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1. ATP powers cellular processes by coupling exergonic and endergonic reactions. (a) Discuss the mechanism for ATP synthesis within the mitochondria. (b) Describe how ATP is utilized to accomplish mechanical work within an organism, and provide an example. (c) Explain how ATP maintains the membrane potential of excitable cells. 2. In the Miller-Urey experiment, application of electric sparks to simple gases resulted in the formation of A) steroids C) simple amino acids E) RNA 7. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below. B) ozone D) polysaccharides 3. The endosymbiont theory details the A) adiabatic processes occurring within all cells B) development of the endomembrane system in eukaryotic cells C) hypothesis of heat sharing between symbiotic organisms D) presence of certain parasites within their host organisms E) origin of mitochondria and chloroplasts within a larger prokaryotic cell 4. The Earth's early atmosphere probably contained mostly A) B) C) D) E) hydrogen gas and methane gas water vapor and hydrogen peroxide carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxygen, helium and argon oxygen and ozone 5. Which of the following gases was NOT utilized in Miller's famous experiment, which showed that the release of a spark into a gaseous mixture would produce various organic compounds? A) Oxygen gas C) Hydrogen gas E) Water vapor B) Ammonia gas D) Methane gas 6. When bonds are broken, energy that is not used by the cell to carry out cellular processes is A) B) C) D) E) stored in the nucleus given off as heat digested by the lysosomes packaged in the endoplasmic reticulum oxidized According to Miller and Urey, the heat source is necessary to simulate A) B) C) D) E) the sun, which was more active billions of years ago the habitat necessary for prokaryotic reproduction the primordial sea the air in which life began volcanic activity which stimulated terrestrial mutations 8. ATP serves as an effective energy transfer molecule because of A) the nature of the bonds existing between adjacent phosphate groups B) its release in response to the binding of calcium ions to enzymes on the cell membrane C) its role in cytochrome activity during the electron transport chain D) its ability to be both consumed and produced during glycolysis E) its rapid production by the mitochondria of prokaryotic cells 9. In a laboratory, Enzyme Y is produced through dehydration synthesis involving the addition of ATP. When Y is hydrolyzed to recover amino acids, heat is released. This illustrates A) B) C) D) E) Base your answers to questions 14 and 15 on the following diagram: the 1st law of thermodynamics the 2nd law of thermodynamics the law of enthalpy the recovery principle none of the above 10. The chemiosmotic gradient in aerobic respiration is able to function because the movement of H + ions from high to low concentrations is A) anabolic C) endergonic E) osmotic B) catabolic D) exergonic 11. The process of dehydration synthesis is both A) B) C) D) E) anabolic and endergonic anabolic and exergonic catabolic and endergonic catabolic and exergonic none of the above 12. Base your answer to the following question on the graph below. 14. The activation energy of the reverse reaction is indicated by A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 15. The activation energy of the above reaction is indicated by A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 16. Which of the following gives the correct order of bond energies from highest to lowest? I. C – C covalent bonds II. ionic bonds III. phosphate group bonds A) I – II – III C) II – I – III E) III – I – II B) I – III – II D) III – II – I 17. High energy phosphate bonds are present in which of the following molecules? I. Glucose II. ATP III. Water The reaction labeled B is A) B) C) D) E) endergonic and catalyzed endergonic and uncatalyzed exergonic and catalyzed exergonic and uncatalyzed irreversible and spontaneous 13. The process by which they obtain energy classifies plants as A) chemoautotrophs B) photoautotrophs C) chemoheterotrophs D) photoheterotrophs E) poikilotherms A) I only C) III only E) II and III B) II only D) I and II 18. How might a student increase the oxygen release of the plants in the lab? A) B) C) D) E) Increase humidity and decrease temperature. Increase light and increase humidity. Decrease CO2 and decrease temperature. Decrease humidity and increase temperature. Increase light and decrease H 2O. 19. A couple has 6 children and all of them are female. The probability that the couple's 7th child is a male is A) 1/49 B) 1/7 C) 1/6 D) 1/2 E) 6/7 20. Bacteriophages reproduce either by a lytic cycle or a lysogenic cycle. Explain both cycles and what happens if a cell switches from one cycle to the other. 21. Select the statement that accurately describes the difference in net energy yield between aerobic and anaerobic respiration. A) Aerobic respiration yields 36 ATP and anaerobic respiration yields 2 ATP B) Aerobic respiration yields 34 ATP and anerobic respiration yields 4 ATP C) Aerobic respiration yields 4 ATP and anerobic respiration yields 36 ATP D) Aerobic respiration yields 36 ATP and anerobic respiration yields 4 ATP E) Aerobic respiration yields 34 ATP and anerobic respiration yields 2 ATP 22. Alexander Oparin developed the heterotrophic hypothesis, which states A) the first molecules on Earth served as building blocks of life, forming spontaneously under proper conditions. B) the membrane of the mitochondria allows for a concentration gradient to develop, which drives the production of ATP. C) the membrane of the chloroplasts allows for a concentration gradient to develop, which drives the production of ATP. D) the first organisms on Earth obtained their organic material from light sources. E) the first organisms on Earth obtained their organic material from the environment. 23. Chemiosmosis in chloroplasts and mitochondria is different because A) only mitochondria use ATP synthases B) there is a difference in pH between the membranes of the chloroplasts C) only the electron transport chain of the mitochondria uses cytochromes D) the mitochondria converts chemical energy from food into ATP E) the chloroplast converts ATP molecules into food 24. The proton gradient created across the thylakoid membrane depends greatly on which of the following as its source of power? A) Oxygen C) NADPH E) CO 2 B) Light D) ATP 25. Within a chloroplast the few hundred chlorophyll a molecules located in photosystem II function to A) B) C) D) E) absorb carbon dioxide release oxygen synthesize ATP extract electrons from water gather light 26. Which materials are utilized during the Calvin cycle in order to reduce fixed carbon to carbohydrate? A) Sunlight C) O2 and CH 2O E) NADP+ and CO 2 B) NADPH and ADP D) Electrons and ATP 27. The C4 plant pathway is not always advantageous because A) B) C) D) E) ATP is sacrificed in order to transport CO2 it requires a large quantity of H20 it does not produce sugar it increases photorespiration it bypasses the Calvin cycle 28. C4 plants have a unique leaf anatomy because they consist of two photosynthetic cells called A) B) C) D) E) vascular cells and plasmodesmata mesophyll cells and guard cells phloem and xylem bundle-sheath cells and mesophyll cells stem cells and bundle-sheath cells 29. In C-3 plants, during carbon fixation of the Calvin cycle, CO2 combines with A) NADP+ C) H2O E) PEP B) RuBP D) G3P 30. Light absorbed by chlorophyll drives a transfer of electrons and hydrogen from water to an acceptor called A) NAD+ C) O2 E) CO 2 B) ADP D) NADP+ 31. In the light reaction, NADP is reduced by A) ATPase C) H+ E) light energy B) CO 2 D) O2 Base your answers to questions 32 through 34 on the image below. 