Download FINAL EXAM PRACTICE TEST DNA The coded information in a

FINAL EXAM PRACTICE TEST
DNA
1. The coded information in a DNA molecule directly determines the formation of:
A. Polysaccharides
B. Polypeptides
C. Monosaccharides
D. Lipids
2. The DNA of an organism has 28% guanine bases. What percentage of its bases would be
adenine?
A. 0%
B. 22%
C. 28%
D. 30%
3. When one double stranded DNA molecule is copied into two double stranded molecules,
each new strand contains:
A. 25% of the parent DNA
B. 50% of the parent DNA
C. 0% of the parent DNA
D. 100% of the parent DNA
4. The backbone of a chain of nucleotides consist of:
A. Sugar and phosphates
C. nitrogenous bases
B. Nitrogenous bases and phosphates D. deoxyribonucleic acid
5. Which of the following sequences best describes the flow of information when a gene
directs the synthesis a cellular component?
A. RNA  DNA RNA protein
C. DNARNA protein
B. Protein RNA DNA
D. DNA amino acid RNA
6. During which stage of the mitotic cell cycle is DNA replicated?
A. Prophase
C. Interphase
B. Metaphase
D. Cytokinesis
7. If a somatic cell has 6 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell
have after mitosis?
A. 2
C. 4
B. 3
D. 6
8. Which of the following correctly ranks nucleic acid structures in order of smallest to
largest?
A. Gene, chromosome, nucleotide, codon
B. Nucleotide, codon, gene, chromosome
C. Chromosome, gene, codon, nucleotide
D. Nucleotide, chromosome, gene, codon
FOR QUESTIONS 9-10 REFER TO THE DIAGRAM BELOW.
9. A, C, G and U represent
A. Ribosomes
B. amino acids
C. nitrogenous bases
10. What structures are composed of RNA?
A. 5 and 6.
B. 3 and 5
C. 1 and 2
D. fatty acids
D. 4 and 5
11.You are a DNA doctor investigating a new genetic
disease characterized by a thick sticky mucous that clogs
lung tissue, making breathing very difficult. A brother
with no symptoms and his sister enter your clinic. You
sequence their DNA and discover the following.
BROTHER- T A C T T C A G C T T T G T T A T T
SISTER- T A C T T C A C C T T T G T T A T T
Use the above information to determine:
-THE AMINO ACID SEQUENCE FOR BOTH SIBLINGS- (4 pts)
-THE TYPE OF MUTATION PRESENT IN THE SISTER (2 pts)
-HOW THE AMINO ACID SEQUENCE IS CHANGED IN THE SISTER
(4 pts)
BIOTECH
FOR QUESTIONS 11-14 USE THE CHOICES BELOW. AN ANSWER MAY BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN
ONCE OR NOT AT ALL.
11.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
12.
CLONING
PCR
RESTRICTION ENZYMES
GEL ELECTROPHORESIS
DNA SEQUENCING
13.
14.
the polymerase chain reaction
B) use reverse transcriptase
1 5) While on safari in Africa, Mr. Architeuthis
discovers a dried fragment of scalp. He extracts a
tiny amount of DNA from the scalp tissue. How
could he obtain sufficient DNA for an analysis of
the ancient man's genes?
A) subject the DNA to electrophoresis
C ) use
D) use a molecular probe
16.). It is theoretically possible for a gene from any organism to function in any other organism.
Why is this possible?
A). All organisms have similar nuclei
C). All organisms have the same DNA code
B). All organisms have transfer RNA
D). All organisms have ribosomes.
17.). If you started a PCR protocol with a single double stranded molecule of DNA, how
many double stranded molecules of product would you have after 4 cycles?
A). 4
C). 16
B). 8
D). 5
18.) The high heat used in PCR takes the place of what enzyme used by cells in DNA
replication?
A). Helicase
C). RNA polymerase
B). DNA polymerase
19.) Police found a small sample of hair with a small amount of skin on it at Krusty’s Krispy
Kreme Kupcake Factory. What would be the correct sequence of steps before they could
compare the DNA sample to a potential suspect?
A). Treatment with restriction enzymes, PCR, electrophoresis
B). PCR, electrophoresis, treatment with restriction enzymes.
C). PCR, Treatment with restriction enzymes, electrophoresis.
