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NAME _________________________________________________________________ DATE ______________ CHEMISTRY FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 1. Which of the following careers involve chemistry? A. engineer B. beautician C. farmer D. all of the above 2. Careful procedures used to make observations of an event by changing factors that might influence the event are called: A. scientific laws B. theories C. hypothesis D. experiments 3. Which of the following is a quantitative observation? A. The object has a mass of 2.3 g. C. Carbon dioxide was produced. B. The liquid looked yellow. D. A yellow solid was formed. 4. Which of the following is not a step in the scientific method? A. Make an observation. C. Perform an experiment. B. Change our results to agree with our hypothesis. D. Formulate a hypothesis. Use the information in the following paragraph to answer questions 5 – 7. Ronika and Thomas are eating raisins and drinking ginger ale. Thomas accidentally drops a raisin into his ginger ale. Both he and Ronika notice that the raisin falls to the bottom of the glass. Soon, the raisin rises to the surface of the ginger ale and then sinks. Within a couple of minutes, it rises and sinks again. Ronika asks “I wonder why that happened?” Thomas says, “I don’t know, but let’s see if it works in water.” Ronika fills a glass with water and drops a raisin into the glass. After a few minutes, Thomas says, “No, it doesn’t go up and down in the water.” Ronika closely observes the raisins in the two cups and states, “Look, there are bubbles on the raisin in the ginger ale, but not on the raisin in the water.” Thomas says “It must be the bubbles that make the raisin rise.” Ronika asks, “OK, but then why does it sink again?” 5. Which of the following items from the passage is an observation? A. Accidentally dropping the raisin into the ginger ale B. Claiming that the bubbles make the raisin rise. C. Asking “I wonder why that happened?” D. Noticing the raisin sinks in ginger ale. 6. Which of the following from the passage is a theory? A. Asking “I wonder why that happened?” B. Noticing that the raisin does not rise and sink in the water. C. Claiming that the bubbles make the raisin rise. D. Wondering why the raisin sinks after it rises to the surface of the ginger ale. 7. Which of the following from the passage is an experiment? A. A. Claiming that the bubbles make the raisin rise. B. Dropping a raisin into water. C. Asking “I wonder why that happened?” D. Wondering why the raisin sinks after it rises to the surface of the ginger ale. 8. Examine the figure carefully. Determine the volume of liquid pictured below to the maximum accuracy allowed. A. 4.35 mL B. 4.5000 mL C. 4.70 mL 9. Which of the following gives the most accurate measurement of mass? A. a beaker B. a balance C. a graduated cylinder 10. The number 0.00149 is correctly written in scientific notation as A. 1.49 x 103 B. 14.9 x 10-­‐4 C. 1.49 x 10-­‐3 11. Which metric system unit is most appropriate for measuring the distance between two cities? A. meters B. centimeters C. kilometers 12. The number of milligrams equal to one gram is A. 10 B. 100 C. 1000 13. In the metric system, the cubic centimeter is a unit of A. mass B. volume C. length 14. What is the Kelvin equivalent of a temperature of 100oC? A. – 273K B. 273 C. 373K 15. Which set of equipment can be used to determine the density of a liquid in the laboratory? A. a stirring rod and a beaker B. a test tube and a beaker C. a graduated cylinder and a balance 16. A substance whose mass is 48.00 grams occupies a volume of 12.0 cm3. What is the density of the substance? A. 0.25 g B. 4.00 C. 576.00 g 17. The state of matter for an object that has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume is: A. Solid B. liquid