Download MPB IPG - E

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
MICROBIAL PHYSIOLOGY AND BIOCHEMISTRY
UNIT I
Section – A
Which of the following organelles would only be found within a cell that was both
eukaryotic and autotrophic?
A) mitochondria
B) ribosomes C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) chloroplast
After being formed by the ribosomes located on the endoplasmic reticulum, what is the next
organelle to which a protein could be transported?
A) mitochondria B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus D) nucleus
Which of the following are involved with the movement or transport of materials or
organelles throughout the cell?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum B) cytoskeleton C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) vesicles E) all of the choices are true
Which is NOT true about the cell theory?
A) Its various parts were described by Schleiden, Schwann, and Virchow.
B) It states that all organisms are composed of cells.
C) It states that all cells come from preexisting cells.
D) It states that bacteria and other small organisms can arise spontaneously.
E) It is accepted today by biologists as applying to virtually all forms of life.
Which is NOT a reason for the small size of cells?
A) As the linear dimensions of a cell increase, the volume increases twice as fast as the
surface area.
B) Nutrients and wastes must enter and leave the cell through the plasma membrane.
C) The nucleus can only control a certain amount of cytoplasm.
D) The increased number of organelles requires that eukaryotic cells be smaller
than prokaryotic cells.
E) Materials must be able to move quickly and efficiently through the cytoplasm.
A high-powered microscope that produces an image from scattered secondary electrons is the
A) immunofluorescence microscope
B) bright-field light microscope
C) transmission electron microscope (TEM) D) scanning electron microscope (SEM)
A microscope that uses antibodies that glow to reveal the location of a protein in a cell is the
A) immunofluorescence microscope
B) bright-field light microscope.
C) transmission electron microscope (TEM) D) scanning electron microscope (SEM)
A microscope used to observe living cells and organelles by contrasting the phase differences
so that some regions appear brighter is the
A) immunofluorescence microscope
B) phase contrast light microscope
C) transmission electron microscope (TEM)
D) scanning electron microscope (SEM)
9. An amino sugar called N-acetylmuramic acid is an important building block of the cell wall
of some bacteria. Penicillin prevents this amino sugar from being incorporated into the
bacterial cell wall. Therefore,
A) penicillin affects bacteria but not eukaryotes because eukaryotic cell walls are
different.
B) bacterial cells that had already formed their cell walls would be unaffected.
C) penicillin would stop the growth of active colonies of susceptible bacteria.
D) penicillin would have no affect on a plant cell wall
E) All of the choices are correct.
10. Most bacteria live in a solution that is hypotonic relative to the cytoplasm of the bacteria.
The cell wall of a bacterium is a peptidoglycan polymer that is tightly cross-linked. This
would therefore function to
A) regulate the flow of most molecules into and out of the bacterial cell.
B) provide a rigid wall that prevents the cell from swelling.
C) provide a rigid wall that prevents the cell from shrinking.
D) confirm a close relationship to plant cells that have a similar structure and live in
hypotonic solutions
11. Which term is based on the Greek root words for "before" and "kernel"?
A) peptidoglycan
B) eukaryote C) nucleolus D) prokaryote E) nucleus
12. Which is NOT true of eukaryotic cells?
A) A true nucleus contains the chromosomes.
B) Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bounded compartments.
C) They contain ribosomes that are smaller than those of prokaryotic cells.
D) They all contain mitochondria.
E) They contain many organelles in the cytoplasm.
13. A eukaryotic organelle that can easily be seen with the light microscope is the
A) endoplasmic reticulum B) nucleus
C) ribosome D) polyribosome
14. The Greek root word that means "net" and "within" is __________
A) prokaryote B) eukaryote C) cytoplasmic D) nucleoid E) endoplasmic reticulum
15. Which is NOT true concerning the Golgi complex?
A) It consists of a stack of saccules.
B) Golgi complexes may have an inner face and an outer face.
C) Molecules are modified within the lumen of Golgi saccules.
D) Lysosomes are vesicles that bind to enter the Golgi saccules.
E) Golgi apparatus contains enzymes
16. Lysosomes are produced by the __________
A) vacuoles B) nucleus
C) mitochondria D) Golgi apparatus E) ribosomes
17. Membrane-bounded vesicles that contain enzymes for oxidizing small organic molecules
with the formation of hydrogen peroxide are __________
A) vacuoles B) vesicles C) glyoxisomes D) lysosomes E) peroxisomes
18. Large membranous sacs that are more prevalent in plant cells and some protozoa than in
animal cells are called ________
A) vacuoles B) vesicles
C) glyoxisomes D) lysosomes
E) peroxisomes
19. Actin filaments are __________
A) also known as microtubules.
