Download Allied Biochemistry II - E

Nehru Arts and Science College
Department of Microbiology
Allied Biochemistry II
Unit-I
1. Chromatography is used to separate
A. solution
B. mixtures
C. molecules
D. atoms
2. Chromatography with solid stationary phase is called
A. circle chromatography
B. Square chromatography
C. solid chromatography
D. adsorption chromatography
3. Pattern on paper in chromatography is called
A. chroming
B. chroma
C. chromatograph
D. chromatogram
4. Mobile phase can be
A. gas or liquid
B. solid or liquid
C. only solid
D. only gas
5. Components which have small value of K have affinity for
A. mobile phase
B. stationary phase
C. no phase
D. solution
6. Chromatography can be used to
A. form mixtures
B. change mixture compositions
C. separate mixtures into pure substances
D. all of these
7. Locating agent of amino acids is
A. Diazo reagent
B. ninhydrin spray
C. Amphoteric oxides
D. neutral oxides
8. Buffers are mixtures of
A. Strong acid and Strong base
B. Strong acid and Weak base
C. Weak acid and conjugate base
D. neutral oxides
9. Acids are substances when dissolved in water gives
a) H+
b) OHc) COO10. Acetic acid is an example for
a) Strong base
b) Strong acid
c) Weak base
d) All the above
d) Weak acid
11. In which of the following separation technique where the proteins are separated based their
affinity
a) Affinity chromatography
b) Ion exchange chromatography
c) Dialysis
d) Gel filtration chromatography
12. Acetic acid is an example for
(a) Strong base
(b) Strong acid
(c) Week base
(d) Week acid
13. In which of the follwing separation technique where the proteins are separated based their
affinity
(a) Affinity chromatography
(b) Ion exchange chromatography
(c) dialysis
(d) Gel filtration chromatography
14.Ion exchange chromatography is based on the
(a) Electrostatic attraction
(b) Electrical mobility of ionic species
(c) Adsorption chromatography
(d) Partition chromatography
15. Henderson hassalbach equation is _____________ .
(a)
pH = pKa + Iog {acid}/{salt}
(b)
pH = pKa + log{salt}/{acid}
(c)
pH = pKa - log{acid}/{salt}
(d)
pH = pKa- log{salt}/{acid}
16.The major buffer ion RBS is ______________ .
(a)
Haemoglobin buffer
(b)
Bicarbonate buffer
(c)
Protein buffer
(d)
Phosphate buffer
17. H denotes
(a)
Entropy
(b)
Enthalpy
(c)
Change in entropy
(d)
Change in enthalpy
18. A molecule that adds hydrogen ions to a solution is Known as
(a)
a buffer
(b)
a base
(c)
an acid
(d)
a hydro phobic substance
19. The process of chromatography helps us to study _____
(1) kinds of plants (2) how plants grow (3) the colors of plants (4) plant pigments
20. The chief buffering system in blood
(a)
K2HPO4 and K2PO4
(b) B protein and H protein
(c)
NaCO3 and H2CO3
(d) B Hemoglobin and H hemoglobin
21. At a blood pH of 7.4, the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid is
(a) 1 : 20
(b) 20 : 1
(c) 10 : 1
(d) 1 : 10
22. A molal solution is the one which contains one mole of substance dissolved in
(a) 1000 ml. of the solvent
(b) 1000 g of the solvent
(c)
100 ml of the solvent
(d) 100 gm of the solvent
23. The buffer capacity means the
(a)
capacity of the buffer to change the pH
(b)
capacity of the buffer to modify the pH
(c)
capacity of the buffer to save the pH
(d)
capacity of the buffer to resist changes in pH
24. Acids are substances when dissolved in water gives
(a) H+
(b) OH(c) COO (d) All the above
25. Identification of unknown compounds by TLC and paper chromatography is done by____
(1) Retention time (2) Rf value (3) Colour matching (4)Standard value.
Section B
1.
Explain any 2 buffer system of Blood?
2.
Write any 3 applications of affinity chromatography?
3.
Explain the working principle of Glass Electrode?
4.
Write short note on TLC and the principle behind?
5.
Explain the biological importance of pH
Section C
1.
Derive Henderson hasselbalch equation.
2.
How are amino acids separated by paper chromatography?
3.
With suitable diagrams explain the determination of pH using a glass electrode.