C. gas 18. The state of matter for an object that has a definite volume, but not a definite shape is: A. Solid B. liquid C. gas 19. The state of matter for an object that has both a definite shape and a definite volume is: A. Solid B. liquid C. gas 20. Which of the following involves a chemical change? A. Chopping wood B. melting ice C. cooking an egg 21. Which of the following is a physical change? A. Cooking an egg B. evaporating water C. burning gasoline 22. Which of these is a chemical property? A. Oxygen is a gas. B. Water has a high specific heat. C. Helium is very nonreactive. 24. Which of the following is only a physical change? A. Ice melts. B. A nail rusts. C. Potatoes rot. 25. Which of the following is a chemical change? A. Water evaporates. B. Ice melts. C. Silverware tarnishes. 26. Which of the following is a chemical change? A. Gasoline evaporating. B. sugar dissolving in water. C. paper burning. 27. In a chemical change,: A. A phase change never occurs. B. a phase change must occur. C. the products are different substances from the starting materials. 28. A solution can be distinguished from a compound by its: A. heterogeneous nature. B. lack of color. C. variable composition. 29. The elements that have nonmetallic properties are located toward which area of the periodic table A. middle B. upper left C. upper right 30. An element in the lower left corner of the periodic table would be A. a metal B. a metalloid C. a nonmetal 31. Which of the following is a chemical property of sulfur? A. sulfur is yellow B. sulfur is a solid C. sulfur will burn 32. Which element has chemical properties most similar to the element calcium, Ca? A. carbon, C B. cesium, Cs C. strontium, Sr 33. Which statement describes a physical property of elemental oxygen? A. oxygen supports the burning of paper. B. oxygen reacts with sulfur to form sulfur dioxide C. oxygen has a density of 1.43 grams/ liter 34. Which substance contains just one kind of atom? A. aluminum B. carbon dioxide C. water 35. A mixture of salt and sand is most easily separated based on a difference in A. solubility B. magnetic property C. boiling point 36. What is the most abundant element on the earth (including the crust, oceans and atmosphere)? A. Silicon B. Oxygen C. hydrogen 37. What is the most abundant element found in the human body? A. Oxygen B. Water C. Hydrogen 38. The law of constant composition applies to: A. homogeneous mixtures. B. compounds. C. metalloids. 39. A substance composed of two or more elements combined chemically in a fixed proportion by mass is: A. an atom. B. a compound. C. a mixture. 40. The fundamental particle of a chemical element according to Dalton’s atomic theory is the: A. atom. B. electron. C. molecule. 41. In chemistry, a formula is used to represent: A. a metal. B. an element. C. a compound. 42. How many hydrogen atoms are indicated in the formula (NH4)2C8H4O2? A. 8 B. 12 C. 24 43. The total number of oxygen atoms indicated by the formula Fe2(CO3)3 is: A. 6 B. 9 C. 12 44. How many atoms of hydrogen are present in one molecule of CH3Cl? A. 3 B. 6 C. 6 x 1023 45. How many atoms are represented by one formula unit of ammonium dichromate, Al2(Cr2O7)3? A. 3 B. 29 C. 33 46. The total number of atoms indicated by the formula Ca3(PO4)2 is? A. 3 B. 8 C. 13 47. The chemical formula Ga2O3 indicates: A. two atoms of gallium and three atoms of oxygen. B. six atoms of each element. C. three atoms of gallium and two atoms of oxygen. 48. Which atomic particle determines the chemical behavior (whether it will react with other substances) of an atom? A. Proton B. Neutron C. Electron 49. How many protons, neutrons and electrons does A. 8, 8, 8 B. 8, 10, 8 have? C. 8, 16, 8 50. Atoms of the same element having the same atomic number, but different mass numbers are called: A. neutrons. B. nuclei. C. isotopes. 