B) able to assemble and disassemble from component proteins.
C) found in the center of flagella and cilia.
D) intermediate in size between microtubules and microfilaments.
E) made of different kinds of components in different tissues.
20. The cells that line our respiratory tract, and one-celled paramecia both have these short hairlike projections.
A) flagella B) microfilaments C) centrioles
D) cilia
E) pili
21.Which of the following gives rise to both lysosomes and vesicles?
A) rough endoplasmic reticula B) mitochondria C) Golgi apparatus D) ribosomes
22. The plant cell's central vacuole ________
A) provides the plant cell with support.
B) stores nutrients and cellular waste products.
C) is a reservoir for water.
D) occupies a large area of the cell
E) All choices are correct
23. Of the following, which is NOT associated with the mitochondria?
A) ATP productions B) cristae C) stroma D) matrix E) All of these are associated
with the mitochondria
24. To best preserve the enzymes of a cell when we cut a cell apart in a blender to separate the
organelles, the solution should be __________
A) warm and acidic B) warm and basic C) cold and neutral D) cold and acidic
E) The temperature and pH does not matter
25. Prokaryotes are characterized by all of the following structures EXCEPT
A) a Nucleoid B) inclusion bodies C) mitochondria D) mesosomes
E) ribosomes
SECTION – B
26. Describe the structure and functions of flagella
27. Differentiate endocytosis and exocytosis with suitable examples
28. Differentiate the cell wall of bacteria and archaea
29. Differentiate Gram positive and Gram negative cell wall
30. Give a brief note on Pinocytosis and phagocytosis
31. Explain briefly about the different types of flagella
SECTION – C
32. Describe the structure and chemical composition of plasma membrane and the process of
transport of macromolecule.
33. Describe in detail about various mechanism of nutrient uptake by the bacterial cell.
34. Describe the ultrastructure of prokaryotic cell with a neat sketch.
UNIT II
SECTION – B
1. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a growth curve?
A. Shows development of microbial population under relatively stable environmental
conditions
B. Plotted with logarithmic numbers
C. Graphs numbers of microbes versus time
D. Each growth curve consists of four distinct phases
2. Generation time of Escherichia coli is _____________
A. 20 minutes
B. 20 hours C. 20 days
D. 200 hours
3. The organism which obtain their energy from chemicals are designated as _________
A. prototrophs
B. chemotrophs
C. organotrophs
D. autotrophs
4. Nutrient content and biological structures are considered as _____________
A. implicit factor for microbial growth B. intrinsic factor for microbial growth
C. processing factor
D. none of the above
5. The organism which grows best above 45°C are called _________________
A. psychrophilic
B. mesosphilic
C. thermophilic
D. any of these
6. Implicit factors ____________
A. depend on developing microflora
B. can be synergistic
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none
7. Lag phase is also known as _____________
A. period of initial adjustment B. transitional period C. generation time
D. none
8. Which of the following is used to grow bacterial cultures continuously?
A. Chemostat
B. Coulter Counter C. Hemostat D. Petroff-Hausser chamber
9. A microbe, which grows at temperatures above 95° C is most likely to be ___________
A. an archaean B. a fungus C. a protozoan
D. none of these
10. Some organisms can use reduced inorganic compounds as electron donors and are termed as
A. lithotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemotrophs
D. photoorganotrophs
11. The total biomass of an organism will be determined by the nutrient present in the lowest
concentration relative to the organism's requirements is a statement of ______________
A. Liebig's law of the minimum
B. Shelford's law of tolerance
C. quorum sensing
D. Heisenberg's principle of
uncertainty
12. The growth is normally expressed as __________ in turbidimetric measurement
A. cells per ml
B. cfu/ml
C. optical density
D. mg N2 /ml
13. Which of the following organisms typically get their carbon for biosynthesis from carbon
dioxide?
