Download 1. ATP powers cellular processes by coupling exergonic and

1. ATP powers cellular processes by coupling exergonic and endergonic reactions.
(a) Discuss the mechanism for ATP synthesis within the mitochondria.
(b) Describe how ATP is utilized to accomplish mechanical work within an organism, and provide an
example.
(c) Explain how ATP maintains the membrane potential of excitable cells.
2. In the Miller-Urey experiment, application of electric
sparks to simple gases resulted in the formation of
A) steroids
C) simple amino acids
E) RNA
7. Base your answer to the following question on the
diagram below.
B) ozone
D) polysaccharides
3. The endosymbiont theory details the
A) adiabatic processes occurring within all cells
B) development of the endomembrane system in
eukaryotic cells
C) hypothesis of heat sharing between symbiotic
organisms
D) presence of certain parasites within their host
organisms
E) origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts within a
larger prokaryotic cell
4. The Earth's early atmosphere probably contained mostly
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
hydrogen gas and methane gas
water vapor and hydrogen peroxide
carbon dioxide and nitrogen
oxygen, helium and argon
oxygen and ozone
5. Which of the following gases was NOT utilized in
Miller's famous experiment, which showed that the
release of a spark into a gaseous mixture would produce
various organic compounds?
A) Oxygen gas
C) Hydrogen gas
E) Water vapor
B) Ammonia gas
D) Methane gas
6. When bonds are broken, energy that is not used by the
cell to carry out cellular processes is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
stored in the nucleus
given off as heat
digested by the lysosomes
packaged in the endoplasmic reticulum
oxidized
According to Miller and Urey, the heat source is
necessary to simulate
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
the sun, which was more active billions of years ago
the habitat necessary for prokaryotic reproduction
the primordial sea
the air in which life began
volcanic activity which stimulated terrestrial
mutations
8. ATP serves as an effective energy transfer molecule
because of
A) the nature of the bonds existing between adjacent
phosphate groups
B) its release in response to the binding of calcium
ions to enzymes on the cell membrane
C) its role in cytochrome activity during the electron
transport chain
D) its ability to be both consumed and produced during
glycolysis
E) its rapid production by the mitochondria of
prokaryotic cells
9. In a laboratory, Enzyme Y is produced through
dehydration synthesis involving the addition of ATP. When Y is hydrolyzed to recover amino acids, heat is
released. This illustrates
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Base your answers to questions 14 and 15 on the following diagram:
the 1st law of thermodynamics
the 2nd law of thermodynamics
the law of enthalpy
the recovery principle
none of the above
10. The chemiosmotic gradient in aerobic respiration is
able to function because the movement of H + ions from
high to low concentrations is
A) anabolic
C) endergonic
E) osmotic
B) catabolic
D) exergonic
11. The process of dehydration synthesis is both
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
anabolic and endergonic
anabolic and exergonic
catabolic and endergonic
catabolic and exergonic
none of the above
12. Base your answer to the following question on the
graph below.
14. The activation energy of the reverse reaction is
indicated by
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
15. The activation energy of the above reaction is indicated
by
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
16. Which of the following gives the correct order of bond
energies from highest to lowest?
I. C – C covalent bonds
II. ionic bonds
III. phosphate group bonds
A) I – II – III
C) II – I – III
E) III – I – II
B) I – III – II
D) III – II – I
17. High energy phosphate bonds are present in which of
the following molecules?
I. Glucose
II. ATP
III. Water
The reaction labeled B is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
endergonic and catalyzed
endergonic and uncatalyzed
exergonic and catalyzed
exergonic and uncatalyzed
irreversible and spontaneous
13. The process by which they obtain energy classifies
plants as
A) chemoautotrophs
B) photoautotrophs
C) chemoheterotrophs D) photoheterotrophs
E) poikilotherms
A) I only
C) III only
E) II and III
B) II only
D) I and II
18. How might a student increase the oxygen release of the
plants in the lab?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Increase humidity and decrease temperature.
Increase light and increase humidity.
Decrease CO2 and decrease temperature.
Decrease humidity and increase temperature.
Increase light and decrease H 2O.
19. A couple has 6 children and all of them are female.
The probability that the couple's 7th child is a male is
A) 1/49
B) 1/7
C) 1/6
D) 1/2
E) 6/7
20. Bacteriophages reproduce either by a lytic cycle or a lysogenic cycle. Explain both cycles and what
happens if a cell switches from one cycle to the other.
21. Select the statement that accurately describes the
difference in net energy yield between aerobic and
anaerobic respiration.
A) Aerobic respiration yields 36 ATP and anaerobic
respiration yields 2 ATP
B) Aerobic respiration yields 34 ATP and anerobic
respiration yields 4 ATP
C) Aerobic respiration yields 4 ATP and anerobic
respiration yields 36 ATP
D) Aerobic respiration yields 36 ATP and anerobic
respiration yields 4 ATP
E) Aerobic respiration yields 34 ATP and anerobic
respiration yields 2 ATP
22. Alexander Oparin developed the heterotrophic
hypothesis, which states
A) the first molecules on Earth served as building
blocks of life, forming spontaneously under proper
conditions.
B) the membrane of the mitochondria allows for a
concentration gradient to develop, which drives
the production of ATP.
C) the membrane of the chloroplasts allows for a
concentration gradient to develop, which drives
the production of ATP.
D) the first organisms on Earth obtained their organic
material from light sources.
E) the first organisms on Earth obtained their organic
material from the environment.
23. Chemiosmosis in chloroplasts and mitochondria is
different because
A) only mitochondria use ATP synthases
B) there is a difference in pH between the membranes
of the chloroplasts
C) only the electron transport chain of the
mitochondria uses cytochromes
D) the mitochondria converts chemical energy from
food into ATP
E) the chloroplast converts ATP molecules into food
24. The proton gradient created across the thylakoid
membrane depends greatly on which of the following
as its source of power?
A) Oxygen
C) NADPH
E) CO 2
B) Light
D) ATP
25. Within a chloroplast the few hundred chlorophyll a
molecules located in photosystem II function to
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
absorb carbon dioxide
release oxygen
synthesize ATP
extract electrons from water
gather light
26. Which materials are utilized during the Calvin cycle in
order to reduce fixed carbon to carbohydrate?