51. The mass number of an atom equals: A. the atomic mass of the element. B. the number of protons plus the number of neutrons in an atom. C. the number of neutrons in an atom. 52. How many neutrons are contained in an iodine nucleus with a mass number of 131? A. 53 B. 78 C. 131 53. How many electrons are present in a neutral tin atom with a mass number of 119? A. 50 B. 69 C. 119 54. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called its: A. mass number. B. atomic number. C. valence number. 55. Which of the following elements is an alkali metal? A. Cu B. Na C. Fe 56. Which of the following elements is an alkaline earth metal? A. Ca B. Cu C. Fe 57. Which of the following is a noble gas? A. O2 B. CO2 C. Ar 58. Which of the following elements is most similar to chlorine? A. Na B. Br C. H 59. What charge would you expect to see if bromine was turned into an ion? A. – 1 B. 0 C. + 1 60. What charge would you expect to see if cesium was turned into an ion? A. – 1 B. 0 C. + 1 61. The positively charged particles in an atom are called A. protons B. electrons C. neutrons 62. Which of the following subatomic particles has the smallest mass? A. proton B. electron C. neutron 63. The atomic number of an atom is the A. number of neutrons B. number of protons plus electrons C. number of protons 64. The nucleus of an atom A. is composed of protons and electrons B. is composed of protons and neutrons C. is the lightest part of the atom 65. The atomic mass of an element is A. the number of protons in the atoms B. the number of protons and neutrons in the atoms C. the average mass of the atoms 66.How many neutrons are there in the nucleus of carbon-­‐14 (atomic number 6)? A. 6 B. 8 C. 14 67.The number of electrons in an ion with 12 protons, 12 neutrons and a charge of +2 is A. 12 B. 10 C. 14 68.Which of the following elements exists as a diatomic molecule? A. carbon B. chlorine C. neon 69. One mole of nitrogen atoms represents: A. 6.022 x 1023 atoms N B. 14 atoms N C. 1.00 g N 70. Which represents the greatest mass? A. 1.0 mol Br B. 1.0 mol C C. 1.0 mol Ca 71. A chemical mole: A. contains an undetermined number of ions B. contains 6.02 x 1023 particles C. is no longer useful to chemistry 72. One atom of phosphorus weighs: A. 6.022 x 1023 amu P B. 30.974 g P C. 30.974 amu P 73. Which of the following contains the smallest number of moles? A. 1.0 g W B. 1.0 g C C. 1.0 g Xe 74. How many moles of Ba atoms are in 801 g Ba? A. 5.83 mol Ba B. 1.10 x 105 mol Ba C. 4.82 x 1026 mol Ba 75. One mole of carbon dioxide weighs approximately: A. 3 g CO2 B. 10 g CO2 C. 44 g CO2 76. What is the mass of 2.00 moles of Ca(NO3)2? A. 82 g Ca(NO3)2 B. 164 g Ca(NO3)2 C. 328 g Ca(NO3)2 77. What is the molar mass of Ga(OH)3? A. 7 g/mol Ga(OH)3 B. 89 g/mol Ga(OH)3 C. 121 g/mol Ga(OH)3 78. How many molecules of N2 are there in 4.0 mol of N2? A. 6.022 x 1023 molecules N2 B. 2.409 x 1024 molecules N2 C. 112 molecules N2 79. A mole of chlorine molecules contains how many chlorine atoms? A. 1.204 x 1024 atoms Cl B. 3.01 x 1023 atoms Cl C. 70 atoms Cl 80. A hydrocarbon has the formula C4H4. What is the percent by mass of carbon in the compound? A. 8% C B. 23% C C. 92% C 81. The mass percent of oxygen in MgO is: A. cannot be determined from the information given B. 40% O C. 60% O 82. Which of the following has the lowest mass percentage of nitrogen? A. NH3 B. HNO3 C. N2H4 83. Which of the following has the empirical formula CH3? A. C6H12 B. H2CO3 C. C2H6 84. The empirical formula for the compound having the formula H2C2O4 is: A. COH2 B. CO2H C. COH 85. Avogadro's number of particles (6.022 x 1023) is equal to A. one gram B. one mole 86. How many atoms are there in 0.40 mole of silver? 23
A. 108 atoms B. 1.8 x 10 atoms C. one liter C. 2.4 x 10 atoms 23