UNIT-II
1. The method of separating proteins according to their isoelectric points in a pH gradient is called
a) Immunoelectrophoresis
b) Paper electrophoresis
c) Isoelectric focussing
d) Agarose gel electrophoresis
2. Radioisotope for treating cancer tumors and cells is
a) Phosphorous-32 b) carbon-14
c) cobalt-60
d) cobalt-59
3. Radiation source in spectrophotometry is
a) Hydrogen
b) Deutrium
c) Tungsten
d) All the above
4. In SDS- PAGE, SDS acts as a/an
(a)
cationic detergent
(b)
initiator of polymerisation
(c)
anomic detergent
(d)
cross linking agent.
5. The reaction of pure water is
(a)
acidic
(b)
neutral
(c)
alkaline
(d)
not known
6. Ninhydrin is used as coloring reagent in the identification of
(a)
aminoacids
(b)
protein A
(c)
lipids
(d)
nucleotides
7. In SDS - polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis b-mercapto ethanol is added to
(a)
impart negative charge to the proteins
(b)
Break the hydrogen bonds
(c)
To maintain the pH of SDS
(d)
break the disulphide linkages
8. Transmittance and absorbance are
(a)
Linearly related
(b)
directly propertional
(c)
inversely related
(d)
none
9. Which tecnique seprates molecules based on their molecular weight?
(a)
Molecular sieve chromatography
(b)
Iso electric focussing
(c)
SDS PAGE
(d)
Agarose gel electrophoresis
10. The supporting medium for gel electrophoresis is
(a)
Agarose
(b)
Sephadex
(c)
Glass wool
(d)
Polystyrene
11. Particles having the same atomic number but different mass number are called_____
a. β particle
b. neutrons
c. Isotope
d. Isomer
12 .The Unit of radioactivity is
(1) curie
(2) radiocurie
(3) SI units
(4) Radio units
13 .A calorimeter is used to ______
(1) determine the heat of a reaction.
(2) determine the heat given off/absorbed during some process
(3) store the heat from a chemical reaction
(4) determine the heat of the product
14. If pH is 1 the solution is _______
(1) acidic
(2) alkaline
(3) neutral
(4) none of the above
15. Difference between in atom and isotopes lies in
(1) Atomic Number
(2) mass number
(3) Both
(4) None
16.Isotopes of the same element must have the same number of
(1) neutrons
(2) protons
(3) electrons
(4) both A and B
17. Isotopes of the same element must have the different number of
(1) neutrons
(2) protons
(3) electrons
(4) both A and B
18. Protons and neutrons concentration will be ____________ in nucleus
(1) 1:1
(2) 1:5
(3) 5:1
(4) 1:10
19.The process of emitting radiation by radio isotopes is
(1) radioactivity
(2) radioactive decay
(3) radioactive absorption
(4) None of these
20.Light which is targeted towards the sample is
(1) Scattered light
(2) target light
(3) incident light
(4) transmittance light
21.Light which is crossing the sample is
(1) Scattered light
(2) target light
(3) incident light
(4) transmittance light
22. The Beer-Lambert Law gives a linear correlation with positive gradient between:
(1) molar extinction coefficient and concentration
(2) molar extinction coefficient and absorbance
(3) absorbance and concentration
(4) wavelength and absorbance
Section B
1. Explain the principle of paper electrophoresis.
2. How are stable isotopes useful in understanding the mechanism of DNA replication?
3. Explain beer Lambert’s law?
4. Explain the components of UV- spectrometer.
5. Explain the hazards of radioisotopes add a note on the precautionary measures that are to be
taken while handling radioisotopes.
1.
Section C
Explain the principle and procedure involved in agarose gel electrophoresis.
2.
What is radioactive decay? add a short note on units of radioactivity.
3.