36. Oxygen given off by plants is derived from A) B) C) D) E) carbon dioxide water the sun nitrogen elements in the soil cell respiration 37. Cyclic photophosphorylation activates A) B) C) D) E) PS I only PS II only PS I then PS II PS II then PS I neither PS I nor PS II 38. If carbohydrates are not available for catabolism, what must occur before proteins can be used as fuel? 32. If this plant is undergoing photorespiration, the Calvin cycle will release A) oxygen C) sucrose E) water B) ATP D) carbon dioxide 33. The organic compound exported from the Calvin cycle is A) carbon dioxide C) NADP E) glycerin B) G3P D) sucrose 34. During photosynthesis, letter X marks the spot for which of the following processes? A) Calvin cycle, glycolysis, and ATP synthesis B) Calvin cycle, electron transport chain, and photosystem I C) Photophosphorylation, photosystem I, and carbon fixation D) Carbon fixation, electron transport chain, and ATP synthesis E) Photosystem II, electron transport chain, and photosystem I 35. During photosynthesis, energized photosystems embedded in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts produce which of the following? A) ATP and NAD+ C) ADP and H2O E) H2O and ATP B) ATP and NADPH D) Sugar and O2 A) Fermentation C) Digestion E) Synthesis B) Photosynthesis D) Oxidation 39. Which of the following describes the portion of inner mitochondrial membrane permeable to only H + ? A) B) C) D) E) Ubiquinone of the electron transport chain NADH channel ATP synthase channel Cytochrome of the electron transport chain FADH2 gradient 40. What happens to the NADH and FADH2 that are created during the Krebs cycle? A) They are used in the electron transport chain only. B) They are used during oxidative phosphorylation only. C) They are used during both oxidative phosphorylation and the electron transport chain. D) They are stored within the mitochondria. E) They couple with transport proteins on the plasma membrane to facilitate ion transfer. 41. How does the electron transport chain keep electrons moving in one direction? A) By using ATP. B) Electronegativity and cytochrome affinity. C) Phosphorylation as electrons enter ATP synthase channels. D) Heat is added to excite the electrons. E) A concentration gradient forces electrons to bind to an oxidizing agent. 42. During cellular respiration the compound acetyl CoA is A) converted from acetic acid within the electron transport chain B) converted from carbon dioxide during anaerobic conditions C) necessary for the initiation of glycolysis D) converted from pyruvate in the presence of oxygen E) necessary for the splitting of water 43. The H + gradient established on the opposite sides of the mitochondrial matrix is A) responsible for the reduction of NAD B) the direct energy source driving the synthesis of ATP during oxidative phosphorylation C) responsible for establishing the Na-K balance across the membrane D) directly responsible for lowing the pH within the mitochondria E) necessary for the initiation of the Kreb's cycle 44. During the electron transport chain, an H + gradient is established. What happens at the mitochondrial matrix as a result of this gradient? A) The pH increases. B) The proteins disengage from the matrix. C) Water is formed and used to power the ATP synthase. D) The rate of glycolysis increases. E) No event occurs at the mitochondrial matrix. 47. In humans, the rate of glycolysis is regulated by A) B) C) D) E) negative feedback by excess ATP negative feedback by insufficient acetyl coA positive feedback by pyruvate deficiency positive feedback by excess O2 positive feedback by excess phosphofructokinase Base your answers to questions 48 and 49 on the following choices I. Electron transport chain II. Glycolysis III. Krebs cycle 48. NADH 2+ and FADH2 are oxidized during A) I only C) III only E) I, II and III B) II only D) I and III only 49. NAD+ and FAD are reduced to NADH2+ and FADH2 during A) I only C) I and III only E) I, II and III B) III only D) II and III only Base your answers to questions 50 and 51 on the following picture. 45. Without oxygen, the electron transport chain A) will produce carbon dioxide as a final product B) will only produce water as a final product C) will not function, and the cell will undergo oxidative phosphorylation D) will produce more molecules of ATP E) will not function, and the cell will undergo fermentation 46. Base your answer to the following question on your knowledge of aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose. How much ATP is produced by substrate-level phosphorylation? A) 0 ATP C) 4 ATP E) 8 ATP B) 2 ATP D) 6 ATP 50. Enzymes may be found in A) A only C) C only E) A, B and C B) B only D) B and C only 51. Redox reactions involving cytochromes take place in A) B) C) D) E) the area contained by A and C the area contained by B and C A only B only C only 52. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below. The molecule indicated by X is A) ATP B) CO 2 C) H2O 53. Which of the following cells can be compared to a facultative anaerobe? A) Muscle C) Brain E) Skin B) Stem D) Blood 54. All of the following statements about alcohol fermentation are true EXCEPT A) B) C) D) It occurs in plants, fungi, and bacteria Pyruvate is converted to acetaldehyde and CO2 Ethanol is the final product The alcohol produced is the source of alcohol in beer and wine E) NAD+ is converted to NADH 55. Which of the following is directly responsible for water being liquid at room temperature? A) B) C) D) E) Covalent bonds are weaker than hydrogen bonds Water has a high heat capacity Hydrogen bonds link water molecules together Water is a universal solvent Water is stable due to strong covalent bonds D) O2 E) PGAL 56. During the winter Lake Michigan freezes over trapping the living organisms under a sheet of solid ice. As the temperature drops the hydrogen bonds between water molecules get locked into a crystalline lattice. Which of the following can be attributed to the fact that the bottom of the lake doesn't freeze solid? A) Water expands as it solidifies making ice water less dense than liquid water. B) Hydrogen bonds are constantly breaking and reforming. C) The organisms' metabolic activity produces enough heat to prevent solidification. D) The solutes distributed in the lake have a higher freezing point. E) The hydration shell surround the ice prevents it from extending past the surface. 