87. How many moles in 2.0 grams of Neon? Molar Mass of Ne = 20.0 g A. 0.25 mol B. 0.50 mol C. 0.10 mol 88.How many grams are there in 0.30 mole of calcium, Ca? Molar Mass of Ca = 40.0 g A. 12.0 grams B. 16.0 grams C. 40.0 grams 89.How many moles are there in 66 grams of CO2? Molar Mass of C = 12.0 g, O = 16.0 g A. 2.5 moles B. 1.5 moles C. 4.0 moles 90.What is the mass of 0.5 mole of calcium nitrate, Ca(NO3)2? Molar Mass Ca = 40.0 g, N = 14.0 g, O = 16.0 g A. 82 g B. 102 g C. 164 g 91. The balanced equation P4(s) + 6H2(g) à 4PH3(g) tells us that 6 mol H2 A. reacts with 1 mol P4 B. produces 4 mol PH3 C. produces 2 mol PH3 92. An excess of Br2 and 4.0 mol Al of are reacted according to the equation 2Al + 3Br2 à 2AlBr3. How many moles of AlBr3 will be formed assuming 100% yield? A. 6.0 mol B. 4.0 mol C. 2.0 mol 93. In the reaction N2(g)+ 3H2(g)à 2NH3(g), how many moles of ammonia would be produced from 4.5 mol of hydrogen and excess nitrogen? A. 0.33 mol B. 0.67 mol C. 3.00 mol 94. Consider the reaction 2Fe(s) + 3O2(g) à Fe2O3(s) If 12.5 g of iron(III) oxide (rust) is produced from 8.74 g of iron, how many grams of oxygen are needed for this reaction? A. 8.74 g B. 12.5 g C. 7.5 g 95. When 1.0 mol of Fe reacts with Cl2 according to the equation 2Fe + 3Cl2 à 2FeCl3 how many moles of Cl2 are required to react with all the iron? A. 0.67 mol B. 1.5 mol C. 3.0 mol 96. For the reaction CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) à CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l), solid CaCO3 is mixed with 51.6 g HCl. What number of grams of CO2 will be produced? A. 69.4 g CO2 B. 15.0 g CO2 C. 31.1 g CO2 97. Consider the equation 2A + 3B à C. If 4.0 mol of A is reacted with 4.0 mol of B, which of the reactants is limiting? A. B is limiting because 4.0 mol A and 6.0 mol B are needed. B. A is limiting because 2 is smaller than 3 (the numbers refer to the coefficients in the balanced equation). C. B is limiting because 3 is larger than 2 (the numbers refer to the coefficients in the balanced equation). 98. The excess reactant in a reaction is: A. the reactant that is left over after the reaction has gone to completion B. the reactant which has the highest coefficient in a balanced equation C. the reactant for which there is the most amount in grams 99. The limiting reactant is the reactant: A. for which you have the lowest mass in grams B. that is used up after the reaction has gone to completion C. that has the lowest coefficient in the balanced equation 100. Calculate the theoretical yield of iron in the reaction of iron(III) oxide with 25.0 g of carbon, according to the equation: 2Fe2O3(s) + 3C(s) à 4Fe(s) + 3CO2(g) A. 88.1 g Fe B. 101 g Fe C. 155 g Fe 101. When NH3 is prepared from 28 g N2 and excess H2, the theoretical yield of NH3 is 34 g. When this reaction is carried out in a given experiment, only 30. g is produced. What is the percentage yield? N2 + 3H2 à 2NH3 A. 14% B. 82% C. 88% 102. Which set consists of only elements? A. Na, Ca, He B. H2O, KI, NaCl C. NaCl, CH4, H2 103. Which of the following formulas represents an ionic compound? A. CO B. CCl4 C. KCl 3+
2-­‐
104. What is the formula for the compound made up of the following ions Al and SO4 ? A. Al(SO4)2 B. AlSO4 C. Al2(SO4)3 105. A compound whose empirical formula is CH2 has a molar mass of 28. What is the molecular formula? Molar Mass H = 1.0 g, C = 12.0 g A. CH2 B. C2H4 C. CH4 106. A compound has a formula CaO. What is the percent composition of calcium in the compound? Molar Mass Ca = 40.0 g, O = 16.0 g A. 28.6 % B. 50.0 % C. 71.4 % 107. What is the empirical formula for a compound that is 75% carbon and 25% hydrogen by mass? Molar Mass C = 12.0 g, H = 1.0 g A. CH B. CH4 C. C3H 108. The correct name for LiCl is: A. monolithium chloride. B. monolithium monochloride. C. lithium chloride. 109. The correct name for CuO is: A. copper III oxide. B. copper oxide. C. copper II oxide. 