What are the essential components of spectrometry? Explain
UNIT III
1. The inner mitochondrial membrane is
(a) required for the reduction of FADH2 and FAD
(b) involved in the regeneration of NADH from NAD+
(c) highly selective in allowing the passage compounds
(d) permeable to all dicarboxylic anions
2. Which one of the following reduces oxygen to water?
(a) cytochrome C reductase
(b) cytochrome oxidase
© NAD dehydrogenase
(d) ATP synthase
3. Cyanide inhibits
(a) cytochrome b
(c) cytochrome i
(b) cytochrome oxidase
(d) all the above
4. The components of respiratory chain are arranged in the order of
(a) increasing redox potential
(b) decreasing redox potential
(c) independent of redox potential
(d) none of the above
5. The common metabolite of carbohydrate, protein and lipid metabolism
(a) acetyl CoA
(b) pyruvate
(c) fumarate
(d) malate
6. Number of ATPs produced when a substrate is oxidized via an flavoprotein
Linked dehydrogenase is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
7. The inhibitor that inhibits the respiratory chain between cytochrome b and
Cytochrome c is
(a) cyanide
(b) piericidin A
(c) antimycin A
(d) none of the above
8. DNP- uncouples oxidative phosphorylation by a process wherein it
(a) increases its permeability to H+
(b) decreases its permeability to H+
(c) increases its permeability to ē
(d) decreases its permeability to ē
9. Succinate dehydrogenase is present in ETC complex
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
10. Iron-sulphur clusters are present in ETC
(a) complex I
(b) complex II
(c) complex III
(d) all the above
11. Oligomycin inhibits ATP synthesis by binding to
(a) complex I
(b) complex II
(c) subunit of F0
(d) subunit of F1
12. ATP synthesis is not taking place in -------- complex of ETC.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
13. The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is
(a) NADP+
(b) molecular oxygen
(c) flavin nucleotides
(d) iron-Fe2+
14. Example for uncoupler of electron transport chain is
(a) barbiturates
(b) piericidin A
© 2,4-dinitrophenol
(d) cyanide
15. Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by
(a) H2S
(b) Co
(c) CN
(d) all the above
16. The first member of cytochrome accepting electron in the respiratory chain is
(a) cytochrome a
(b) cytochrome b
(c) cytochrome c1
(b) cytochrome c
17. ATPase is present in
(a) outer membrane of the mitochondria
(b) inner membrane of the mitochondria
(c) matrix of the mitochondria
(d) heads of inner membrane particles
18.The following are uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation except
(a) 2,4-dinitrophenol
(b) dimercaprol
(c) dinitrocresol
(d) pentachlorophenol
19. In ETC, the electrons flow through the chain from the
(a) more electronegative components to the more electropositive oxygen.
(b) less electronegative components to the more electropositive oxygen
© more electronegative components to the less electropositive oxygen
(e) less electronegative components to the less electropositive oxygen
20. Which cytochrome has the lowest redox potential among the cytochromes.
(a) cyt c
(b) cyt b
(c) cyt a
(d) cyt a3
21. The substrates that are directly linked to flavoprotein dehydrogenases are having
(a) more negative redox potential
(b) less positive redox potential
(c) more positive redox potential
(d) none of the above
22. The additional carrier present in between flavoproteins and cytochrome b is
(a) Ubiquinone or coenzyme Q
(b) coenzyme A
(c) Piericidin
(d) dimercaprol
23. The following are directly linked to the respiratory chain through flavoprotein
dehydrogenases except
(a) succinate
(b) glycerol 3 phosphate
(c) acyl coA
(d) glutamate
24. At the electronegative end of the chain, dehydrogenase enzymes catalyse the transfer of
electrons from the substrate to
(a) FAD
(b) NAD
(c) FMN
(d) cyt b
25. In the dehydrogenation of ---------- an electron transporting flavoprotein
is essential for transferring of electrons to the respiratory chain
(a) acyl coA
(b) butyryl coA
(c) malonyl coA
(d) none of the above
26. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?
(1) strong acid and its salt (2) strong base and its salt
(3) weak acid and its salt (4) weak acid with weak base
27. Which one of the following electrophoresis dependents least on the charge of the protein?
(1) Free zone capillary electrophoresis (2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) SDS-polycrylamide gel electrophoresis (4) Isoelectric focussing
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Section B
Differentiate between Entropy and Enthalpy?
What do you mean by Gibbs free energy?
Define Chemiosmotic theory
What is redox potential
What do you mean by uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation?
Section C
1.
2.
3.
Explain oxidative phosphorylation
Write notes on electron transport chain
Explain the mechanism of oxidation – reduction reaction with suitable example.
UNIT-IV
1. Two important byproducts of HMP shunt are
(a) NADH and pentose sugars
(b) NADPH and pentose sugars
(c) pentose sugars and 4 membered sugars
(d) pentose sugars and sedoheptulose
2. The following are key gluconeogenic enzymes except
(a) glucose-6-phosphatase
(b) PEP carboxylase
(c) pyruvate carboxylase
(d) pyruvate kinase
3. The synthesis of glycogen from glucose is known as
(a) gluconeogenesis
(b) glycogenesis
(c) glycogenolysis
(d) glycolysis
4. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(a) is a complex of three enzymes
(b) requires five coenzymes
(c) Converts pyruvate into acetyl CoA
(d) all the above
5. The following compounds can be used to form glucose by gluconeogenesis
(a) lactic acid
(b) glucogenic amino acids
(c) acetyl CoA
(d) All the above
6. The following are true with reference to pentose phosphate pathway
(a) it is an alternative route for the metabolism of glucose
(b) it generates NADPH
(c) it provides ribose
(d) all the above
7. Before pyruvic acid enters the tricarboxylic acid cycle it must be converted to
(a) acetyl CoA
(b) lactate
(c) alpha keto glutarate (d) citrate
8. The tissue which can synthesize glucose from pyruvate
(a) Brain
(b) kidney
(c) Muscle
(d) pancreas
9. Amphibolic means
(a) pertaining to both catabolism and anabolism
(b) containing both polar and non polar domains
(c) able to serve as an acid or a base
(d) none of the above.