A) Sunlight
C) O2 and CH 2O
E) NADP+ and CO 2
B) NADPH and ADP
D) Electrons and ATP
27. The C4 plant pathway is not always advantageous
because
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ATP is sacrificed in order to transport CO2
it requires a large quantity of H20
it does not produce sugar
it increases photorespiration
it bypasses the Calvin cycle
28. C4 plants have a unique leaf anatomy because they
consist of two photosynthetic cells called
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
vascular cells and plasmodesmata
mesophyll cells and guard cells
phloem and xylem
bundle-sheath cells and mesophyll cells
stem cells and bundle-sheath cells
29. In C-3 plants, during carbon fixation of the Calvin
cycle, CO2 combines with
A) NADP+
C) H2O
E) PEP
B) RuBP
D) G3P
30. Light absorbed by chlorophyll drives a transfer of
electrons and hydrogen from water to an acceptor called
A) NAD+
C) O2
E) CO 2
B) ADP
D) NADP+
31. In the light reaction, NADP is reduced by
A) ATPase
C) H+
E) light energy
B) CO 2
D) O2
Base your answers to questions 32 through 34 on the
image below.
36. Oxygen given off by plants is derived from
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
carbon dioxide
water
the sun
nitrogen elements in the soil
cell respiration
37. Cyclic photophosphorylation activates
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
PS I only
PS II only
PS I then PS II
PS II then PS I
neither PS I nor PS II
38. If carbohydrates are not available for catabolism, what
must occur before proteins can be used as fuel?
32. If this plant is undergoing photorespiration, the Calvin
cycle will release
A) oxygen
C) sucrose
E) water
B) ATP
D) carbon dioxide
33. The organic compound exported from the Calvin cycle
is
A) carbon dioxide
C) NADP
E) glycerin
B) G3P
D) sucrose
34. During photosynthesis, letter X marks the spot for
which of the following processes?
A) Calvin cycle, glycolysis, and ATP synthesis
B) Calvin cycle, electron transport chain, and
photosystem I
C) Photophosphorylation, photosystem I, and carbon
fixation
D) Carbon fixation, electron transport chain, and ATP
synthesis
E) Photosystem II, electron transport chain, and
photosystem I
35. During photosynthesis, energized photosystems
embedded in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts
produce which of the following?
A) ATP and NAD+
C) ADP and H2O
E) H2O and ATP
B) ATP and NADPH
D) Sugar and O2
A) Fermentation
C) Digestion
E) Synthesis
B) Photosynthesis
D) Oxidation
39. Which of the following describes the portion of inner
mitochondrial membrane permeable to only H + ?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Ubiquinone of the electron transport chain
NADH channel
ATP synthase channel
Cytochrome of the electron transport chain
FADH2 gradient 40. What happens to the NADH and FADH2 that are
created during the Krebs cycle?
A) They are used in the electron transport chain only.
B) They are used during oxidative phosphorylation
only.
C) They are used during both oxidative
phosphorylation and the electron transport chain.
D) They are stored within the mitochondria.
E) They couple with transport proteins on the plasma
membrane to facilitate ion transfer.
41. How does the electron transport chain keep electrons
moving in one direction?
A) By using ATP.
B) Electronegativity and cytochrome affinity.
C) Phosphorylation as electrons enter ATP synthase
channels.
D) Heat is added to excite the electrons.
E) A concentration gradient forces electrons to bind
to an oxidizing agent.
42. During cellular respiration the compound acetyl CoA is
A) converted from acetic acid within the electron
transport chain
B) converted from carbon dioxide during anaerobic
conditions
C) necessary for the initiation of glycolysis
D) converted from pyruvate in the presence of oxygen
E) necessary for the splitting of water
43. The H + gradient established on the opposite sides of the
mitochondrial matrix is
A) responsible for the reduction of NAD
B) the direct energy source driving the synthesis of
ATP during oxidative phosphorylation
C) responsible for establishing the Na-K balance
across the membrane
D) directly responsible for lowing the pH within the
mitochondria
E) necessary for the initiation of the Kreb's cycle
44. During the electron transport chain, an H + gradient is
established. What happens at the mitochondrial matrix
as a result of this gradient?
A) The pH increases.
B) The proteins disengage from the matrix.
C) Water is formed and used to power the ATP
synthase.
D) The rate of glycolysis increases.
E) No event occurs at the mitochondrial matrix.
47. In humans, the rate of glycolysis is regulated by
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
negative feedback by excess ATP
negative feedback by insufficient acetyl coA
positive feedback by pyruvate deficiency
positive feedback by excess O2
positive feedback by excess phosphofructokinase
Base your answers to questions 48 and 49 on the following choices
I. Electron transport chain
II. Glycolysis
III. Krebs cycle
48. NADH 2+ and FADH2 are oxidized during
A) I only
C) III only
E) I, II and III
B) II only
D) I and III only
49. NAD+ and FAD are reduced to NADH2+ and FADH2
during
A) I only
C) I and III only
E) I, II and III
B) III only
D) II and III only
Base your answers to questions 50 and 51 on the following picture.
45. Without oxygen, the electron transport chain
A) will produce carbon dioxide as a final product
B) will only produce water as a final product
C) will not function, and the cell will undergo
oxidative phosphorylation
D) will produce more molecules of ATP
E) will not function, and the cell will undergo
fermentation
46. Base your answer to the following question on your knowledge of aerobic respiration of one molecule
of glucose.
How much ATP is produced by substrate-level
phosphorylation?
A) 0 ATP
C) 4 ATP
E) 8 ATP
B) 2 ATP
D) 6 ATP
50. Enzymes may be found in
A) A only
C) C only
E) A, B and C
B) B only
D) B and C only
51. Redox reactions involving cytochromes take place in
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
the area contained by A and C
the area contained by B and C
A only
B only
C only
52. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below.
The molecule indicated by X is
A) ATP
B) CO 2
C) H2O
53. Which of the following cells can be compared to a
facultative anaerobe?
A) Muscle
C) Brain
E) Skin
B) Stem
D) Blood
54. All of the following statements about alcohol
fermentation are true EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)
It occurs in plants, fungi, and bacteria
Pyruvate is converted to acetaldehyde and CO2
Ethanol is the final product
The alcohol produced is the source of alcohol in
beer and wine
E) NAD+ is converted to NADH
55. Which of the following is directly responsible for water
being liquid at room temperature?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Covalent bonds are weaker than hydrogen bonds
Water has a high heat capacity
Hydrogen bonds link water molecules together
Water is a universal solvent
Water is stable due to strong covalent bonds
D) O2
E) PGAL
56. During the winter Lake Michigan freezes over trapping
the living organisms under a sheet of solid ice. As the
temperature drops the hydrogen bonds between water
molecules get locked into a crystalline lattice.