110. The charge on a calcium ion in its ionic compound is: A. +2. B. various charges are possible. C. +1. 111. The symbol for the potassium ion is: A. K+1. B. K. C. P+1. 112. Zirconium IV oxide has the formula: A. Zr4O2. B. ZrO2. C. ZrO4. 113. The correct name for P2S5 is: A. phosphorus pentasulfide. B. phosphorus V sulfide. C. diphosphorus pentasulfide. 114. The binary compound NI3 is called: A. nitrogen iodide. B. mononitrogen triodide. C. nitrogen triodide. 115. The formula for calcium hydrogen carbonate is: A. CaC2. B. Ca(CO3)2. C. Ca(HCO3)2. 116. The name of the compound Co(NO3)2 is: A. cobalt II nitrate. B. cobalt II dinitrate. C. cobalt nitrate. 117. The correct formula for ammonium nitrate is: A. (NH4)2NO3. B. NH3(NO3)2. 118. The substance ClO3 –1 is best described as: A. a mixture. B. a molecule. C. a polyatomic ion. C. NH4NO3. 119. The formula for the compound formed from the polyatomic ions NH4+1 and PO3 –3 is: A. (NH4)3PO4. B. NH4PO4. C. NH4(PO4)3. 120. The formula for the compound formed from ammonium and sulfate ions is: A. NH4SO4. B. NH4(SO4)2. C. (NH4)2SO4. 121. The correct name for Cu2O is: A. copper oxide. B. dicopper oxide. C. copper I oxide. 122. Which of the following compounds is not named an acid? A. HCN. B. NH3. C. HNO3. 123. What is the formula for sulfur hexafluoride? A. SF4 B. SF6 C. S6F 124.The formula for magnesium fluoride is: A. MgF B. MgF2 C. Mg2F 125.What is the name of the compound Fe(OH)3? A. iron hydroxide B. iron trihydrooxide C. iron(III) hydroxide 126.What is the name of the compound, SO3? A. sulfur oxide B. sulfur trioxide C. monosulfur trioxide 127.What is the formula of diphosphorous pentoxide? A. PO5 B. P2O5 C. P5O2 128.What is the name of the compound, HCl? A. hydrochloric acid B. chlorous acid C. chloric acid 129. Which of the following is a clue that a chemical reaction has taken place? A. the reactant appears to disappear B. a solid forms C. the reactant is smaller QUESTIONS 130 – 137 -­‐ When the following equations are balanced using the smallest possible integers, what is the coefficient (number in front) of the underlined substance in each case? 130. C3H8(g) + O2(g) à CO2(g) + H2O(g) A. 5 B. 4 C. 2 131. Mg(s) + HCl(aq) à MgCl2(aq) + H2(g) A. 2 B. 4 C. 1 132. H3PO4(aq) + Ca(OH)2(aq) à Ca3(PO4)2(aq) + H2O(l) A. 3 B. 6 C. 4 133. Na(s) + H2O(l) à NaOH(aq) + H2(g) A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 134. MgO(s) à Mg(s) + O2(g) A. 1 B. 3 C. 2 135. Al(s) + O2(g) à Al2O3(s) A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 136. HCl(aq) + Mg(OH)2(aq) à MgCl2(aq) + H2O(l) A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 137. SO2(g) + O2(g) à SO3(g) A. 3 B. 1 C. 2 138. In the reaction Al2S3(s) + 6HCl(aq) à 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2S(g), how many moles of HCl are used for each mole of AlCl3 formed? A. 0 B. 2 C. 3 139. In the reaction, 2Na(s) + Cl2(g) à 2NaCl(s) Chlorine is a A. product B. solid C. compound D. gas 140. In the chemical equation, CaCO3(s) à CaO(s) + CO2(g) CaCO3 is a A. gas B. product C. liquid D. reactant 141. Which property is always conserved during a chemical reaction? A. color B. mass C. volume D. density 142. In a balanced equation the coefficients in front of each chemical signify the: A. mass of each compound taking part B. number of atoms in each compound C. number of moles of each compound taking part D. size of the molecule 143. Consider the unbalanced equation: N2 + H2 à NH3 Which set of coefficients correctly balances the equation? A. 1, 1, 2 B. 1, 3, 3 C. 1, 3, 2 D. 3, 2, 1 144. When this equation is balanced, what is the coefficient for O2? C3H8 + O2 à CO2 + H2O A. 5 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1 145. In an oxidation-­‐reduction reaction the following are always transferred: A. electrons B. protons C. oxygen atoms D. neutrons 