nerve impulses
b) the duration length of an action potential
c) the frequency (number) of action potentials
d) the velocity (speed)of nerve impulses
e) choose this answer if none of the above is correct
36) Which of the following is generally NOT correct about striated muscles ?
a) are under voluntary control
b) functions by a pulling (contractile) force
c) appear as alternating light/dark regions in electron micrographs
d) made up of proteins including myosin and actin
e) choose this answer if all of these are true
150ss05 Test 3-Final page 4
37) The phase of the skeletal muscle twitch whose period of time most closely approximates the total length of
time of a single action potential is the?
a) latent period
b) contraction phase
c) refractory period
d) heat phase e) none of these is correct
38) From the following list, the skeletal muscle protein which has ATPase activity is?
a) G-actin
b) troponin
c) myosin
d) tropomyosin
e) none of these is correct
39) Which of the following is true of a contraction of skeletal muscle?
a) length of A band gets shorter
b) sarcomere gets longer by about 10nm
c) length of I band remains constant in size
d) Z-lines get further apart
e) choose this answer if none of these is true
40) During a skeletal muscle contraction calcium is released from?
a) the A band
b) sarcoplasmic reticulum
c) sarcomere
d) sarcolemma
e) none of these
Cumulative Material
41) The type of reaction in which water is removed during the synthesis of a polymer molecule is known as?
a) condensation
b) hydrolysis
c) oxidation
d) reduction
e) none of the above
42) The molecule shown to the right is a(n):
a) amino acid b) sugar (carbohydrate)
c) steroid
d) nucleic acid
e) fatty acid
43) Which of the following is TRUE concerning cell membranes?
a) bacterial cells have a full system of internal membranes
b) proteins are synthesized in/on rough E.R. membranes
c) the Golgi apparatus is the site of protein synthesis
d) secretory proteins are inserted into vesicles after the vesicles exit the lysosomal membranes
e) none of the above is true
44) Which of the following is a bond that is due primarily to an unequal distribution of atomic charge within its
own structure? a) ionic bond b) polar bond c) neutron bond d) hydrogen bond e) none of these
45) The metabolic pathway that converts pyruvate to CO2 & H2O is often referred to as?
a) Kreb's cycle
b) anaerobic respiration
c) alcoholic fermentation
d) photosynthesis
e) none of these is correct
46) Concerning enzymes, which of the following is correct?
a) the substrate binding site is the active site
b) enzymes speed both the forward and back reaction equally well
c) enzymes act by increasing the activation energy of a reaction
d) enzymes act by doubling the free energy for a reaction
e) more than one of the above is correct
47) The coenzyme, which accepts electrons and/or protons, is found inside the mitochondria, and contains the
vitamin riboflavin as its functional group is?
a) CoASH
b) FADH2
c) NAD+
d) ATP
e) none of these
48) A photosynthetic pathway of electron flow where electrons do return to their original source is known as?
a) an impossibility b) cyclic e-flow c) non-cyclic e-flow d) the CAM pathway e) none of these
49) If gene "Z" is 30 map units from gene "Y" on the same chromosome, what is the percentage of completely
recessive parental phenotypes (zzyy) progeny from an F-1 heterozygote testcross for these two genes?
a) 100%
b) 80%
c) 35%
d) 30%
e) none of these is correct
150ss05 Test 3-Final page 5
50) The cell cycle stage, at which the spindle proteins needed for mitosis are most likely made in, is?
a) M
b) S
c) G1
d) G2
e) none of these
51) A photosynthetic CO2 reduction pathway in which CO2 is actually reduced twice, requires mesophyll and
bundle sheath cells, and is more efficient in dry - higher temperature conditions is known as?
a) the C-3 pathway
b) the Calvin Cycle
c) the C-4 pathway
d) photolysis
e) none of these
52) In a fertile marriage between Brittany, who has Diva-phobia, a sex linked recessive trait, and Kevin, who is
genetically normal, the expected percentage of daughters who might show Diva-phobia is?
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 100%
e) impossible to determine
53) From among those listed, the sub-cell organelle most directly involved in protein synthesis is?
a) ribosome
b) Golgi bodies
c) lysosome
d)nucleus
e) none of these
54) Of the following, the largest organelle in size and/or total surface area is most likely the?
a) ribosome
b) lysosome
c) Golgi
d) endoplasmic reticulum
e) microtubule
55) The synthesis of ATP by substrate level phosphorylation ?
a) occurs only in mitochondria
c) takes place in glycolysis and Krebs cycle
b) requires a proton gradient across granal membranes d) occurs only in heterotrophs
e) none of the above
56) A woman with blood type O marries a man with blood type AB. Which of the following blood type is it NOT
possible for their children to have?
a) A
b) O
c) B
d) they can have answers a, b, or c
e) none of these is a possible blood type for their children
57) The organic base portion (A,T,G, or C) on an individual nucleotide is attached to the?
a) phosphate molecule
b) 5' end of the ribose sugar
c) 3' CAP
d) none of these is correct
58) In the reaction : AH2 + BO <---> AO + BH + H
AH2 is known as the?
a) hydrogen donor b) the reduced form of B c) the oxidized form of A d) none of the above
59) Which numerical value below is closest to Zero Population Growth?
a) 10 billion b) 6.5 billion c) 5 children d) 2.1 children e) none of these is correct
60) The homogametic sex in humans is?