10. Glucose immediately after entering the cell
(a) converted into glycogen
(b) utilized by glycolysis
(c) converted into glucose-6-phosphate (d) none of the above
11. The rate limiting enzyme in glycolysis is
(a) Phospho fructo kinase (b) aldolase
(c) Hexoseisomerase
(d) enolase
12. When blood glucose level goes down
(a) fatty acid mobilization occurs
(b) gluconeogenesis accelerated
(c) glycogenolysis accelerated
(d) all the above
13. Anabolic pathway is
(a) a degradation step
(b) a biosynthetic step
(c) both of the above
(d) none of the above
14. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is a
(a) multi enzyme complex
© high molecular weight protein
(b) enzyme regulated by products
(d) all the above
15. The enzyme phosphohexoseisomerase converts glucose-6-phosphate to
(a) glucose
(b) glucose-1-phosphate
(c) fructose-6-phosphate
(d) galactose
16. The glycolytic pathway is regulated by which of the following enzyme
(a) glucokinase, phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase
(b) hexokinase, aldolase, pyruvate kinase
(c) hexokinase, glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate dehydrogenase, enolase
(d) hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase
17. Gluconeogenesis is formation of glucose from
(a) carbohydrated
(b) glycogen
(c) non-carbohydrate source
(d) glucuronic acid
18. Under anaerobic conditions pyruvic acid is converted to
(a) ethyl alcohol
(b) lactic acid
(c) acetate
(d) enol pyruvate
19. lipid binding protein in blood are
(a) Apolipoprotein
b. Chylomicrons
c. Lipoproteins
d. All the above
20. For the activation of long chain fatty acids the enzyme thiokinase requires
the cofactor
(a) Mg2+
(b) Ca2+
(c) Mn2+
(d) K+
21. When palmitoyl CoA is oxidized completely to CO2 and H2O the following
number of ATPs are produced
(a) 35
(b) 40
(c) 96
(d) 131
22. Transestrification of carnitine to form fattyacyl- carnitine is catalysed by the
enzyme
(a) carnitine acyltransferaseI
(b) carnitine acetyltransferase
(c) carnitine acyltransferaseII
(d) carnitine acetyltransferaseII
23. Lysolecithin is formed from lecithin by the action of
(a) phospholipase A1
(b) phospholipase A2
(c) phospholipase C
(d) phospholipase D
24. Elongation of fatty acid occurs in
(a) cytosol
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
(b) nucleus
(d) lysosomes
25. In an SDS-PAGE
(1) proteins are denatured by the SDS (2) proteins have the same charge-to-mass ratio
(3) smaller proteins migrate more rapidly through the gel (4) all of the above
26. Proteins can be visualized directly in gels by
(1) staining them with the dye (2) using electron microscope only
(3) measuring their molecular weight (4) none of these
27. In gel electrophoresis, molecules with a negative charge will ____
(1) move towards the anode (2) move towards the cathode
(3) move towards the negative electrode (4) stay in the well
28. Gel electrophoresis separates molecules according to their ___.
(1) wavelengths of light absorbed (2) polarity
(3) solubility(4) Matrix
29. The pH indicators are
(1) salts of strong acids and bases (2) salts of weak acids and weak bases
(3) either weak acid or weak bases (4)either strong acids or strong bases
30. A pH meter is an example of
(1) a reference electrode (2) an electrolytic cell
(3) an ion-selective electrode (4) a fuel cell
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
1.
2.
3.
Section B
What do you mean by glycogenesis?
Write notes on glycogenolysis?
Explain the regulatory enzymes of glycolysis?
Write the significance of HMP Shunt?
Write short notes on β-Oxidation?
Section C
Discuss about TCA cycle
Describe synthesis of saturated fatty acids
Explain the oxidation of glucose aerobically?