146. Classify the following reaction from the options available: ZnBr2 (aq) + 2AgNO3 (aq) ―> Zn(NO3)2 (aq) + 2AgBr(s) A. acid-­‐base B. precipitation C. combustion D. decomposition 147. Classify the following reaction from the options available: HNO3 (aq) + NaOH (aq) ―> H2O (l) + NaNO3 (aq) A. oxidation-­‐reduction B. precipitation C. combustion D. acid-­‐base 148. Classify the following reaction from the options available: Zn (s) + 2HCl (aq) ―> H2 (g) + ZnCl2 (aq) A. oxidation-­‐reduction B. precipitation C. synthesis D. acid-­‐base 149. Classify the following reaction from the options available: 2HgO (s) ―> 2Hg (l) + O2 (g) A. oxidation-­‐reduction B. precipitation C. synthesis D. acid-­‐base 150. Classify the following reaction from the options available: C (s) + O2 (g) ―> CO2 (g) + a flame A. acid-­‐base B. precipitation C. combustion D. single-­‐replacement 151. Classify the following reaction from the options available: 2Cs (s) + F2 (g) ―> 2CsF (s) A. decomposition B. synthesis C. precipitation D. acid-­‐base 152. A “mole ratio” can be used, without other information, to convert the moles of a reactant to the number of: A. grams of the reactant C. atoms of the reactant B. liters of a gaseous product D. moles of a product 153. If 6.0 moles of Br2 and an excess of Al are reacted according to the balanced equation: 2Al (s) + 3Br2 (g) ―> 2AlBr3 (g) How many moles of AlBr3 are produced? A. 6.0 B. 4.0 C. 2.0 D. 3.0 154. The rusting of iron is represented by the equation: 4Fe (s) + 3O2 (g) ―> 2Fe2O3 (s) If you start with 84g of iron how many grams of Fe2O3 will be produced when all the iron has rusted? A. 120 B. 80 C. 240 D. 319 155. Bearing in mind the concept of limiting reactants, if 1 mole of oxygen, O2, is mixed with 6 moles of hydrogen, H2, and reacts to form water, 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) ―> 2H2O (l) the result is: A. 22g water C. 2 moles water and some unreacted hydrogen B. 7g water D. 2 moles water and some unreacted oxygen 156. In a reaction the theoretical yield is 34g but only 30g is actually produced. What is the percentage yield? A. 14% B. 82% C. 4% D. 88% 157. A 4.0 mole sample of KClO3 is decomposed according to the equation: 2 KClO3 (s) ―> 2KCl (s) + 3O2 (g) How many moles of O2 are produced if the yield is 50%? A. 3.0 B. 4.5 C. 2.0 D. 2.5 158. Energy due to position is called A. heat energy B. kinetic energy C. potential energy 159. Energy due to motion is called A. kinetic energy B. heat energy C. potential energy 160. According to the law of conservation of energy A. energy cannot be converted from one form to another B. the energy of the universe is constant C. the amount of energy created is equal to the amount of energy destroyed 161. As a ball rolls down a hill, the potential energy ? and the kinetic energy ? . A. increases; decreases B. increases; increases C. decreases; increases 162. Which of the following is a measure of the random motions of the components of a substance? A. energy B. frictional heating C. temperature 163. The flow of energy due to a temperature difference is called A. energy B. heat transfer C. temperature 164. Which of the following is exothermic? A. The melting of a solid. B . The condensation of a gas. C. Rolling a ball up a hill. 165. In an exothermic reaction, energy flows A. out of the universe B. into the system C. into the surroundings 166. In an endothermic reaction, energy flows A. into the system. B. into the surroundings. C. into the universe. 