A. Glucose-fermenting bacteria (fermentation)
B. Anaerobic, glucose-respiring bacteria (anaerobic respiration)
C. Aerobic, glucose-respiring bacteria (aerobic respiration)
D. Ammonia-oxidizing bacteria (chemolithotrophic bacteria)
14. An organism that expends energy to grow in a habitat with a low water activity in order to
maintain internal solute concentrations to retain water is ________________
A. osmotolerant
B. acidophile
C. aerotolerant anaerobe
D. alkalophile
15. The straightforward method of binary fission explains how bacteria ___________
A. grow in nutrient agar
B. evolve
C. move
D. reproduce
16. The equation used to obtain bacterial population by binary fission is ____________
A. N = No2n
B. log N/No = (0.3010) n
C. log(N/No) = nlog 2 D. All of these
17. Bacteria and fungi multiply best ___________
A. below 16°C
B. between 16-38°C
C. above 38°C
D. none of these
18. An organism has an optimal growth rate when the hydrogen ion concentration is very high.
This organism is __________
A. osmotolerant B. acidophile
C. neutrophile
D. aerotolerant anaerobe
19. Which of the following procedures uses a photocell to measure absorbance of a culture to
regulate the flow of culture media?
A. Coulter Counter
B. Hemostat C. Petroff-Hausser chamber D.
Turbidostat
20. Organisms, using organic compounds as electron donors are called _____________
A. lithotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemotrophs
D. organotrophs
21. The reproduction by budding occur in ___________
A. Rhodopseudomonas acidophila
B. Rhodopseudomonas acidophila C.
Bacillus
subtilis
D. Both (A) and (B)
22. Starvation proteins are produced by a culture during which of the following segments of the
growth curve?
A. Lag phase
B. Exponential phase
C. Stationary phase
D.
Death
phase
23. The cell reproduction in bacteria may occur by ________________
A. binary fission B. budding
C. fragmentation
D. all of these
24. During exponential growth, the growth rate is ____________
A. number of generations per unit time
B. reciprocal of generation time
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of these
25. A spore differs from an actively replicating bacterium in that the spore ____________
A. is produced during a process involving asymmetric division
B. is able to withstand more extreme conditions than the replicating cell
C. is metabolically inactive
D. all of these
SECTION - B
26. List out any five important of nutrients required for microbial growth and their functions
27. Differentiate chemostat and turbidostat
28. Give an account on the nutritional types of microorganism with suitable examples
29. Write brief note on batch and continuous culturing of bacteria
30. Explain bacterial growth curve and the physiology of cells in different phases
31. Briefly describe the synchronous cultures
32. Describe the process of facilitated diffusion of nutrients with examples
33. Mention any important growth factors and their role in microbial growth
SECTION – C
34. Discuss in detail the factors influencing the growth of microorganisms.
35. Explain the different methods for the measurement of microbial growth and their significance
36. Give an account on the classification of microorganisms based on their nutrition with suitable
examples.
37. What is macro, micro and trace elements? How do they function in synthesis of cell
constituents?
UNIT III
SECTION – A
1. During the carboxylation phase of the Calvin cycle, CO2 combines with ____________
a. ribulose 1,5 – bisphosphate b. phosphoglyceraldehyde c. pyruvic acid
2. Which of the following groups contain(s) many unique coenzymes, such as coenzyme M and
coenzyme F420?
a. Sulfate-reducing bacteria
b. Methanotrophs (methane-oxidizing microbes)
c. Methanogens (methane-producing microbes)
d. Acetogens (acetigens; acetate-producing microbes)
3. In an oxygenic photosynthesis, the green and the purple bacteria do not use which of the
following one as an electron source?
a. H2O
b. H2
c. H2S
d. S (elemental sulphur)
4. Radioisotopes are frequently used in the study of cells. Assume a culture of E. coli is grown in
a culture medium containing radioactive phosphorous. At the end of 48 hours, it is expected to
find the radioactive label located in____________
a. enzymes
b. RNA
c. phospholipids
d. all of these
5. Assimilatory sulfate reduction involves the nucleotide __________ during the incorporation of
H2S in the production of __________ .
a. ATP; methionine
b. ATP; cytosine
c. UTP; cytosine
d. GTP; cytosine
6. The chlorophyll molecules used by eucaryotes and cyanobacteria absorb radiant energy in
the____________portion(s) of the visible spectrum.