57. Increased surface area for reactions within organelles is created by A) cisternae C) gyri E) none of the above B) cristae D) sulci 58. Water is considered a universal solvent. Describe three of the following characteristics of water that contribute to the fitness of Earth as an environment for life; provide an example for each property. (i) Structure and polarity of water molecules (ii) Adhesion (iii) Specific heat (iv) Evaporative cooling Base your answers to questions 59 and 60 on the molecules depicted below. 63. Water sustains life on Earth by all of the following properties EXCEPT A) low surface tension from double covalent bonds B) strong capillary action from cohesion and adhesion C) neutral pH from the equal concentrations of H + and OH - ions D) ability to act as a universal solvent because of the polarity of the H 2O molecule E) low density of its solid form because of hydrogen bonds 59. Which are formed through dehydration synthesis? A) 1 only C) 1 and 4 only E) 3 and 4 only B) 4 only D) 2 and 3 only 60. Which of the following pairs are soluble in water? A) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 3 E) 4 and 5 B) 1 and 3 D) 3 and 5 61. Which of the following is caused by water's intramolecular forces? A) B) C) D) E) dipole nature easy dissociation into H + and OH – ions hydrogen bonds low density of ice all of the above 62. Water dissolves all of the following EXCEPT A) B) C) D) E) amino acids carbon dioxide long-chained fatty acids mineral salts monosaccharides 64. Phospholipids naturally form a bilayer in water because of I. acidic reactions between lipid chains and water II. dipole interactions between phosphate groups and water III. hydrophobic interactions between lipid chains A) I only C) I and III only E) I, II and III B) III only D) II and III only 65. Water is considered a universal solvent because A) it is an excellent circulating medium B) relatively stable C) it can dissolve ionic compounds, polar covalent molecules and small nonpolar covalent molecules D) contains both positive and negative charged sides E) all of the above 66. The need for cellular efficiency limits A) B) C) D) E) cellular respiration numbers of organelles surface area: volume ratio types of organelles none of the above 67. In a plasma membrane, what event directly follows GTP binding to the G-protein-linked receptor? Base your answers to questions 74 and 75 on the diagram of the cell membrane below. A) The signal molecule inactivates the signal pathway. B) The alpha helices spanning the membrane will disengage. C) The enzyme will deactivate. D) The activated receptor detaches from the plasma membrane. E) The G-protein is activated. 68. All amphipathic molecules have which of the following? A) B) C) D) E) Plasmodesmata A fluid mosaic model A hydrophobic and hydrophilic region A micelle configuration Aquaporins 69. Cell surface carbohydrates are important for A) B) C) D) E) cell-cell recognition structural integrity fluidity selectivity of the membrane active transportation 70. Membrane proteins function in all of the following ways EXCEPT A) B) C) D) E) transportation of oxygen signal transduction cell-cell recognition enzymatic activity transportation of ions 71. Ions diffuse from cell to cell through A) carrier proteins C) plasmodesmata E) none of the above B) gap junctions D) all of the above 72. A cell membrane contains all of the following EXCEPT A) glycolipids C) sphingolipids E) none of the above B) phospholipids D) steroids A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 75. Which of the following refers to the hydrophobic portion of the lipid molecule? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E 76. Which of the following molecules have hydrophobic and hydrophilic components? A) Steroid C) Phospholipid E) Triglyceride B) Glycogen D) Protein 77. Which of the following is not a component of a cell wall? A) Peptidoglycans C) Polysaccharides E) Actin B) Cellulose D) Chitin 78. If a Paramecium living in pond water were to lose function of its contractile vacuole, what would be the result? A) It would not be able to consume the proper amount of nutrients. B) It would activate its sodium-potassium pumps. C) It would rapidly undergo mitosis. D) It would fill with water and lyse. E) It would shrink. 79. Active transport requires which of the following? 73. In a eukaryotic cell, the plasma membrane may consist of each of the following EXCEPT A) chitin C) cholesterol E) proteins 74. These protein molecules are involved in cell transport. B) glycoprotein D) phospholipids A) Sodium C) ATP E) Pi B) Water D) ADP 80. Base your answer to the following question on the diagrams of organic molecules below. This lipid maintains the fluidity in cell membranes. Base your answers to questions 81 and 82 on the choices below. 84. Base your answer to the following question on the figure below. (A) Active transport (B) Vesicular transport (C) Countercurrent exchange (D) Simple diffusion (E) Bulk flow 81. Net movement of substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration 82. The diffusion of substances between two regions in which substances are moving by bulk flow in opposite directions Without the process indicated in the above figure a cell would NOT be able to 83. Active transport differs from facilitated diffusion because A) B) C) D) E) A) active transport can only move certain solutes B) facilitated diffusion requires the cell to expend its own metabolic energy C) facilitated diffusion maintains steep concentration gradients D) active transport moves solutes down a gradient E) facilitated diffusion moves solutes from higher to lower ingest large materials form the plasma membrane carry out cyclosis undergo passive transport ingest small materials 85. Macrophages primarily function in the immune system by engulfing bacteria through the process of A) excretion C) phagocytosis E) toxicity B) exocytosis D) pinocytosis 86. Receptor-mediated endocytosis results in the formation of A) B) C) D) E) amyloplasts clathrin-coated vesicles contractile vacuoles lysosomes tonoplasts Base your answers to questions 87 and 88 on the 5 lettered headings listed below. Select the single heading that most directly applies to the subsequent statement. Each heading may be used once, more than once, or not at all within its group. (A) Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis (B) Exocytosis (C) Phagocytosis (D) Pinocytosis (E) Cotransport 87. An amoeba's pseudopodia wrap around a food particle, engulf it, and package it into a vacuole. 