GOOD LUCK in ALL
a) male
b) female
YOUR FUTURE ENDEAVORS
c) neither sex
150ss05 Test 3-Final page 6
Name: ____________________________________
Bil 150 SS1
01. ( 17 points)
June 24, 2005
T3 - Essay Questions
.
__
.
5’- A T G T G C A T A G C T T T A A G C C G A T T A C G T A A T - 3 ’
3’-TACACGTATCGAAATTCGGCTAATGCATTA-5’
a. A drug company uses Beagles in its drug testing research and has isolated the gene segment above from
the whole genome of the species Beagle. If the percent of Adenine in Beagle DNA is 18%, then the % of
the base cytosine is? _________32%_________________ (2)
b. How long (nm) is the gene segment shown above?
____0.34nm x 30 = 10.2nm __________(2)
c. If the average molecular weight of a nucleotide in DNA is 340amu, then the MW of the gene piece depicted
above is? ______20,400 amu _________________(2)
d. Only one of the 2 strands of DNA above is the correct DNA template strand. Remember the initiator
codon and list the correct messenger RNA that would be made from this gene segment? (4)
5’-AUG UGC AUA GCU UUA AGC CGA UUA CGA AAU –3’
e. Using the correct mRNA made in part (d) above, list the proper amino acid sequence made by this DNA? (4)
H2N-met-cys-ile-ala-leu-ser-arg-leu-arg-asn-COOH
f. What would be the effect if the nucleotide pair shaded in the gene segment above were point mutated to a
C-G pair respectively, i.e. A-T changed to C-G? (3)
there would be no effect: the codon change would be from CGA to CGC which also codes for ARG
02. An ion, M+, has a measured concentration of 10 mM inside a cell and 100 mM outside of the cell. Under
natural conditions, what is the electrical charge likely to be across this cell's membrane, if it is due to
solely passive distribution of the ion M+? (5 points)
Nernst Equation = Emv = +/- 62 Log10 [Co/Ci]
EmV = + 62 Log10 [100mM / 10 mM]
EmV = + 62 x 1
= 62 mV
03. The figure to the right is a DNA electropherogram (fingerprint) exhibiting DNA samples from a victim, two
possible suspects, and the crime scene. (6 points)
a. Which of the labeled DNA fragments is common
to both the victim and Suspect 1? ____ B _____
b. Which of the labeled DNA fragments is common
to both the victim and Suspect 2? ____ C _____
c. Which suspect will the police consider to be the
person to have committed the crime and Why?
Suspect 1 because he has 4 DNA markers in common with the crime scene samples, while suspect 2
has only one DNA marker in common.
Name: ____________________________________
June 24, 2005
04. The figure to the left is an DNA electrophoreogram of known
DNA markers of specific sizes indicated by the number of
nucleotide pairs shown in the log graph and two unknowns,
DNA I and DNA II. (5 points)
a. Which unknown DNA sample (I or II) has the shortest DNA
fragment piece? __ DNA sample II – fragment C ____(2)
b. The DNA fragments in this gel were cut from their parental
DNA by what type of enzymes? restriction endonucelase(1)
c. Approximately how many base pairs are in the
DNA fragment labeled A? ____9,416 _______________(1)
d. Approximately how many base pairs are in the DNA
fragment labeled B? _between 4,361 & 6,557______(1)
05. In the figure of a striated muscle to the right? (6 points)
a. What is the dark band labeled A. __A band – Myosin __________________
b. What type of protein(s) are found in label B. ____ actin _________________
c. What is the structure at label C. _____Z-line _________________________
06. In the figure to the right identify the following?
(6 points)
B. ___neurotransmitter acetylcholine___
C. ___ post-membrane receptor _______
F. ___ transverse tubule _____________
G. ___ actin – thin filament _________
H. ___ thick filament – myosin _______
J. ____ tropomyosin ___________________
07. In the electrical tracing to the left? (5 points)
a. What is the voltage value of #1 ____ - 65 mV ____
b. Which # represents the hyperpolarization or undershoot _________ 5 ___________________________
c. K channels open during which numbered phase? _______________ 4 ___________________________
d. What ion is moving passively during the phase numbered 3? _____ Na __________________________
e. What kind of cell potential is depicted by this figure? ___________ action potential _______________