Which of the following can be attributed to the fact that
the bottom of the lake doesn't freeze solid?
A) Water expands as it solidifies making ice water
less dense than liquid water.
B) Hydrogen bonds are constantly breaking and
reforming.
C) The organisms' metabolic activity produces
enough heat to prevent solidification.
D) The solutes distributed in the lake have a higher
freezing point.
E) The hydration shell surround the ice prevents it
from extending past the surface.
57. Increased surface area for reactions within organelles is
created by
A) cisternae
C) gyri
E) none of the above
B) cristae
D) sulci
58. Water is considered a universal solvent.
Describe three of the following characteristics of water that contribute to the fitness of Earth as an
environment for life; provide an example for each property.
(i) Structure and polarity of water molecules
(ii) Adhesion
(iii) Specific heat
(iv) Evaporative cooling
Base your answers to questions 59 and 60 on the
molecules depicted below.
63. Water sustains life on Earth by all of the following
properties EXCEPT
A) low surface tension from double covalent bonds
B) strong capillary action from cohesion and
adhesion
C) neutral pH from the equal concentrations of H +
and OH - ions
D) ability to act as a universal solvent because of the
polarity of the H 2O molecule
E) low density of its solid form because of hydrogen
bonds
59. Which are formed through dehydration synthesis?
A) 1 only
C) 1 and 4 only
E) 3 and 4 only
B) 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only
60. Which of the following pairs are soluble in water?
A) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
E) 4 and 5
B) 1 and 3
D) 3 and 5
61. Which of the following is caused by water's
intramolecular forces?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
dipole nature
easy dissociation into H + and OH – ions
hydrogen bonds
low density of ice
all of the above
62. Water dissolves all of the following EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
amino acids
carbon dioxide
long-chained fatty acids
mineral salts
monosaccharides
64. Phospholipids naturally form a bilayer in water because
of I. acidic reactions between lipid chains and
water
II. dipole interactions between phosphate groups
and water
III. hydrophobic interactions between lipid chains
A) I only
C) I and III only
E) I, II and III
B) III only
D) II and III only
65. Water is considered a universal solvent because
A) it is an excellent circulating medium
B) relatively stable
C) it can dissolve ionic compounds, polar covalent
molecules and small nonpolar covalent molecules
D) contains both positive and negative charged sides
E) all of the above
66. The need for cellular efficiency limits
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
cellular respiration
numbers of organelles
surface area: volume ratio
types of organelles
none of the above
67. In a plasma membrane, what event directly follows
GTP binding to the G-protein-linked receptor?
Base your answers to questions 74 and 75 on the diagram of the cell membrane below.
A) The signal molecule inactivates the signal
pathway.
B) The alpha helices spanning the membrane will
disengage.
C) The enzyme will deactivate.
D) The activated receptor detaches from the plasma
membrane.
E) The G-protein is activated.
68. All amphipathic molecules have which of the
following?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Plasmodesmata
A fluid mosaic model
A hydrophobic and hydrophilic region
A micelle configuration
Aquaporins
69. Cell surface carbohydrates are important for
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
cell-cell recognition
structural integrity
fluidity
selectivity of the membrane
active transportation
70. Membrane proteins function in all of the following
ways EXCEPT
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
transportation of oxygen
signal transduction
cell-cell recognition
enzymatic activity
transportation of ions
71. Ions diffuse from cell to cell through
A) carrier proteins
C) plasmodesmata
E) none of the above
B) gap junctions
D) all of the above
72. A cell membrane contains all of the following EXCEPT
A) glycolipids
C) sphingolipids
E) none of the above
B) phospholipids
D) steroids
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
75. Which of the following refers to the hydrophobic
portion of the lipid molecule?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
76. Which of the following molecules have hydrophobic
and hydrophilic components?
A) Steroid
C) Phospholipid
E) Triglyceride
B) Glycogen
D) Protein
77. Which of the following is not a component of a cell
wall?
A) Peptidoglycans
C) Polysaccharides
E) Actin
B) Cellulose
D) Chitin
78. If a Paramecium living in pond water were to lose
function of its contractile vacuole, what would be the
result?
A) It would not be able to consume the proper amount
of nutrients.
B) It would activate its sodium-potassium pumps.
C) It would rapidly undergo mitosis.
D) It would fill with water and lyse.
E) It would shrink.
79. Active transport requires which of the following?
73. In a eukaryotic cell, the plasma membrane may consist
of each of the following EXCEPT
A) chitin
C) cholesterol
E) proteins
74. These protein molecules are involved in cell transport.
B) glycoprotein
D) phospholipids
A) Sodium
C) ATP
E) Pi
B) Water
D) ADP
80. Base your answer to the following question on the diagrams of organic molecules below.
This lipid maintains the fluidity in cell membranes.
Base your answers to questions 81 and 82 on the choices below.
84. Base your answer to the following question on the
figure below.
(A) Active transport
(B) Vesicular transport
(C) Countercurrent exchange
(D) Simple diffusion
(E) Bulk flow
81. Net movement of substances from an area of higher
concentration to an area of lower concentration
82. The diffusion of substances between two regions in
which substances are moving by bulk flow in opposite
directions
Without the process indicated in the above figure a cell
would NOT be able to
83. Active transport differs from facilitated diffusion
because
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A) active transport can only move certain solutes
B) facilitated diffusion requires the cell to expend its
own metabolic energy
C) facilitated diffusion maintains steep concentration
gradients
D) active transport moves solutes down a gradient
E) facilitated diffusion moves solutes from higher to
lower
ingest large materials
form the plasma membrane
carry out cyclosis
undergo passive transport
ingest small materials
85. Macrophages primarily function in the immune system
by engulfing bacteria through the process of
A) excretion
C) phagocytosis
E) toxicity
B) exocytosis
D) pinocytosis
86. Receptor-mediated endocytosis results in the formation
of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
amyloplasts
clathrin-coated vesicles
contractile vacuoles
lysosomes
tonoplasts
Base your answers to questions 87 and 88 on the 5 lettered headings listed below. Select the single
heading that most directly applies to the subsequent
statement. Each heading may be used once, more than
once, or not at all within its group.
(A) Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis
(B) Exocytosis
(C) Phagocytosis
(D) Pinocytosis
(E) Cotransport
87. An amoeba's pseudopodia wrap around a food particle,
engulf it, and package it into a vacuole.