88. When LDL membrane proteins are defective, cholesterol particles cannot undergo this very specific process and LDL deposits buildup on blood vessel linings. 89. Base your answer to the following question on the picture below. (Before and after pictures of a cell placed in a particular solution.) 91. During osmosis, water will move from a hypotonic solution to A) B) C) D) E) the isotonic solution a cell with greater osmotic pressure a hypertonic solution the solution with more aquaporins a hypotonic solution 92. In a laboratory on diffusion and osmosis the following results were obtained: What would the water potential be for this experiment? A) –1 bar C) 1 bar E) 6 bars B) 0 bars D) 5 bars 93. Which of the following is NOT true regarding water potential? A) Water potential is measured in bars. B) At atmospheric pressure, the water potential of pure water is zero. C) Tension is negative water potential. D) Water moves from areas of low water potential to high water potential. E) A cell wall applies pressure potential. 94. The movement of water out of a cell that results in the collapse of the cell is called A) B) C) D) E) plasmolysis dialysis facilitated diffusion counter-current exchange simple diffusion 95. Prokaryotic cells reproduce asexually by The cell in picture B is considered A) lysed C) turgid E) water B) impermeable D) flaccid 90. Archaea are similar to plant cells in that they both have A) a nucleus C) DNA E) cellulose B) internal membranes D) mitochondria A) B) C) D) E) mitosis only meiosis only binary fission only mitosis and binary fission mitosis, meiosis, and binary fission 96. A primary constituent of bacterial cell walls is A) peptidoglycan C) glucose E) polysaccharides B) cellulose D) phospholipids 97. The most abundant elements in the protoplasm are A) B) C) D) E) carbon, hydrogen, sulfur, and phosphorus carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen nitrogen, sulfur, zinc, calcium phosphorus, hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen 98. Gap junctions between animal cells most closely resemble A) B) C) D) E) G-proteins in fungi plasmodesmata in plants synaptic junctions in humans tight junctions in algae none of the above 102.Cell fractionation can be accomplished using A) B) C) D) E) ultracentrifuge hydrochloric acid scalpel scanning electron microscope none of the above 103. The diagram below depicts bands produced by an electrophoresis produced using DNA from four individuals. All DNA is treated with identical restriction enzymes. 99. Base your answer on the diagram below. Which of the following correctly describes the parents and offspring? Structure D is A) B) C) D) E) the golgi apparatus the mitochondria the centriole a chloroplast the endoplasmic reticulum 100.Cells of both angiosperms and mice contain which of the following organelles? A) B) C) D) E) Cell membranes and chromosomes Cell walls and nuclei Lysosomes and ribosomes Centrioles and cell membranes Chloroplasts and vacuoles 101. In which stage of the Drosphila life cycle does metamorphosis occur? A) Eggs C) Late Larvae E) Adult B) Early Larvae D) Pupae A) Lanes 1 and 2 contain DNA from the parents; Lane 3 contains DNA from the offspring. B) Lanes 2 and 4 contain DNA from the parents; Lane 3 contains DNA from the offspring. C) Lane 1 and 3 contain DNA from the parents; Lane 4 contains DNA from the offspring. D) Lanes 1 and 3 contain DNA from the parents; Lane 2 contains DNA from the offspring. E) Lanes 2 and 3 contain DNA from the parents; Lane 4 contains DNA from the offspring. 104. Apoptosis is caused by the action of A) lysosomes C) peroxisomes E) toxins B) ribosomes D) tonoplasts 105. Base your answer to the following question on the choices below. (A) Structural gene (B) Promoter gene (C) Regulatory gene (D) Operon (E) Operator Codes for a specific protein called the repressor 106. Mutations are present on genes, including regulatory genes such as operons. Predict how the operon would function with the following mutations, with and without lactose present. a.) Mutation in the operator; repressor cannot bind. b.) Mutation in lacZ. c.) Mutation in promoter; RNA polymerase does not bind to promoter. d.) Mutation in a gene downstream. 107. Base your answer to the following question on the image below. 110. In the lac operon, why does the binding of a repressor protein to the operator region block transcription of the structural genes? A) The repressor protein prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter. B) The repressor protein prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the operator. C) The repressor protein prevents DNA polymerase from binding to the promoter. D) The repressor protein prevents lactose from binding to the repressor. E) The repressor protein prevents DNA polymerase from binding to the operator. Solution X must be A) B) C) D) E) hypertonic to the cell hypotonic to the cell isotonic to the cell distilled H 20 cytosol 108. After X inactivation in female mammals, what happens to the X chromosome? A) B) C) D) E) It divides and separates among each somatic cell. It condenses into a Barr body. It undergoes translocation. It is altered and degraded by lysosomes. It is deleted. 109. The two main processes linking gene to protein are A) B) C) D) E) elongation and termination replication and transformation initiation and transcription transcription and translation termination and translation 111. In the lac operon of a bacterial cell, lactose serves what purpose? A) It is the inducer. C) It is the repressor. E) It is the operator. B) It is the promoter. D) It is the inhibitor. 112. Base your answer to the following question on the choices below. (A) Phenotype (B) Genotype (C) Locus (D) Allele (E) Heterozygous The actual expression of a gene 113. An organism with genotype QqRr only produces two gamete genotypes, QR and qr. This violates which principle of Mendelian genetics? A) B) C) D) E) Codominance Dominance Independent Assortment Linkage Segregation 114. Base your answer to the following question on the following pedigree chart for a sex-linked disorder. If Individual 9 marries a woman with one recessive allele, what are their chances of having a normal daughter? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% Base your answers to questions 115 and 116 on the information given below. A heterozygous red-eyed female fruit fly mates with a white-eyed male. Their offspring are one red-eyed female, one white-eyed female and one red-eyed male. 115. A red-eyed female with normal wings mates with a white-eyed male with normal wings. They have two offspring: one white-eyed female with normal wings, one red-eyed male with vestigial wings. What are the parental genotypes? A) B) C) D) E) Ww Vv x ww Vv XWXw Vv x XwY Vv XWXW Vv x XwY Vv XWXW VV x XwY vv XWXw vv x XwY VV 116. What is the probability of their next offspring being a red-eyed male? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100% 117. When a homozygous recessive organism is crossed with a heterozygous dominant organism, what percent of the progeny will be heterozygous dominant? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100% D) 75% E) 100% 118. Which of the following is true regarding the genetic cross called a testcross? A) One organism has a dominant phenotype and the other has the homozygous recessive phenotype. B) One organism has the heterozygous dominant phenotype and the other has the homozygous dominant phenotype. C) Both organisms have the heterozygous dominant phenotype. D) Both organisms are thought to possess the recessive phenotype to ensure the recessive nature of the allele in question. E) The phenotypes of both organisms being tested are unknown. 119. Deletions and duplications of chromosomal segments are more likely to occur during which on the following cell stages? A) B) C) D) E) Prophase of mitosis Anaphase of mitosis Telophase I of meiosis Prophase I of meiosis Anaphase I of meiosis 120. If an individual heterozygous for Type A blood marries an individual heterozygous for type B blood, the probability that their first child's blood type will be type O is A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100% 121. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below. What is the genotype of Individual 5? A) tt B) Tt C) TT 122. Four genes on a chromosome C are mapped and their crossover frequencies were determined. D) Xt Y E) XT Y 125. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below. Genes Crossover Frequency K and J 10 J and M 15 M and L 20 J and L 35 K and L 45 Which of the following represents the relative locations of these 4 genes on chromosome C? A) KJML C) JMLK E) KLJM B) KMLJ D) LJMK 123. In early embryonic development, aneuploidy of a single cell will be passed on to all of the cells of the developing organism through A) mitosis C) translocation E) inversion B) nondisjunction D) meiosis 124. If a mother and her child belong to blood group AB, which blood group could the father NOT belong to? A) AB C) B E) Both B and C B) A D) O Which of the following classifications describes Individual A? A) B) C) D) E) Female with Klinefelter's syndrome Male with Fragile X syndrome Female with nondisjunction Male with Down syndrome Male with Muscular dystrophy 126. Fifteen nucleotides code for a protein which contains how many amino acids? A) 3 B) 5 C) 15 D) 30 E) 45 127. Identify the disorder depicted in the diagram below. 132. A human genetic defect that affects a male by making him tall and sterile with underdeveloped testes is A) B) C) D) E) A) B) C) D) E) Sickle cell anemia Cystic Fibrosis Huntington disease Hemophilia Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy 128. The lack of a dominant gene that normally provides for the presence of hexosaminidase-A, an enzyme that breaks down fatty substances, is associated with which of the following diseases? A) B) C) D) E) Tay-Sachs disease Lou Gehrig's disease Thalassemia Huntington's disease Phenylketonuria 129. The inherited disease whereby a lack of an enzyme results in metabolic defects, mental retardation and death around age 20 is called A) B) C) D) E) Phenylketonuria (PKU) Amniocentesis Viviparity Turner's Syndrome Klinefelter's Syndrome 130. A human genetic defect which makes an individual a short sterile female having underdeveloped ovaries and breasts is A) B) C) D) E) Turner's Syndrome Down's Syndrome Klinefelter's Syndrome Hemophilia Sickle Cell Anemia 131. Which regulatory molecule(s) provide the signals at the G 1 and G2 checkpoints? A) Oxygen C) Protein kinases E) Tubulin B) ATP D) Growth factor Turner's Syndrome Hemophilia Sickle Cell Anemia Phenylketonuria Klinefelter's Syndrome 133. A sample of a child’s cheek cells was found to have a high number of dysfunctional mitochondria. Evidence of this condition should also be sought in cells from the child’s A) B) C) D) E) maternal grandfather paternal grandmother father mother male cousins 134. In turkeys, black is the dominant plumage color and bronze is the recessive. When a black female mates with a bronze male, they have 2 black offspring, 3 bronze, and 2 brown. This indicates that plumage color is A) codominant C) mutated E) sex-linked B) epistatic D) pleiotropic 135. When two inherited alleles are expressed at the same time, which of the following is exhibited? A) B) C) D) E) Linkage Epistasis Codominance Incomplete Dominance Multiple Alleles Base your answers to questions 136 and 137 on the 5 lettered headings listed below. Select the single heading that most directly applies to the subsequent statement. Each heading may be used once, more than once, or not at all within its group. (A) Pleiotropy (B) Epistasis (C) Incomplete Dominance (D) Codominance (E) Polygenic Inheritance 136. The heredity of skin pigmentation in humans is controlled by this genetic interaction 137. The sickle-cell allele causes the production an abnormally shaped hemoglobin molecule, which causes the breakdown of red blood cells, clogging of small blood vessels, and an accumulation of sickle cells in the spleen. 138. When a red snapdragon is crossed with a white snapdragon, the resulting F 1 hybrids are pink. Which of the following terms best describes this phenomenon? A) B) C) D) E) Incomplete dominance Pleiotropy Codominance Epitasis Polygenic inheritance 139. In snapdragons the heterozygous condition consisting of one allele for red flowers and one allele for white flowers is pink. This is an example of A) B) C) D) E) pleiotropy epistasis incomplete dominance codominance multiple alleles 140. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive trait. If a man and a woman produce a son who has hemophilia, what must be true? A) B) C) D) E) The mother carries an allele for hemophilia. The father carries an allele for hemophilia. The mother has hemophilia. Neither parent has hemophilia. Both parents have hemophilia. 141. If a Drosophila melanogaster female who expresses a sex-linked recessive trait is mated with a wildtype D. melanogaster male, which of the following is expected to occur? A) 100% of the males will express the trait and 0% of the females will express the trait. B) 100% of the males will express the trait and 100% of the females will express the trait. C) 50% of the males will express the trait and 50% of the females will express the trait. D) 0% of the males will express the trait and 100% of the females will express the trait. E) 0% of the males and 0% of the females will express the trait. 