20. Genetic Engineering manipulates gene products at the level of:
A. Protein
B. Amino Acid
C. DNA
D. RNA
21. An oil tanker has spilled millions of gallons of oil in the Pacific ocean off the coast of Alaska.
The efforts of hundreds of volunteer workers to clean the oil from the coastal shoreline have
proven ineffective. As a scientist you are aware of a particular strain of algae that possess
enzymes that can digest crude oil into a relatively harmless byproduct. However, the algae
normally live in the Indian ocean off the coast of Australia and cannot survive in the cooler
Pacific ocean. How could you use recombinant DNA technology to solve this problem? Be
Specific (5 pts)
GENETICS
22.Asexual reproduction of diploid organisms normally results in new organisms that contain cells
with:
A. Fewer chromosomes than are found in the cells of the parent
B. The n number of chromosomes
C. More chromosomes than are found in the cell of the parent
D. The 2n number of chromosomes
23. Alleles that are both expressed in a heterozygote are;
A. Completely dominant
C. recessive
B. codominant
D. incompletely dominant
24. A mother with Blood type A, and father with blood type B, have a child with blood type 0.
What are the genotypes of the parents?
A. AO and BB
B. AA and BB
C. AO and BO
D. OO and BO
25.. In snapdragons, heterozygotes have pink flowers, whereas homozygotes have red or white flowers.
When plants with pink flowers are crossed with plants with white flowers, what proportion of the
offspring will have pink flowers?
A. 0%
C. 50%
B. 25%
D. 75%
26.Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color
vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?
a. XcX and XY
C. XcXc and XcY
c c
c
b. X X and X Y
D. XcX and XcY
27. A cell that has 2n + 1 chromosomes is
A. trisomic.
B. monosomic.
C. normal
D. both A and C
28. Which of the following is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis?
A. Interphase is present only in mitosis
B. Homologous Chromosomes associate only in meiosis
C. DNA replication occurs only in mitosis
D. Chromatids separate only in meiosis
29. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of a cross between a heterozygous tall plant and a
heterozygous tall plant?
A. 63 tall, 59 Short
C. 24 Short, 49 medium, 25 short
B. 76 tall, 23 Short
D. 53 tall, 147 Short
30. A diploid cell in a buffalo has 60 chromosomes. Sperm and egg cells are
expected to have:
A. 60 chromosomes
C. 120 Chromsomes
B. 30 chromosomes
D. 15 Chromosomes
31. . Tallness (T) is dominant to dwarfness (t), while red (R) flower color is dominant to white (r). The
heterozygous condition results in pink (Rr) flower color. A dwarf, red snapdragon is crossed with a plant
homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are the genotype and phenotype of the offspring?
A. ttRr-dwarf and pink
C. TtRr-tall and red
B. ttrr-dwarf and white
D.TtRr-tall and pink
32.The pedigree chart below is for a family, some of whose members exhibit the trait, wooly hair.
Explain why or why not the pedigree could be:
YES OR NO?
AUTOSOMAL
DOMINANT
AUTOSOMAL
RECESSIVE
SEX LINKED RECESSIVE
IMMUNOLOGY
33. Viruses are usually:
A. Larger than bacteria
B. Composed primarily of DNA and protein
C. Treatable with antibiotics
D. Things that make your computer really really sick
WHY?
34. HIV damages the Body’s B-cells. As a result:
A. The immune system will not be able to produce antibodies
B. The immune system will not be able to signal other cells
C. Phagocytes will be unable to function
D. Macrophages will be unable to function
35. Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning bacteria
A. Some bacteria break down the bodies of dead plants and animals
B. All bacteria are parasites of living cells
C. The digestive tract of humans has bacteria that aid in digestion
D. Some bacteria cause illness such as strep throat, tetanus and tooth decay.
36. Which of the following is an example of a non-specific defense?
A. Antibodies
B. White Blood Cells
C. Inflammation
D. Memory Cell
37. One characteristic common to both bacteria and viruses
A. They both contain nucleic acids
B. They both cause disease
C. They both have beneficial uses
D. They have three distinct shapes
38.. During the nineteenth century, a physician named Edward Jenner noticed that cows get a disease
called cowpox, which is similar in its symptoms to a disease that infects humans called smallpox;
however, humans can't contract cowpox. Jenner also noticed that milkmaids were immune to smallpox.
Jenner infected a child with the pus from a cowpox blister, and found that the child was subsequently
immune to smallpox. How did the child develop immunity to smallpox?
A. The cowpox virus prevented the smallpox virus from entering the lytic cycle.
B. The cowpox virus was so similar to the smallpox virus that it stimulated
"immunological memory" of the smallpox virus.
C. The child had a particularly strong immune system that prevented him from
contracting smallpox.
D The cowpox virus prevented the smallpox virus from entering the lysogenic cycle.
39. Which of the following statements regarding antigens and antibodies is false?
A. An antibody usually recognizes and binds to an antigen by shape.
B. A single antigen may stimulate the immune system to make many antibodies to it.
C. Most antigens are proteins or large polysaccharides on the surfaces of viruses or foreign cells.
D. Each antibody has only one antigen-binding site.
40.) Which of the following distinguishes the secondary immune response from the primary immune
response?