88. When LDL membrane proteins are defective,
cholesterol particles cannot undergo this very specific
process and LDL deposits buildup on blood vessel
linings.
89. Base your answer to the following question on the picture below. (Before and after pictures of a cell
placed in a particular solution.)
91. During osmosis, water will move from a hypotonic
solution to
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
the isotonic solution
a cell with greater osmotic pressure
a hypertonic solution
the solution with more aquaporins
a hypotonic solution
92. In a laboratory on diffusion and osmosis the following
results were obtained:
What would the water potential be for this experiment?
A) –1 bar
C) 1 bar
E) 6 bars
B) 0 bars
D) 5 bars
93. Which of the following is NOT true regarding water
potential?
A) Water potential is measured in bars.
B) At atmospheric pressure, the water potential of
pure water is zero.
C) Tension is negative water potential.
D) Water moves from areas of low water potential to
high water potential.
E) A cell wall applies pressure potential.
94. The movement of water out of a cell that results in the
collapse of the cell is called
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
plasmolysis
dialysis
facilitated diffusion
counter-current exchange
simple diffusion
95. Prokaryotic cells reproduce asexually by
The cell in picture B is considered
A) lysed
C) turgid
E) water
B) impermeable
D) flaccid
90. Archaea are similar to plant cells in that they both have
A) a nucleus
C) DNA
E) cellulose
B) internal membranes
D) mitochondria
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
mitosis only
meiosis only
binary fission only
mitosis and binary fission
mitosis, meiosis, and binary fission
96. A primary constituent of bacterial cell walls is
A) peptidoglycan
C) glucose
E) polysaccharides
B) cellulose
D) phospholipids
97. The most abundant elements in the protoplasm are
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
carbon, hydrogen, sulfur, and phosphorus
carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus
carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen
nitrogen, sulfur, zinc, calcium
phosphorus, hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen
98. Gap junctions between animal cells most closely
resemble
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
G-proteins in fungi
plasmodesmata in plants
synaptic junctions in humans
tight junctions in algae
none of the above
102.Cell fractionation can be accomplished using
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
ultracentrifuge
hydrochloric acid
scalpel
scanning electron microscope
none of the above
103. The diagram below depicts bands produced by an
electrophoresis produced using DNA from four
individuals. All DNA is treated with identical
restriction enzymes.
99. Base your answer on the diagram below.
Which of the following correctly describes the parents
and offspring?
Structure D is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
the golgi apparatus
the mitochondria
the centriole
a chloroplast
the endoplasmic reticulum
100.Cells of both angiosperms and mice contain which of
the following organelles?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Cell membranes and chromosomes
Cell walls and nuclei
Lysosomes and ribosomes
Centrioles and cell membranes
Chloroplasts and vacuoles
101. In which stage of the Drosphila life cycle does
metamorphosis occur?
A) Eggs
C) Late Larvae
E) Adult
B) Early Larvae
D) Pupae
A) Lanes 1 and 2 contain DNA from the parents;
Lane 3 contains DNA from the offspring.
B) Lanes 2 and 4 contain DNA from the parents;
Lane 3 contains DNA from the offspring.
C) Lane 1 and 3 contain DNA from the parents;
Lane 4 contains DNA from the offspring.
D) Lanes 1 and 3 contain DNA from the parents;
Lane 2 contains DNA from the offspring.
E) Lanes 2 and 3 contain DNA from the parents;
Lane 4 contains DNA from the offspring.
104. Apoptosis is caused by the action of
A) lysosomes
C) peroxisomes
E) toxins
B) ribosomes
D) tonoplasts
105. Base your answer to the following question on the choices below.
(A) Structural gene
(B) Promoter gene
(C) Regulatory gene
(D) Operon
(E) Operator
Codes for a specific protein called the repressor
106. Mutations are present on genes, including regulatory genes such as operons. Predict how the operon
would function with the following mutations, with and without lactose present.
a.) Mutation in the operator; repressor cannot bind.
b.) Mutation in lacZ.
c.) Mutation in promoter; RNA polymerase does not bind to promoter.
d.) Mutation in a gene downstream.
107. Base your answer to the following question on the image below.
110. In the lac operon, why does the binding of a repressor
protein to the operator region block transcription of
the structural genes?
A) The repressor protein prevents RNA polymerase
from binding to the promoter.
B) The repressor protein prevents RNA polymerase
from binding to the operator.
C) The repressor protein prevents DNA polymerase
from binding to the promoter.
D) The repressor protein prevents lactose from
binding to the repressor.
E) The repressor protein prevents DNA polymerase
from binding to the operator.
Solution X must be
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
hypertonic to the cell
hypotonic to the cell
isotonic to the cell
distilled H 20
cytosol
108. After X inactivation in female mammals, what
happens to the X chromosome?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
It divides and separates among each somatic cell.
It condenses into a Barr body.
It undergoes translocation.
It is altered and degraded by lysosomes.
It is deleted.
109. The two main processes linking gene to protein are
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
elongation and termination
replication and transformation
initiation and transcription
transcription and translation
termination and translation
111. In the lac operon of a bacterial cell, lactose serves
what purpose?
A) It is the inducer.
C) It is the repressor.
E) It is the operator.
B) It is the promoter.
D) It is the inhibitor.
112. Base your answer to the following question on the choices below.
(A) Phenotype
(B) Genotype
(C) Locus
(D) Allele
(E) Heterozygous
The actual expression of a gene
113. An organism with genotype QqRr only produces two
gamete genotypes, QR and qr. This violates which
principle of Mendelian genetics?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Codominance
Dominance
Independent Assortment
Linkage
Segregation
114. Base your answer to the following question on the following pedigree chart for a sex-linked disorder.
If Individual 9 marries a woman with one recessive allele, what are their chances of having a normal
daughter?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
Base your answers to questions 115 and 116 on the
information given below.
A heterozygous red-eyed female fruit fly mates with a
white-eyed male. Their offspring are one red-eyed
female, one white-eyed female and one red-eyed male.
115. A red-eyed female with normal wings mates with a
white-eyed male with normal wings. They have two
offspring: one white-eyed female with normal wings,
one red-eyed male with vestigial wings. What are the
parental genotypes?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Ww Vv x ww Vv
XWXw Vv x XwY Vv
XWXW Vv x XwY Vv
XWXW VV x XwY vv
XWXw vv x XwY VV
116. What is the probability of their next offspring being a
red-eyed male?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
117. When a homozygous recessive organism is crossed
with a heterozygous dominant organism, what percent
of the progeny will be heterozygous dominant?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
D) 75%
E) 100%
118. Which of the following is true regarding the genetic
cross called a testcross?