UNIT-V
1. The transaminase activity needs the coenzyme
(a) ATP
(b) B6-PO4
(c) FAD+
(d) NAD+
2. With regard to proteolytic enzymes, the following statement is correct
(a) trypsin acts as an activator for all zymogens
(b) trypsin is an exopeptidase and liberates free amino acids
(c) pepsin is secreted by the pancreas
(d) chymotrypsin acts in the stomach on peptide bonds formed by glycine
3. Serum glutamate-oxaloacetate transaminase (SGOT)
(a) requires biotin as a cofactor
(b) activity is raised after myocardial infarction
(c) provides ATP in erythrocytes
(d) operates properly in a vitamin –B6 deficient animal
4. Oxaloacetate is an intermediate both in the
(a) glycolysis and TCA cycle
(b) (b) TCA cycle and -oxidation
© TCA cycle and ketogenesis
(d) citic acid cycle and gluconeogenesis
5. Glycogenic amino acids are
(a) alanine
(b) glycine
(c) arginine
(d) all the above
6. The enzyme which converts phenyl alanine into tyrosine is
(a) phenylalanine decarboxylase
(b) phenylalanine hydroxylase
(c) transaminase
(d) none of the above
.7. The reaction which completely removes amino group from amino acid is
(a) transamination
(b) oxidative deamination
(c) non- oxidative deamination
(d) none of the above
8. The ketogenic amino acid is
(a) alanine
(b) leucine
(c) glycine
(d) arginine
9. The transfer of amino group from amino acid to α keto acid is
(a) transamination
(b) decarboxylation
(c) dehydrogenation
(d) all the above
10. The enzyme involved in the hydrolyses of arginine to urea and ornithin is
a. Ornithin trans carbamoylase
b. Arginase
c.argino succinate synthase
d. None of the above
11. Example for uricotelic animal is
(a) birds
(b) amphibians
(c) reptiles
(d) all the above
12. Vitamin C is required for the action of
(a) phenyl alanine hydroxylase
(b) ρ- hydroxyl phenyl pyruvate hydroxylase
(c) β- ketothiolase
(d) tyrosine transaminase
13. The amphibolic intermediate formed from glycine is
(a) citrate
(b) fumarate
(c) pyruvate
(d) succinate.
14. The coenzyme for L- amino acid oxidases is
(a) FMN
(b) pyridoxal phosphate
(c) NAD
(d) TPP
15. Which of the following types of the amino acids are involved in the synthesis
of the nucleic acid?
(a) non essential amino acids
(b) basic amino acids
(c) aromatic amino acids
(d) aliphatic hydrophobic amino acids
17. The two nitrogen atoms in urea arise from
(a) ammonia and aspartic acid
(b) ammonia and glutamine
(c) glutamine and alanine
(d) glutamine and aspartic acid
18. The coenzyme for non oxidative deaminase is
(a) TPP (b) NAD+
(c) FAD
(d) PLP
18. Ammonia is detoxified in brain chiefly as
(a) urea
(c) creatinine
(b) uric acid
(d) glutamine
19. The side chain of tryptophan is cleaved to yield
a. Serine
b Glycine
c alanine
d cysteine
20. An amino acid not involved in urea cycle is
(a) arginine
(b) histidine
(c) ornithine
(d) citrulline
21. The following compounds are formed from tyrosine
(a) adrenaline
(b) melanin
(c) thyroid hormone
(d) all the above
22. Formation of ammonia solely occurs in
(a) the kidney
(b) the spleen
(c) the liver
(d) none of the above
23. The coenzyme required for amino acid decarboxylation is
(a) FMN (b) FAD
(c) NAD
(d) pyridoxal phosphate
24. The metabolism of L-tryptophan results in
(a) uric acid
(b) creatinine
(c) a vitamin
(d) allantoin
25. Glutamine is the chief detoxifying product of ammonia in
(a) liver (b) brain
(c) kidney
(d) intestine
26. Uric acid is the catabolic end product of
(a) porphyrins
(b) purines
(c) pepinidines
(d) pyridoxine
27. Protein nitrogen is fixed in urea by way of
(a) transamination
(b) transamidation
(c) oxidative deamination
(d) hydrolysis
28. Argininosuccinicaciduria is due to the absence of
(a) arginine
(b) argininosuccinase
(c) ornithine transcarbamoylase (d) carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
29. Oxidative deamination of glutamate
(a) requires NAD+
(b) glutamate dehydrogenase
(c) requires FMN
(d) forms α-ketoglutarate
30. During convalescing period the body is under
(a) negative nitrogen balance
(b) positive nitrogen balance
(c) normal nitrogen balance
(d) none of the above
Section B
1.
Write short notes on transamination?
2.
Write the importance urea cycle?
3.
How glycine does is metabolised?
4.
What do you mean by oxidative deamination?
5.
Write short notes on Phenyl ketouria?
Section C
1.
Comment on following:
i) Deamination with examples
ii) Decarboylation with examples
2. Write an account of phenylalanine metabolism
3. Illustrate the interrelationship of CHO, Lipid and protein metabolism?