142. In humans, hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait. If two parents produce a son with hemophilia, which of the following statements must be true? A) B) C) D) E) The mother carries the allele for hemophilia The mother has hemophilia The father carries the allele for hemophilia The father has hemophilia Both parents carry the allele for hemophilia 143. During non-growth periods of the cell cycle, DNA exists as A) B) C) D) E) daughter chromosomes a tetrad of four chromatids a single sister chromatid newly formed sister chromatids chromatin 144. During mitosis, DNA exists in the form of two sister chromatids during A) telophase C) prophase E) metaphase B) interphase D) anaphase 145. During prophase I, crossing over is responsible for A) contributing to genetic diversity B) the movement of sister chromatids to opposite poles of the cell C) the formation of tetrads D) initiating the condensation of chromosomes E) recombination of two sister chromatids Base your answers to questions 146 and 147 on the diagram below, which shows the stages occurring during mitosis, not necessarily in the correct order. 146. At which stage does the nuclear membrane disappear? 147. At which stage is the cell in Anaphase? 148. Base your answer to the following question on the following picture. The number of chromosomes present in cell A at the time shown is A) n B) 2n C) 4n D) 6n E) 8n 149. Researchers have found that mutations on the ras gene are common in many human cancers. Which of the following occurs when this G protein pathway is disrupted? A) Hyperactivity of the ras gene causes excessive cell division. B) Mutations on the ras gene cause the inhibition of cell division. C) The ras gene signals its own death. D) Mutations cause the activation of telomerase. E) The ras gene prevents the repair of mutations in the cell's DNA. 150. DNA is the polymer for which class of compounds? A) Nucleic acids C) Proteins E) Genes B) RNA D) Amino acids 151. Base your answer to the following question on the following information. An organism has a somatic cell with 4 chromosomes in the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following diagrams best represents a cell of this organism during prophase I of mitosis? A) B) C) D) E) 152. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram shown below. This event between allels a and A on homologous chromosomes is referred to as A) nondisjunction B) mitosis C) a point mutation D) recombination 153. Nucleosomes are formed by A) B) C) D) E) condensed mRNA in the nucleolus DNA wrapped around histones polypeptide chains around a metallic atom rRNA prior to ribosome assembly spindle fibers during mitosis 154. Chromosomes that are completely condensed contain all of the following structures EXCEPT A) histones C) helices E) nucleosomes B) euchromatin D) heterochromatin E) synapsis 155. The 5’ end of a DNA nucleotide can be identified by the location of A) carbon C) nitrogenous bases E) phosphate group B) hydrogen bonds D) oxygen 156. A DNA strand in a double helix has a base sequence of TATCGT. The base sequence of its DNA complement is A) ACGAUA C) ATAGCA E) AUAGCA B) TATCGT D) TGCTAT 157. An organism has a somatic cell with 4 chromosomes in the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following diagrams best represents a cell of this organism during metaphase I of meiosis? A) B) C) D) E) 158. Base your answer to the following question on the diagram below. Base your answers to questions 159 and 160 on the picture below. 159. During cell division this complex condenses to form chromosomes A) chromatin C) chromosomes E) chromatids These run antiparallel to one another. A) A and E C) A and B E) D and E B) A and D D) C and D B) spindle fibers D) kinetochores 160. The structure labeled B is called a A) chromosome C) spindle fiber E) centromere B) chromatid D) chromatin 161. Base your answer to the following question on the diagrams of organic molecules below. DNA is a polymer of these molecules. 162. The 5' cap placed on the end of each pre-mRNA molecule functions to A) promote the attachment of RNA polymerase B) provide a marker site for spliceosomes to begin the removal of introns C) signal attachment for polyribosomal clusters D) provide a signal for the attachment of genes E) protect the mRNA from degradation and provide a signal for ribosome attachment 163. Before a molecule of mRNA can leave the nucleus it must A) B) C) D) E) remove the noncoding regions called exons excise the introns and splice the exons together splice together the 5'cap and the polyA tail excise the exons and attach the polyA tail be translated by the RNA polymerase 164. Which of the following is responsible for prying the DNA helix apart in order to transcribe the mRNA? A) helicase C) promoter E) spliceosome B) RNA polymerase D) DNA polymerase 165. In prokaryotic cells, the transcription initiation complex binds to A) B) C) D) E) a primer the termination sequence a promoter sequence on the DNA molecule the codon an mRNA molecule 166. Retroviruses are used by genetic engineers to transform mRNA into DNA because mRNA does not include A) exons B) GTP cap C) non-coding regions D) nucleotide tails E) stop codons 167. Which of the following does NOT participate in transcription or translation? A) DNA C) tRNA E) DNA polymerase B) mRNA D) rRNA 168. Okazaki fragments are joined by A) DNA helicase C) DNA polymerase E) topoisomerase B) DNA ligase D) DNA primase 169. Meiotic errors are a source of many chromosomal disorders. Explain the concept of nondisjunction. In a unified response include what happens when nondisjunction occurs and give an example. 170. What would be the sequence of mRNA bases transcribed from that DNA base sequence TACGGTCA? A) AUGCCAGU C) TUCGGTCU E) AUCGGACU B) TACGGTCA D) ATGCCAGT 171. A crime lab is given a DNA sample found on the cuff of a button down shirt. Which of the following DNA technologies would be necessary for generating sufficient DNA for comparison purposes? A) PCR C) Gene therapy E) Denaturation B) RFLP analysis D) SNPs 172. Researchers are studying stem cells because they are A) capable of rapid division within a nucleus B) cells that never die once within the body C) unspecialized and pluripotent under appropriate conditions D) the only cells able to be cloned in large amounts E) undergo meiosis outside the gametes 173. Using a single somatic cell from a multicellular organism to make a genetically identical individual is called A) B) C) D) E) mitosis nuclear transplantation cloning induction differentiation 174. Recombinant DNA is spliced at specific locations using A) spliceosomes C) plasmids E) DNA ligase B) restriction enzymes D) cloning vectors 175. Which of the following contains DNA from different sources? A) B) C) D) E) Recombinant DNA Reconstructed DNA Reconstituted DNA Re-annealed DNA Reanalyzed DNA 176. A vector is defined as which of the following? A) A