A) One organism has a dominant phenotype and the
other has the homozygous recessive phenotype.
B) One organism has the heterozygous dominant
phenotype and the other has the homozygous
dominant phenotype.
C) Both organisms have the heterozygous dominant
phenotype.
D) Both organisms are thought to possess the
recessive phenotype to ensure the recessive
nature of the allele in question.
E) The phenotypes of both organisms being tested
are unknown.
119. Deletions and duplications of chromosomal segments
are more likely to occur during which on the
following cell stages?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Prophase of mitosis
Anaphase of mitosis
Telophase I of meiosis
Prophase I of meiosis
Anaphase I of meiosis
120. If an individual heterozygous for Type A blood
marries an individual heterozygous for type B blood,
the probability that their first child's blood type will be
type O is
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
121. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below.
What is the genotype of Individual 5?
A) tt
B) Tt
C) TT
122. Four genes on a chromosome C are mapped and their
crossover frequencies were determined. D) Xt Y
E) XT Y
125. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below.
Genes Crossover Frequency
K and J 10
J and M 15
M and L 20
J and L 35
K and L
45
Which of the following represents the relative
locations of these 4 genes on chromosome C?
A) KJML
C) JMLK
E) KLJM
B) KMLJ
D) LJMK
123. In early embryonic development, aneuploidy of a
single cell will be passed on to all of the cells of the
developing organism through
A) mitosis
C) translocation
E) inversion
B) nondisjunction
D) meiosis
124. If a mother and her child belong to blood group AB,
which blood group could the father NOT belong to?
A) AB
C) B
E) Both B and C
B) A
D) O
Which of the following classifications describes
Individual A?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Female with Klinefelter's syndrome
Male with Fragile X syndrome
Female with nondisjunction
Male with Down syndrome
Male with Muscular dystrophy
126. Fifteen nucleotides code for a protein which contains
how many amino acids?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 15
D) 30
E) 45
127. Identify the disorder depicted in the diagram below.
132. A human genetic defect that affects a male by making
him tall and sterile with underdeveloped testes is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Sickle cell anemia
Cystic Fibrosis
Huntington disease
Hemophilia
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
128. The lack of a dominant gene that normally provides
for the presence of hexosaminidase-A, an enzyme that
breaks down fatty substances, is associated with
which of the following diseases?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Tay-Sachs disease
Lou Gehrig's disease
Thalassemia
Huntington's disease
Phenylketonuria
129. The inherited disease whereby a lack of an enzyme
results in metabolic defects, mental retardation and
death around age 20 is called
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Amniocentesis
Viviparity
Turner's Syndrome
Klinefelter's Syndrome
130. A human genetic defect which makes an individual a
short sterile female having underdeveloped ovaries
and breasts is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Turner's Syndrome
Down's Syndrome
Klinefelter's Syndrome
Hemophilia
Sickle Cell Anemia
131. Which regulatory molecule(s) provide the signals at
the G 1 and G2 checkpoints?
A) Oxygen
C) Protein kinases
E) Tubulin
B) ATP
D) Growth factor
Turner's Syndrome
Hemophilia
Sickle Cell Anemia
Phenylketonuria
Klinefelter's Syndrome
133. A sample of a child’s cheek cells was found to have a
high number of dysfunctional mitochondria. Evidence
of this condition should also be sought in cells from
the child’s
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
maternal grandfather
paternal grandmother
father
mother
male cousins
134. In turkeys, black is the dominant plumage color and
bronze is the recessive. When a black female mates
with a bronze male, they have 2 black offspring, 3
bronze, and 2 brown. This indicates that plumage
color is
A) codominant
C) mutated
E) sex-linked
B) epistatic
D) pleiotropic
135. When two inherited alleles are expressed at the same
time, which of the following is exhibited?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Linkage
Epistasis
Codominance
Incomplete Dominance
Multiple Alleles
Base your answers to questions 136 and 137 on the 5 lettered headings listed below. Select the single
heading that most directly applies to the subsequent
statement. Each heading may be used once, more than
once, or not at all within its group.
(A) Pleiotropy
(B) Epistasis
(C) Incomplete Dominance
(D) Codominance
(E) Polygenic Inheritance
136. The heredity of skin pigmentation in humans is
controlled by this genetic interaction
137. The sickle-cell allele causes the production an
abnormally shaped hemoglobin molecule, which
causes the breakdown of red blood cells, clogging of
small blood vessels, and an accumulation of sickle
cells in the spleen.
138. When a red snapdragon is crossed with a white
snapdragon, the resulting F 1 hybrids are pink. Which
of the following terms best describes this
phenomenon?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Incomplete dominance
Pleiotropy
Codominance
Epitasis
Polygenic inheritance
139. In snapdragons the heterozygous condition consisting
of one allele for red flowers and one allele for white
flowers is pink. This is an example of
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
pleiotropy
epistasis
incomplete dominance
codominance
multiple alleles
140. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. If a man
and a woman produce a son who has hemophilia, what
must be true?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The mother carries an allele for hemophilia.
The father carries an allele for hemophilia.
The mother has hemophilia.
Neither parent has hemophilia.
Both parents have hemophilia.
141. If a Drosophila melanogaster female who expresses a
sex-linked recessive trait is mated with a wildtype D.
melanogaster male, which of the following is
expected to occur?
A) 100% of the males will express the trait and 0%
of the females will express the trait.
B) 100% of the males will express the trait and
100% of the females will express the trait.
C) 50% of the males will express the trait and 50%
of the females will express the trait.
D) 0% of the males will express the trait and 100%
of the females will express the trait.
E) 0% of the males and 0% of the females will
express the trait.
142. In humans, hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait.
If two parents produce a son with hemophilia, which
of the following statements must be true?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
The mother carries the allele for hemophilia
The mother has hemophilia
The father carries the allele for hemophilia
The father has hemophilia
Both parents carry the allele for hemophilia
143. During non-growth periods of the cell cycle, DNA
exists as
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
daughter chromosomes
a tetrad of four chromatids
a single sister chromatid
newly formed sister chromatids
chromatin
144. During mitosis, DNA exists in the form of two sister
chromatids during
A) telophase
C) prophase
E) metaphase
B) interphase
D) anaphase
145. During prophase I, crossing over is responsible for
A) contributing to genetic diversity
B) the movement of sister chromatids to opposite
poles of the cell
C) the formation of tetrads
D) initiating the condensation of chromosomes
E) recombination of two sister chromatids
Base your answers to questions 146 and 147 on the diagram below, which shows the stages occurring during mitosis, not necessarily in the correct order.