a. red
b. green
c. red and blue
d. green and ultraviolet
7. In aerobic respiration, the terminal electron acceptor is ______________
a. oxygen
b. nitrogen
c. hydrogen
d. nitrate
8. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Phosphate repression can not be eliminated by optimization of nutrient medium,
deregulated medium must be used as production strains
b. Phosphate repression can be eliminated by optimization of nutrient medium, deregulated
medium must be used as production strains
c. Phosphate repression can be eliminated by optimization of nutrient medium, regulated
medium must be used as production strains
d. Phosphate repression can not be eliminated by optimization of nutrient medium, regulated
medium must be used as production strains
9. The acquisition energy by glucose fermentation requires _________________
a. substrate-level Phosphorylation
b. electron transport of electrons from NADH
c. long-chain fatty acid oxidation
d. the enzyme formic-hydrogen lyase
10. High energy transfer compounds are capable of _________________
a. accepting large amounts of free energy b. transferring large amounts of free energy
c. measuring free energy
d. none of the above
11. Dolichol phosphate is _______________
a. a complex lipid involved in docking vesicles with the plasma membrane
b. the anchor on which sugars assemble before transfer to proteins
c. a chaperone used in protein folding
d. a product of phospholipase C activation
12. The reactions of the cell that are carried out for capturing energy are called ___________
a. catabolism
b. metabolism
c. anabolism
d. activation energy
13. In establishing proton gradient for chemiosmotic ATP generation by aerobic respiration the
terminal electron acceptor is _________________
a. nitrate
b. oxygen
c. sulfate
d. CO2
14. If ΔG of a chemical reaction is positive in value and keq is less than 1 then the chemical
reaction will _______________
a. proceed in reverse direction
b. proceed in forward direction
c. not take place in any of the direction
d. none of these
15. The reaction, where small precursor molecules are assembled into larger organic molecules is
referred as ________________
a. anabolism
b. catabolism
c. metabolism
d. any of these
16. Which of the following nucleoside diphosphates is used most often in carbohydrate
anabolism?
a. Uridine diphosphate b. Adenosine diphosphate
c. Guanine diphosphate
d. Thymine diphosphate
17. DAHP synthetase catalyzes the condensation of _________________
a. erythrose-4-phosphate b. phosphoenol pyruvate c. both (a) and (b) d. phenylalanine
18. Phosphate is considered to restrict the induction of _________________
a. primary metabolites
b. secondary metabolites c. both (a) and (b)
c. none
19. Free energy change (ΔG) of a reaction is referred as the amount of energy __________
a. liberated during reaction
b. taken up during reaction
c. liberated or taken up during reaction
d. none of these
20. Which of the following does not produce oxygen as a product of photosynthesis?
a. Oak trees
b. Purple sulfur bacteria
c. Cyanobacteria
d. Phytoplankton
21. When acetate is the sole source of carbon for some microorganisms, the cycle which is used,
is called ________________
a. pentose phosphate pathway
b. glycolyic pathway
c. glyoxylate pathway
d. oxaloacetate pathway
22. Hexose monophosphate pathway is also known as ____________
a. phosphogluconate pathway
b. oxaloacetate pathway
c. malate pathway
d. fumerate pathway
23. If radioactive bicarbonate was supplied to bacterial cells, which were actively synthesizing
fatty acids, it is expected to find the bulk of the radioactivity in _____________
a. cellular bicarbonate
b. the fatty acids
c. the cytoplasmic membrane
d. nucleic acids
24. The glyoxylate cycle is used by some microorganisms when___________ is the sole carbon
source.
a. acetate
b. nitrate
c. carbon dioxide
d. all of these
25. A microbe growing in a functioning refrigerator is probably a __________________
a. psychrophile b. mesophile
c. thermophile
d. heterophile
SECTION - B
26. Explain the glyoxylate cyclic reactions and its significance
27. Write a critical note on anaerobic respiration and fermentation
28. Bring out the biochemical reaction of ED pathway and its significance
29. List out the microbial fermentation and the organisms involved with the end products
30. Define fermentation. Write the importance of fermentation
31. Give an account on substrate level phosphorylation
32. What is electron transport chain? Discuss
33. Differentiate aerobic and an aerobic respiration with suitable examples
SECTION – C
34. Bring out the flow chart of glycolytic pathway and give an account on the ATP production.
35. Describe the reaction occur during the β-oxidation of palmitic acid and ATP production
36. Describe kreb’s cycle
UNIT IV
SECTION – A
1. The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is __________
a. acetyl CoA carboxylase b. AMP activated proteinkinase c. protein phosphatase d.