bacteriophage that transfers genetic material from one cell to another. B) A plasmid that is capable of the transmission of DNA. C) A disease-carrying microorganism. D) A single strand of DNA. E) An agent that transmits genetic material from one cell to another. Base your answers to questions 177 through 179 on the following choice: (A) Electrophoresis (B) Transduction (C) Plasmids (D) Transformation (E) Restriction Enzymes 177. Technique that is especially useful in identifying a mutant gene for such diseases as sickle-cell anemia 178. Can serve as a vector to incorporate genes into the host’s chromosome 179. A way to incorporate specific genes into a plasmid by cutting the foreign DNA at specific sites 180. Bacteria can accept segments of foreign DNA and incorporate them into their own chromosomes through all of the following EXCEPT A) transduction C) transformation E) conjugation B) translation D) plasmids 181. Which of the following is a difference in DNA sequence on homologous chromosomes made visible by using restriction enzymes? A) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP) B) Complementary pairing C) DNA library D) cDNA library E) PCR 182. The fragment below contains a recessive allele, which is lethal. The normal allele has both restriction sites I and II. The recessive allele only has restriction site I. An individual is tested to determine if she is a carrier of the lethal allele. Which band pattern below would be produced if she were a carrier? A) B) C) D) E) 183. What is a requirement of amplification using the Polymerase Chain Reaction? A) B) C) D) E) Large sample size Relatively new sample Long period of time for amplificiation Known sequence to be amplified Primers with known sequence 184. Which of the following is a method used to determine the specific sequence of nucleotides in a gene? A) B) C) D) E) Gene sequencing Hybridization Gene cloning Recombination Segregation of genes 185. When a virus infects a cell, causing it to burst and release viral progeny, the virus is described as A) conjugated C) lysogenic E) transformed B) lytic D) transduced 186. Rosalind Franklin’s pictures of the DNA double helix were taken using the technique known as A) B) C) D) E) bright field microscopy diffraction fluorescence transmission electron microscopy x-ray crystallography 187. The chi-square test is useful in A) testing the validity of an experiment B) testing the validity of the statistics used in the experiment C) testing the validity of a null hypothesis D) finding the average results E) developing the hypothesis 188. When a section of DNA is cut, and the sequence is reversed, which of the following mutations results? A) Inversion C) Frameshift E) Point B) Insertion D) Addition 189. Base your answer on the diagram below. 193. Frederick Griffith experimented with two strains of pneumonia, an S (smooth) and an R (rough) strain. When injected into test mice, the S strain was able to kill its host while the R strain was not. However, when the S strain were killed by heat, and their remains were added to R strain bacteria they were able to kill its host. This phenomenon can best be described by A) transformation C) mutation E) replication The stage labeled X in the diagram represents A) bacterial replication in which each bacterium codes for insulin. B) bacterial replication in which each bacterium contains a recombinant plasmid and an unaltered plasmid C) plasmid replication, whereby each time the bacterium undergoes cell division, the number of plasmids within the cell doubles. D) bacterial replication in which each bacterium contains no plasmids E) bacterial replication, whereby the genetically engineered bacterium can regulate sodium levels in its host. Base your answers to questions 190 through 192 on the choices below. Match the scientist to their contribution to the study of biology. (A) Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase (B) Rosalind Franklin (C) George Beadle & Edward Tatum (D) Frederick Griffith (E) Barbara McClintock 190. Based the one gene-one enzyme hypothesis on the study of nutritional mutants of Neurospora crassa, a red bread mold 191. Discovered that molecules from the dead S strain of the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae had genetically transformed some of the living R strain bacteria into S strain bacteria 192. Discovered that DNA is the genetic material of a bacteriophage known as T2 B) transduction D) induction 194. Which of the following scientists determined that DNA is the hereditary material in viruses? A) B) C) D) E) Hershey and Chase (1952) Griffith (1928) Watson and Crick (1953) Morgan (1950's) Meselson and Stahl (1950's) 195. A eukaryotic cell lacking helicase during DNA replication would A) be incapable of proofreading the newly synthesized strand B) be unable to terminate elongation C) be incapable of unwinding the DNA helix D) catalyze the DNA strand at incorrect locations E) not seal the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand 196. During DNA replication, all of the following must occur before the completion of a new strand EXCEPT A) separation of the parental DNA strands by the DNA helicase B) primase joins RNA nucleotides to make a primer C) telomerase terminates replication at the end of the synthesized strand D) DNA polymerase replaces RNA nucleotides with DNA nucleotides E) telomeres are added to the end of the synthesized strand 197. Which of the following sequences expresses the correct order of enzyme function in DNA replication? A) B) C) D) E) helicase – primase – DNA polymerase –ligase helicase – primase – ligase – DNA polymerase helicase – primase – ligase – hydrolase primase – helicase – ligase – DNA polymerase primase – helicase – DNA polymerase – ligase 198. During DNA replication, the leading strand is easily distinguishable from the lagging strand because A) the leading strand is synthesized 3' to 5' B) the lagging strand is synthesized in separate pieces called Okazaki fragments C) helicases only attach to the leading strand D) the lagging strand is synthesized 5' to 3' E) DNA ligase is attached to the leading strand 199. Okazaki fragments are formed on A) B) C) D) E) DNA lagging strand DNA leading strand mRNA strand tRNA strand rRNA 204. What would happen if a polypeptide is NOT marked by a signal peptide? A) It would end up attached to the plasma membrane. B) It could not move into the endoplasmic reticulum. C) It would keep elongating without termination. D) It would be degraded by the signal-recognition particle. E) It would never leave the nucleus. 205. Base your answer to the following question on the chart below. 