146. At which stage does the nuclear membrane disappear?
147. At which stage is the cell in Anaphase?
148. Base your answer to the following question on the following picture.
The number of chromosomes present in cell A at the
time shown is
A) n
B) 2n
C) 4n
D) 6n
E) 8n
149. Researchers have found that mutations on the ras gene
are common in many human cancers. Which of the
following occurs when this G protein pathway is
disrupted?
A) Hyperactivity of the ras gene causes excessive
cell division.
B) Mutations on the ras gene cause the inhibition of
cell division.
C) The ras gene signals its own death.
D) Mutations cause the activation of telomerase.
E) The ras gene prevents the repair of mutations in
the cell's DNA.
150. DNA is the polymer for which class of compounds?
A) Nucleic acids
C) Proteins
E) Genes
B) RNA
D) Amino acids
151. Base your answer to the following question on the following information.
An organism has a somatic cell with 4 chromosomes in the S phase of the cell cycle.
Which of the following diagrams best represents a cell of this organism during prophase I of mitosis?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
152. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram shown below.
This event between allels a and A on homologous chromosomes is referred to as
A) nondisjunction
B) mitosis
C) a point mutation D) recombination
153. Nucleosomes are formed by
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
condensed mRNA in the nucleolus
DNA wrapped around histones
polypeptide chains around a metallic atom
rRNA prior to ribosome assembly
spindle fibers during mitosis
154. Chromosomes that are completely condensed contain
all of the following structures EXCEPT
A) histones
C) helices
E) nucleosomes
B) euchromatin
D) heterochromatin
E) synapsis
155. The 5’ end of a DNA nucleotide can be identified by
the location of
A) carbon
C) nitrogenous bases
E) phosphate group
B) hydrogen bonds
D) oxygen
156. A DNA strand in a double helix has a base sequence
of TATCGT. The base sequence of its DNA
complement is
A) ACGAUA
C) ATAGCA
E) AUAGCA
B) TATCGT
D) TGCTAT
157. An organism has a somatic cell with 4 chromosomes in the S phase of the cell cycle.
Which of the following diagrams best represents a cell of this organism during metaphase I of meiosis?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
158. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below.
Base your answers to questions 159 and 160 on the picture below.
159. During cell division this complex condenses to form
chromosomes
A) chromatin
C) chromosomes
E) chromatids
These run antiparallel to one another.
A) A and E
C) A and B
E) D and E
B) A and D
D) C and D
B) spindle fibers
D) kinetochores
160. The structure labeled B is called a
A) chromosome
C) spindle fiber
E) centromere
B) chromatid
D) chromatin
161. Base your answer to the following question on the diagrams of organic molecules below.
DNA is a polymer of these molecules.
162. The 5' cap placed on the end of each pre-mRNA
molecule functions to
A) promote the attachment of RNA polymerase
B) provide a marker site for spliceosomes to begin
the removal of introns
C) signal attachment for polyribosomal clusters
D) provide a signal for the attachment of genes
E) protect the mRNA from degradation and provide
a signal for ribosome attachment
163. Before a molecule of mRNA can leave the nucleus it
must
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
remove the noncoding regions called exons
excise the introns and splice the exons together
splice together the 5'cap and the polyA tail
excise the exons and attach the polyA tail
be translated by the RNA polymerase
164. Which of the following is responsible for prying the
DNA helix apart in order to transcribe the mRNA?
A) helicase
C) promoter
E) spliceosome
B) RNA polymerase
D) DNA polymerase
165. In prokaryotic cells, the transcription initiation
complex binds to
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
a primer
the termination sequence
a promoter sequence on the DNA molecule
the codon
an mRNA molecule
166. Retroviruses are used by genetic engineers to
transform mRNA into DNA because mRNA does not
include
A) exons
B) GTP cap
C) non-coding regions D) nucleotide tails
E) stop codons
167. Which of the following does NOT participate in
transcription or translation?
A) DNA
C) tRNA
E) DNA polymerase
B) mRNA
D) rRNA
168. Okazaki fragments are joined by
A) DNA helicase
C) DNA polymerase
E) topoisomerase
B) DNA ligase
D) DNA primase
169. Meiotic errors are a source of many chromosomal disorders. Explain the concept of nondisjunction. In a
unified response include what happens when nondisjunction occurs and give an example.
170. What would be the sequence of mRNA bases
transcribed from that DNA base sequence
TACGGTCA?
A) AUGCCAGU
C) TUCGGTCU
E) AUCGGACU
B) TACGGTCA
D) ATGCCAGT
171. A crime lab is given a DNA sample found on the cuff
of a button down shirt. Which of the following DNA
technologies would be necessary for generating
sufficient DNA for comparison purposes?
A) PCR
C) Gene therapy
E) Denaturation
B) RFLP analysis
D) SNPs
172. Researchers are studying stem cells because they are
A) capable of rapid division within a nucleus
B) cells that never die once within the body
C) unspecialized and pluripotent under appropriate
conditions
D) the only cells able to be cloned in large amounts
E) undergo meiosis outside the gametes
173. Using a single somatic cell from a multicellular
organism to make a genetically identical individual is
called
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
mitosis
nuclear transplantation
cloning
induction
differentiation
174. Recombinant DNA is spliced at specific locations
using
A) spliceosomes
C) plasmids
E) DNA ligase
B) restriction enzymes
D) cloning vectors
175. Which of the following contains DNA from different
sources?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Recombinant DNA
Reconstructed DNA
Reconstituted DNA
Re-annealed DNA
Reanalyzed DNA
176. A vector is defined as which of the following?
A) A bacteriophage that transfers genetic material
from one cell to another.
B) A plasmid that is capable of the transmission of
DNA.
C) A disease-carrying microorganism.
D) A single strand of DNA.
E) An agent that transmits genetic material from one
cell to another.