none
2. Arachidonate has 20 carbon atoms with _________________
a. 3 double bonds
b. 2 double bonds
c. 4 double bonds
d. 8 double bonds
3. In the intestine, the dietary fats are hydrolysed by _______________
a. triacylglycerol lipase b. adenylate cyclase c. pancreatic lipase d. protein kinase
4. HDLs are synthesized in _____________
a. blood
b. liver
c. intestine
d. pancreas
5. Triacylglycerols are ________________
a. soluble in water b. insoluble in water
c. soluble in water at elevated temperature
d. partially soluble in water
6. Animals cannot convert fatty acids into glucose because _____________
a. acetyl CoA can not be converted to pyruvate
b. absence of malate synthase
c. absence of dehydrogenase
d. absence of a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
7. In eukaryotes fatty acid breakdown occurs in _____________
a. mitochondrial matrix b. cytosol c. cell membrane
d. endoplasmic reticulum
8. What is the major protein constituent of high-density lipoprotein (HDL)?
a. Apolipoprotein A-l b. Apolipoprotein C-I c. Apolipoprotein E d. None of these
9. Phospholipid contains ____________
a. hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails b. long water-soluble carbon chains
c. positively charged functional groups
d. both (b) and (c)
10. Micelles of fatty acids in water are organized such that the __________ faces the solvent and
the __________ are directed toward the interior
a. carboxylic acid groups, hydrocarbon chains heads
b. hydrophilic heads, hydrophobic
tails
c. hydrocarbon chains, carboxylic acid groups
d. both (a) and (b)
11. Cholesterolemia means _______________
a. lack of functional LDL receptors
b. lack of functional HDL receptor
c. high sensitivity to fatty food intake
d. none of the above
12. Fatty acids break down of eukaryotes occurs in _______________
a. mitochondrial matrix b. cell membrane
c. cytosol
d. endoplasmic reticulum
13. VLDLs are synthesized in ________________
a. blood
b. liver
c. intestine
d. intestine
14. Chylomicrons are synthesized in _______________
a. blood
b. liver
c. intestine
d. pancreas
15. How many types of lipoproteins are there?
a. 2
b. 6
c. 8
d. 5
16. Which statement best describes Xanthine ?
a. It is a direct precursor of Guanine
b. It covalently binds to Allopurinol
c. It is oxidized to form Uric acid
d. It is oxidized to form Hypoxanthine
17. 2- Methylated heterocyclic bases of plants include all except
a. Caffeine
b. Theophylline
c. Theobromine
d. Thymine
18. Purine nucleotide biosynthesis can be inhibited by which of the followings ?
a. Guanosine triphosphate b. Uridine mono phosphate c. Adenosine mono phosphate
d. Adenosine tri phosphate
19. Which of the following contributes nitrogen atoms to both purine and pyrimidine rings?
a. Aspartate
b. Carbamoyl phosphate
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Glutamate
20. Which out of the following conditions is associated with hypouricemia ?
a. Lesch Nyhan syndrome
b. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
c. Over activity of PRPP synthetase
d. Over activity of amido transferase
21. Which of the following is a required substrate for purine biosynthesis ?
a. 5- methyl thymidine
b. Ara –C
c. Ribose phosphate
d. PRPP
22. A Pentose with a 5′ phosphate group, a 2′ OH group and 1′ pyrimidine group describes which
of the following structures ?
a. Cytosine
b. Thymidine
c. Thymidylate
d. Cytidylate
23. Which is the rate limiting step of pyrimidine synthesis that exhibits allosteric inhibition by
cytidine triphosphate
a. Aspartate transcarbamoylase
b. Hypoxanthine Guanine phosphoribosyl
Transferase
c. Thymidylate synthase
d. Xanthine oxidase
24. Feedback inhibition of pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis can occur by which of the following ?