A. The primary response is specific; the secondary one is not.
B. The secondary response is faster and stronger.
C. The primary response involves B cells; the secondary one involves T cells.
D. The secondary response allows antigens to be recognized faster.
41. A vaccine against influenza is given every year. However this does not guarantee a person will
become immune to the disease. Why?(5 pts)
IMMUNOLOGY
FOR QUESTIONS 42-44 REFER TO THE DIAGRAM BELOW:
42. Which of the following statements is supported by
the fossil record?
A. Group C is now extinct.
B. Group D has been in existence the longest.
C. Group A is the most recent organism to come into
existence.
D. Group B was the most numerous organism 10
million years ago.
43.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which of the following is usually most helpful in determining the age of these fossils?
the size of the fossils
the color of the fossils
the amount of surface area of the rock layer in which the fossils are found
the depth of the rock layer in which the fossils are found
44. The scientists hypothesize that the four groups of fossilized organisms originated from a common
ancestor. Which of the following would provide the best evidence to support their hypothesis?
A. The number of fossils found in each group is similar.
B. Present-day members of the groups live in the same environment.
C. Fossils from each group were found in the same rock layer.
D. Members of the groups have similar physical structures.
45. Which of the following would be an example of convergent evolution?
A. Hummingbird bill sizes changing in shape to fit easily into flower
B. Competition among finches of Galapogos Islands causing speciation
C. Horses and lizards developing long legs to outrun predators
D. Maples moving northward after glaciers started to recede in North America
FOR QUESTIONS 46-47 REFER TO THE DIAGRAM BELOW
46. Which statement is best supported by the evolutionary tree
shown at the left?
A. Species V is still alive today and is the oldest species.
B. Species W is still developing from a prior species.
C. Species X, Y, and Z became extinct 20 million years
ago.
D. Species W first came into existence 10 million years
ago.
47. Which of the following is NOT support by the tree above?
A. All of these organisms evolved from a common ancestor.
B. Species Z descended from Species Y.
C. Species Z evolved 10 million years ago.
D. Species W is now extinct.
48. According to the table, as vertebrate embryos develop:
A. amphibians and humans develop the same structures
B. only mammals develop both limbs and external ears
C. reptiles and amphibians grow external ears
D. limbs and external ears grow on mammals and birds
34. All of the following are frequently factors in sexual
selection EXCEPT
A. founder effect.
B. elaborate courtship displays.
C. combat between males.
D. female mate selection.
49. .The smallest unit capable of evolving is a:
A. species
B. genotype
C. gene
D. population
50. While making repairs at a zoo, it became necessary to place a species of bird from Africa in the same
enclosure as a bird species from South America. To everyone's surprise, some of the birds mated and
produced hybrid offspring. The hybrids were eventually separated from the other birds and placed in their
own enclosure. Again to everyone's surprise the hybrids mated and produced their own offspring.
According to today's biological concept of a species, how should all of these birds be classified?
A. The two original groups should still be classified as different species, and their offspring should
be classified as hybrids.
B. The two original groups should still be classified as a different species, and their offspring should
be classified as a third species.
C. They should all be classified as the same species.
D. They should all be classified as hybrids.
FOR QUESTIONS 51-53, REFER TO THE DIAGRAM BELOW REPRESENTING
EXTANT SPECIES WITH SIMILAR BONE STRUCTURE.
51. Letter A most likely represents
A. homologous structures
B. a common ancestor
C. an acquired characteristic
D. geographic distribution
1
52. What is most likely occurring at POINT 1?
A. Convergent evolution
B. Alteration of generations
C. Speciation
D. Variation
53. What is the most likely cause of the answer from the previous question?
A. homologous structures
B. reproductive or geographic isolation
C. reproduction
D. acquired replication
54. Which graph best illustrates the expected change in a finch population if the
environment changes to favor small beaks?
55. Extinction events play a major role in evolutionary change over time. Explain the role extinction in
evolution and how it might lead to a wide range of new species emerging very quickly in the fossil
record.
POPULATIONS:
56. A student grew a yeast culture on sterilized nutrient medium in a closed dish for five
days. Each day, she took the same size sample from the dish and placed it on a special slide
used for counting microorganisms (see the top half of Figure 4-2). She examined the
samples under a microscope and drew the illustrations of her observations over the course
of the investigation. Each dot represents ten yeast cells.
1. Which graph (A, B, or C in the bottom half of Figure 4-2) best pictures the growth
of the student's yeast population?
In Figure 4-1, the first age structure graph for country X shows the percent of the
population in each age group for the year 2000. The remaining three graphs are
projections of how the age structure of country X will change.
Figure 4-1
8. Describe the overall trend in population growth predicted in Figure 4-1.
9. Referring to Figure 4-1, what can you conclude about the stage of population growth country
for country X in 2015?
10. In 2000, does country X exhibit an age structure more typical of a developing nation or an
industrialized nation?