Base your answers to questions 177 through 179 on the
following choice:
(A) Electrophoresis
(B) Transduction
(C) Plasmids
(D) Transformation
(E) Restriction Enzymes
177. Technique that is especially useful in identifying a
mutant gene for such diseases as sickle-cell anemia
178. Can serve as a vector to incorporate genes into the
host’s chromosome
179. A way to incorporate specific genes into a plasmid by
cutting the foreign DNA at specific sites
180. Bacteria can accept segments of foreign DNA and
incorporate them into their own chromosomes through
all of the following EXCEPT
A) transduction
C) transformation
E) conjugation
B) translation
D) plasmids
181. Which of the following is a difference in DNA
sequence on homologous chromosomes made visible
by using restriction enzymes?
A) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms
(RFLP)
B) Complementary pairing
C) DNA library
D) cDNA library
E) PCR
182. The fragment below contains a recessive allele, which is lethal. The normal allele has both restriction
sites I and II. The recessive allele only has restriction site I.
An individual is tested to determine if she is a carrier of the lethal allele. Which band pattern below
would be produced if she were a carrier?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
183. What is a requirement of amplification using the
Polymerase Chain Reaction?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Large sample size
Relatively new sample
Long period of time for amplificiation
Known sequence to be amplified
Primers with known sequence
184. Which of the following is a method used to determine
the specific sequence of nucleotides in a gene?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Gene sequencing
Hybridization
Gene cloning
Recombination
Segregation of genes
185. When a virus infects a cell, causing it to burst and
release viral progeny, the virus is described as
A) conjugated
C) lysogenic
E) transformed
B) lytic
D) transduced
186. Rosalind Franklin’s pictures of the DNA double helix
were taken using the technique known as
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
bright field microscopy
diffraction
fluorescence
transmission electron microscopy
x-ray crystallography
187. The chi-square test is useful in
A) testing the validity of an experiment
B) testing the validity of the statistics used in the
experiment
C) testing the validity of a null hypothesis
D) finding the average results
E) developing the hypothesis
188. When a section of DNA is cut, and the sequence is
reversed, which of the following mutations results?
A) Inversion
C) Frameshift
E) Point
B) Insertion
D) Addition
189. Base your answer on the diagram below.
193. Frederick Griffith experimented with two strains of
pneumonia, an S (smooth) and an R (rough) strain.
When injected into test mice, the S strain was able to
kill its host while the R strain was not. However,
when the S strain were killed by heat, and their
remains were added to R strain bacteria they were able
to kill its host. This phenomenon can best be
described by
A) transformation
C) mutation
E) replication
The stage labeled X in the diagram represents
A) bacterial replication in which each bacterium
codes for insulin.
B) bacterial replication in which each bacterium
contains a recombinant plasmid and an unaltered
plasmid
C) plasmid replication, whereby each time the
bacterium undergoes cell division, the number of
plasmids within the cell doubles.
D) bacterial replication in which each bacterium
contains no plasmids
E) bacterial replication, whereby the genetically
engineered bacterium can regulate sodium levels
in its host.
Base your answers to questions 190 through 192 on the
choices below. Match the scientist to their contribution
to the study of biology.
(A) Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase
(B) Rosalind Franklin
(C) George Beadle & Edward Tatum
(D) Frederick Griffith
(E) Barbara McClintock
190. Based the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis on the
study of nutritional mutants of Neurospora crassa, a
red bread mold
191. Discovered that molecules from the dead S strain of
the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae had
genetically transformed some of the living R strain
bacteria into S strain bacteria
192. Discovered that DNA is the genetic material of a
bacteriophage known as T2
B) transduction
D) induction
194. Which of the following scientists determined that
DNA is the hereditary material in viruses?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Hershey and Chase (1952)
Griffith (1928)
Watson and Crick (1953)
Morgan (1950's)
Meselson and Stahl (1950's)
195. A eukaryotic cell lacking helicase during DNA
replication would
A) be incapable of proofreading the newly
synthesized strand
B) be unable to terminate elongation
C) be incapable of unwinding the DNA helix
D) catalyze the DNA strand at incorrect locations
E) not seal the Okazaki fragments on the lagging
strand
196. During DNA replication, all of the following must
occur before the completion of a new strand EXCEPT
A) separation of the parental DNA strands by the
DNA helicase
B) primase joins RNA nucleotides to make a primer
C) telomerase terminates replication at the end of
the synthesized strand
D) DNA polymerase replaces RNA nucleotides with
DNA nucleotides
E) telomeres are added to the end of the synthesized
strand
197. Which of the following sequences expresses the
correct order of enzyme function in DNA replication?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
helicase – primase – DNA polymerase –ligase
helicase – primase – ligase – DNA polymerase
helicase – primase – ligase – hydrolase
primase – helicase – ligase – DNA polymerase
primase – helicase – DNA polymerase – ligase
198. During DNA replication, the leading strand is easily
distinguishable from the lagging strand because
A) the leading strand is synthesized 3' to 5'
B) the lagging strand is synthesized in separate
pieces called Okazaki fragments
C) helicases only attach to the leading strand
D) the lagging strand is synthesized 5' to 3'
E) DNA ligase is attached to the leading strand
199. Okazaki fragments are formed on
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
DNA lagging strand
DNA leading strand
mRNA strand
tRNA strand
rRNA
204. What would happen if a polypeptide is NOT marked
by a signal peptide?
A) It would end up attached to the plasma
membrane.
B) It could not move into the endoplasmic
reticulum.
C) It would keep elongating without termination.
D) It would be degraded by the signal-recognition
particle.
E) It would never leave the nucleus.
205. Base your answer to the following question on the chart below.
200. In DNA synthesis, DNA is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
read 3’ to 5’ and made 3’ to 5’
read 3’ to 5’ and made 5’ to 3’
read 5’ to 3’ and made 3’ to 5’
read 5’ to 3’ and made 5’ to 3’
read 5’ to 5’ and made 3’ to 3’
201. The replication of DNA is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
a semiconservative process
a degenerative process
a non-conservative process
a random process
a highly-conserved process
202. Which of the following is important during the
translocation of tRNA from the A site to the P site?
A) The maintenance of hydrogen bonds between the
anticodon and mRNA codon.
B) The mRNA moving in the 3' to 5' direction.
C) The ribosome bypassing the intron regions on the
mRNA strand.
D) The release factor must bind in order to move the
tRNA molecules.
E) The small ribosomal subunit must dissociate from
the mRNA strand.
203. During translation, mRNA
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
binds to the A site
binds to the P site
moves from A to P site
moves from P to A site
does not occur
If a polypeptide chain has the amino acid sequence,
Leu-Arg-Lys, what would be the corresponding
anticodons found on the tRNA?