a. Increased activity of Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
b. Increased activity of Aspartate transcarbamoylase
c. CTP allosteric effects
d. UMP competitive inhibition
25. Enzymes having slightly different molecular structures but performing identical activity are
a. holoenzymes
b. apoenzymes
c. isoenzymes
d. coenzymes
SECTION - B
26. Discuss the inhibitors of enzyme activity
27. Write the classification of enzymes according to IUBMB
28. Define isoenzymes. Explain with suitable examples
29. Give an account on the chemical nature of enzymes with examples
30. Describe the biosynthesis of aspartate
31. Write the process of fatty acid biosynthesis
32. Explain assimilation of CO2
33. Discuss the biosynthesis of the aminoacid serine
34. Write a critical note on the growth kinetics
SECTION – C
35. Give a detailed account on the Enzyme kinetics, regulatory mechanisms and their properties.
36. Describe the biosynthetic pathway of ribonucleotides.
37. Describe in detail about the different types of enzyme inhibition.
38. Describe the biosynthesis of aspartate.
UNIT V
SECTION – A
1. Amino acids are _________________
a. building blocks of carbohydrates
b. building blocks of nucleic acids
c. building blocks of lipids
d. building blocks of proteins
2. Amino acids has ______________
a. both amino group and carboxyl group
b. both amino group and keto group
c. amino group only
d. carboxyl group only
3. The simplest amino acid is _____________
a. Proline
b. methionine
c. glycine
d. serine
4. Which of the following amino acid is a ‘α-helix terminator’?
a. tryptophan
b. phenyl alnine
c. tyrosine
d. proline
5. The first amino acid in a polypeptide chain is _____________
a. Serine
b. Valine
c. Alanine
d. Methionine
6. Which of the following amino acid has buffering capacity ___________
a. Tryptophan
b. cysteine
c. histidine
d. arginine
7. Which of the following is an α imino acid?
a. serene
b. threonine
c. valine
d. proline
8. The naturally occurring form of amino acid in proteins ______________
a. L-amino acids only b. D-amino acids only c. both L and D amino acids d) none
9. Archaeo bacteria are known as ______________
a. Halophiles
b. Red extreme halophiles c. Osmophiles d. Extreme thermophiles
10. Cyclic phosphorylation is generally present in ___________
a. Cyanobacteria
b. Algae
c. Bacteria
d. Plants
11. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is also known as _______________
a. Oxygenic photosynthesis
b. Photosynthesis
c. Anoxygenic photosynthesis
d. Photophosphorylation
12. The number of ATP molecules formed during cyclic phosphorylation are____________
a. One
b. Two
c. Four
d. Six
13. Amino acids with hydroxyl groups are ______________
a. serine and alanine
b. Alanine and valine
c. serine and threonine
d. Valine and isoleucine
14. An organism that is osmophilic and has a specific requirements for sodium chloride
resembles
a. Halophile
b. Basophile
c. Barophile
d. Xerophile
15. Absorbance at 280nm exhibited by protein is due to ______________
a. aliphatic amino acids
b. all amino acids
c. Non-polar amino acids
d. aromatic amino acids
16. What is the most common bioluminescent color in marine life?
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Green
d. purple
17. What is the most common source of bioluminescence in surface waters?
a. Jellyfish
b. Squid
c. Dinoflagellates
d. Crustacians
18. Bioluminescence is created by the chemical reaction of luciferin, luciferace, and
____________
a. Oxygen
b. carbon-di-oxide
c. hydrogen
d. methane
19. Comb jellies are bioluminescent, but also have strings of multicolor which are actually
________
a. iridescent
b. reflective
c. incandescent
d. elluminated
20. Which of the following obtain energy from the oxidation of inorganic or organic chemicals?
a. chemotroph
b. lithotroph
c. Phototroph
d. organotroph
21. An organism is capable of oxidizing H2S and using the energy obtained from the reaction to
reduce carbon dioxide. Which type of metabolism does this organism possess?
a. Photolithotrophic autotroph
b. Chemolithotrophic autotroph
c. Chemoorganotrophic heterotrophy
d. Photolithotrophic heterotrophy
22. All prokaryotes are surrounded by a cell wall except ______________
a. Mycoplasms b. Spirochetes
c. Actinomycetes
d. Methanogens
23. In bacteria pigment bearing structures are ______________
a. Chloroplast
b. Protoplast
c. Sphaeroplast
d. Chromatophores
24. Cell-wall is _____________
a. Thick in Gram positive than Gram negative
b. Thick in Gram negative than Gram positive
c. Equal in both
d. In Gram negative cell-wall is absent
25. The utilization of light energy to drive the synthesis of ATP is called as _____________
a. Photolysis
b. Photophosphorylation
c. Photosynthesis
d. Respiration
SECTION - B
26. Write a critical note on bioluminescence
27. Write a brief note on autotroph and phototroph
28. What are myxotrophs/ explain the functions
29. Give an account on the photosynthesis bacterial pigments
30. Explain various adaptations of bacteria to extreme environments
31. Differentiate cell wall of bacteria and archaea.
32. Give an account on the anoxygenic photosynthesis in bacteria
SECTION - C
33. Discuss in detail, the adaptation of archaebacteria under extreme conditions.
34. Describe the cyclic and non-cyclic photosynthesis
35. Name some photosynthetic bacteria and explain how they obtain their energy?