200. In DNA synthesis, DNA is A) B) C) D) E) read 3’ to 5’ and made 3’ to 5’ read 3’ to 5’ and made 5’ to 3’ read 5’ to 3’ and made 3’ to 5’ read 5’ to 3’ and made 5’ to 3’ read 5’ to 5’ and made 3’ to 3’ 201. The replication of DNA is A) B) C) D) E) a semiconservative process a degenerative process a non-conservative process a random process a highly-conserved process 202. Which of the following is important during the translocation of tRNA from the A site to the P site? A) The maintenance of hydrogen bonds between the anticodon and mRNA codon. B) The mRNA moving in the 3' to 5' direction. C) The ribosome bypassing the intron regions on the mRNA strand. D) The release factor must bind in order to move the tRNA molecules. E) The small ribosomal subunit must dissociate from the mRNA strand. 203. During translation, mRNA A) B) C) D) E) binds to the A site binds to the P site moves from A to P site moves from P to A site does not occur If a polypeptide chain has the amino acid sequence, Leu-Arg-Lys, what would be the corresponding anticodons found on the tRNA? A) CCA CGA TTT C) GGU GCU UUU E) GGT CCA TTT B) CCA CGA AAA D) GGU GCU AAA Base your answers to questions 206 through 208 on the image below. 210. Which of the following best represents the expression of genes? A) B) C) D) E) DNA DNA RNA RNA Protein RNA Protein Protein RNA Protein DNA DNA Protein RNA DNA 211. Base your answer to the following question on the choices below. 206. Identify the structure indicated by the letter C A) polypeptide C) codon E) nuclear envelope B) DNA D) mRNA 207. Identify the structure indicated by letter B A) DNA C) tRNA E) nucleotide chain B) mRNA D) polypeptide chain 208. A triplet code is responsible for A) attaching amino acids to DNA B) encoding the instructions for the polypeptide chain C) placing the correct protein on the mRNA strand D) transcribing the DNA strand from its template E) synthesizing mRNA from a complementary protein strand 209. Base your answer to the following question on the following diagram (A) Transformation (B) Translocation (C) Duplication (D) Conjugation (E) Translation Process in which a protein is synthesized at a ribosome 212. The lytic cycle of viruses differs from the lysogenic cycle because A) B) C) D) only the lysogenic cycle occurs in bacterial hosts the lytic cycle kills the host more rapidly th lysogenic cycle causes the host cell to lyse the lysogenic cycle is more detrimental to a host cell E) the lytic cycle reproduces double-stranded DNA viruses 213. Viruses can incorporate their DNA into the host's chromosome and remain latent. The term for this type of replication is called A) conjugation C) lytic E) transformation B) lysogenic D) transduction 214. Which term refers to the process of a virus taking along some of a host cell's DNA and injecting this DNA, along with its own viral DNA, into a new host cell? The sequence depicted above binds to the opposite sequence on another molecule by A) B) C) D) E) disulfide bonds hydrogen bonds ionic bonds phosphodiester linkages van der Waals forces A) Conjugation C) Lytic E) Transformation B) Lysogenic D) Transduction 215. Viruses contain which of the following pairs? A) B) C) D) E) Nucleic acids and protein coat Chloroplasts and a protein coat Ribosomes and nucleic acids Mitochondria and chloroplasts A phospholipid membrane and ribosomes 216. Viruses are not classified as prokaryotes because A) they contain membrane bound organelles B) they are unable to carry out cellular metabolic processes independently C) they lack ribosomes D) they lack genetic material E) they contain a capsid 217. When infecting human cells, retroviruses often I. contain genetic information in the form of RNA II. use reverse transcriptase to convert RNA to DNA III. lay dormant in the host cell before undergoing a lytic life cycle A) I only C) III only E) I, II and III B) II only D) I and II only 218. The virus HIV replicates using reverse transcriptase. Thus it can be inferred that the virus A) B) C) D) E) uses only DNA uses only RNA uses RNA as a template for DNA uses DNA as a template for RNA replicates continuously 219. Which of the following is true about transposons within a DNA molecule? A) They are capable of moving within the genome. B) They consist of three or more genes along a DNA strand. C) They are responsible for the formation of histones. D) They are amplified and expressed during embryonic development. E) They are deleted during cell division. 220. The DNA of a healthy child revealed that his gene for insulin was different from that of his parents, who have identical genotypes for that trait. The change in genotype was likely caused by A) crossing over C) point mutation E) translocation B) frameshift D) inversion 221. Which mutation can result in a change in the reading frame? A) deletion B) inversion C) an adenine changing to guanine in a codon's third base D) substitution E) point 222. Which of the following is a result of the defective separation of sister chromatids during meiosis? A) Synapsis C) Mutation E) Deletion B) Nondisjunction D) Translocation 223. Base your answer to the following question on the choices below. (A) Duplication (B) Translocation (C) Inversion (D) Point mutation (E) Frameshift mutation The insertion of DNA leads to a change in the normal reading frame 224. DNA codes for mRNA, which is then translated into polypeptides, which are strands of amino acids. The DNA sequence below codes for the following amino acids: methionine- valine- glycine- alanine- alanine- serine TAC CAA CCA CGC CGC UCA a.) What effect would the addition of the nucleotides adenine- cytosine- thymine nucleotide after the first nucleotide in the above sequence have on the amino acid sequence? b.) What effect would the deletion of the eighth nucleotide (cytosine) have on the polypeptide produced? c.) What effect would changing the sixth nucleotide from an adenine to a thymine? AP Biology Name _________________ Class _________________ Date _________ 1. 36. 71. 106. 2. 37. 72. 107. 3. 38. 73. 108. 4. 39. 74. 109. 5. 40. 75. 110. 6. 41. 76. 111. 7. 42. 77. 112. 8. 43. 78. 113. 9. 44. 79. 114. 10. 45. 80. 115. 11. 46. 81. 116. 12. 47. 82. 117. 13. 48. 83. 118. 14. 49. 84. 119. 15. 50. 85. 120. 16. 51. 86. 121. 17. 52. 87. 122. 18. 53. 88. 123. 19. 54. 89. 124. 20. 55. 90. 125. 21. 56. 91. 126. 22. 57. 92. 127. 23. 58. 93. 128. 24. 59. 94. 129. 25. 60. 95. 130. 26. 61. 96. 131. 27. 62. 97. 132. 28. 63. 98. 133. 29. 64. 99. 134. 30. 65. 100. 135. 31. 66. 101. 136. 32. 67. 102. 137. 33. 68. 103. 138. 34. 69. 104. 139. 35. 70. 105. 140. AP Biology Name _________________ Class _________________ 141. 176. 211. 142. 177. 212. 143. 178. 213. 144. 179. 214. 145. 180. 215. 146. 181. 216. 147. 182. 217. 148. 183. 218. 149. 184. 219. 150. 185. 220. 151. 186. 221. 152. 187. 222. 153. 188. 223. 154. 189. 224. 155. 190. 156. 191. 157. 192. 158. 193. 159. 194. 160. 195. 161. 196. 162. 197. 163. 198. 164. 199. 165. 200. 166. 201. 167. 202. 168. 203. 169. 204. 170. 205. 171. 206. 172. 207. 173. 208. 174. 209. 175. 210. Date _________