A) CCA CGA TTT
C) GGU GCU UUU
E) GGT CCA TTT
B) CCA CGA AAA
D) GGU GCU AAA
Base your answers to questions 206 through 208 on the image below.
210. Which of the following best represents the expression
of genes?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
DNA DNA RNA RNA Protein RNA Protein
Protein RNA
Protein DNA
DNA Protein
RNA DNA
211. Base your answer to the following question on the choices below.
206. Identify the structure indicated by the letter C
A) polypeptide
C) codon
E) nuclear envelope
B) DNA
D) mRNA
207. Identify the structure indicated by letter B
A) DNA
C) tRNA
E) nucleotide chain
B) mRNA
D) polypeptide chain
208. A triplet code is responsible for
A) attaching amino acids to DNA
B) encoding the instructions for the polypeptide
chain
C) placing the correct protein on the mRNA strand
D) transcribing the DNA strand from its template
E) synthesizing mRNA from a complementary
protein strand
209. Base your answer to the following question on the following diagram
(A) Transformation
(B) Translocation
(C) Duplication
(D) Conjugation
(E) Translation
Process in which a protein is synthesized at a ribosome
212. The lytic cycle of viruses differs from the lysogenic
cycle because
A)
B)
C)
D)
only the lysogenic cycle occurs in bacterial hosts
the lytic cycle kills the host more rapidly
th lysogenic cycle causes the host cell to lyse
the lysogenic cycle is more detrimental to a host
cell
E) the lytic cycle reproduces double-stranded DNA
viruses
213. Viruses can incorporate their DNA into the host's
chromosome and remain latent. The term for this type
of replication is called
A) conjugation
C) lytic
E) transformation
B) lysogenic
D) transduction
214. Which term refers to the process of a virus taking
along some of a host cell's DNA and injecting this
DNA, along with its own viral DNA, into a new host
cell?
The sequence depicted above binds to the opposite
sequence on another molecule by
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
disulfide bonds
hydrogen bonds
ionic bonds
phosphodiester linkages
van der Waals forces
A) Conjugation
C) Lytic
E) Transformation
B) Lysogenic
D) Transduction
215. Viruses contain which of the following pairs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Nucleic acids and protein coat
Chloroplasts and a protein coat
Ribosomes and nucleic acids
Mitochondria and chloroplasts
A phospholipid membrane and ribosomes
216. Viruses are not classified as prokaryotes because
A) they contain membrane bound organelles
B) they are unable to carry out cellular metabolic
processes independently
C) they lack ribosomes
D) they lack genetic material
E) they contain a capsid
217. When infecting human cells, retroviruses often
I. contain genetic information in the form of
RNA
II. use reverse transcriptase to convert RNA to
DNA
III. lay dormant in the host cell before
undergoing a lytic life cycle
A) I only
C) III only
E) I, II and III
B) II only
D) I and II only
218. The virus HIV replicates using reverse transcriptase.
Thus it can be inferred that the virus
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
uses only DNA
uses only RNA
uses RNA as a template for DNA
uses DNA as a template for RNA
replicates continuously
219. Which of the following is true about transposons
within a DNA molecule?
A) They are capable of moving within the genome.
B) They consist of three or more genes along a DNA
strand.
C) They are responsible for the formation of
histones.
D) They are amplified and expressed during
embryonic development.
E) They are deleted during cell division.
220. The DNA of a healthy child revealed that his gene for
insulin was different from that of his parents, who
have identical genotypes for that trait. The change in
genotype was likely caused by
A) crossing over
C) point mutation
E) translocation
B) frameshift
D) inversion
221. Which mutation can result in a change in the reading
frame?
A) deletion
B) inversion
C) an adenine changing to guanine in a codon's third
base
D) substitution
E) point
222. Which of the following is a result of the defective
separation of sister chromatids during meiosis?
A) Synapsis
C) Mutation
E) Deletion
B) Nondisjunction
D) Translocation
223. Base your answer to the following question on the
choices below.
(A) Duplication
(B) Translocation
(C) Inversion
(D) Point mutation
(E) Frameshift mutation
The insertion of DNA leads to a change in the normal
reading frame
224. DNA codes for mRNA, which is then translated into polypeptides, which are strands of amino acids. The
DNA sequence below codes for the following amino acids:
methionine- valine- glycine- alanine- alanine- serine
TAC CAA CCA CGC CGC UCA
a.) What effect would the addition of the nucleotides adenine- cytosine- thymine nucleotide after the first
nucleotide in the above sequence have on the amino acid sequence?
b.) What effect would the deletion of the eighth nucleotide (cytosine) have on the polypeptide produced?
c.) What effect would changing the sixth nucleotide from an adenine to a thymine?
AP Biology
Name _________________
Class _________________
Date _________
1.
36.
71.
106.
2.
37.
72.
107.
3.
38.
73.
108.
4.
39.
74.
109.
5.
40.
75.
110.
6.
41.
76.
111.
7.
42.
77.
112.
8.
43.
78.
113.
9.
44.
79.
114.
10.
45.
80.
115.
11.
46.
81.
116.
12.
47.
82.
117.
13.
48.
83.
118.
14.
49.
84.
119.
15.
50.
85.
120.
16.
51.
86.
121.
17.
52.
87.
122.
18.
53.
88.
123.
19.
54.
89.
124.
20.
55.
90.
125.
21.
56.
91.
126.
22.
57.
92.
127.
23.
58.
93.
128.
24.
59.
94.
129.
25.
60.
95.
130.
26.
61.
96.
131.
27.
62.
97.
132.
28.
63.
98.
133.
29.
64.
99.
134.
30.
65.
100.
135.
31.
66.
101.
136.
32.
67.
102.
137.
33.
68.
103.
138.
34.
69.
104.
139.
35.
70.
105.
140.
AP Biology
Name _________________
Class _________________
141.
176.
211.
142.
177.
212.
143.
178.
213.
144.
179.
214.
145.
180.
215.
146.
181.
216.
147.
182.
217.
148.
183.
218.
149.
184.
219.
150.
185.
220.
151.
186.
221.
152.
187.
222.
153.
188.
223.
154.
189.
224.
155.
190.
156.
191.
157.
192.
158.
193.
159.
194.
160.
195.
161.
196.
162.
197.
163.
198.
164.
199.
165.
200.
166.
201.
167.
202.
168.
203.
169.
204.
170.
205.
171.
206.
172.
207.
173.
208.
174.
209.
175.
210.
Date _________