167. When heat flows into the system, the sign of heat is A. positive B. The sign of heat depends on the process. C. negative 168. When heat flows out of the system, the sign of heat is A. positive B. The sign of heat depends on the process. C. negative 169. The amount of energy needed to cause a temperature change of 30.0 °C for 2.00 g of carbon is 42.6 J. The specific heat capacity of this sample of carbon is A. 2556 J/g °C B. 1.42 J/g °C C. 0.710 J/g °C 170. The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of 1 g of a substance by 1°C is defined as A. a calorie B. a joule C. specific heat capacity 171. The device used to determine the heat associated with a chemical reaction is called A. heatometer B. barometer C. calorimeter 172. The measure of disorder or randomness in the universe is termed A. enthalpy B. heat C. entropy 173. The second law of thermodynamics tells us that A. the energy of the universe is constant B. the entropy of the universe is always increasing C. ΔE = q + w 174. According to the Law of Conservation of Energy, in a chemical reaction: A. energy cannot be converted from one form to another B. the energy of the universe remains constant C. the amount of energy created is equal to the amount of energy destroyed D. potential energy is neither created nor destroyed 175. Energy is measured in A. degrees B. grams C. joules D. milliliters 176. A reaction that releases heat to the surroundings is described as being _______ and has a sign for ΔH that is __________, A. exothermic, negative C. endothermic, positive B. exothermic, positive D. endothermic, negative 177. The specific heat capacity of a sample of carbon is 0.70 J/goC. How much heat would be required to raise the temperature of 2g of carbon from 50oC to 80oC? A. 42 joules B. 30 joules C. 42 calories D. 30 oC 178. When 1 mole of ethylene (C2H4) is burned at constant pressure 1410 kJ of energy is released as heat. Calculate ΔH when 3.2 mole of ethylene is burned at constant pressure: A. -­‐441kJ B. 4512kJ C. 441kJ D. -­‐4512kJ 179. The measure of disorder or randomness in a system is: A. enthalpy B. heat C. work D. entropy 180. The distance between two successive peaks or troughs in a wave is called A. the frequency B. the wavelength C. the amplitude 181 The ? indicates the number of waves that pass a given point per second. A. speed B. wavelength C. frequency 182. The ? indicates how fast a given peak of a wave moves through space. A. wavelength B. speed C. frequency 183. Which color of visible light has the most energy per photon? A. blue B. red C. violet 184. Which color of visible light has the least amount of energy per photon? A. green B. violet C. red 185. The lowest possible energy state of an atom is called its ? state. A. ground B. excited C. neutral 186. The probability map for an electron is called A. a photon B. an orbital C. an electron configuration 187. As the principal energy level increases in an atom's orbitals, the average distance of an electron energy level from the nucleus ? . A. decreases B. stays the same C. increases 188. The shape of an s orbital is A. spherical B. dumbbell shaped C. conical shaped 189. A given set of p orbitals consists of ? orbital(s). A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 190. The maximum number of electrons allowed in each of the p orbitals is A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 191. The maximum electron capacity of an f sublevel is A. 6 B. 14 C. 18 192. A d sublevel can hold a maximum of A. 5 electrons B. 10 electrons C. 14 electrons 193. The maximum number of electrons allowed in the p sublevel of the third principal level is A. 1 B. 3 C. 6 194. The maximum number of electrons allowed in the fourth energy level is A. 2 B. 8 C. 32 195. Which of the following is an incorrect designation for an atomic orbital? A. 1s B. 1p C. 3d 196. The number of p orbitals in the fourth principal energy level is A. 3 B. 6 C. 8 197. Sodium has how many electrons in its outermost principal energy level? A. 1 B. 8 C. 11 198. The number of unpaired electrons in an oxygen atom is A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 199. The electron configuration for the phosphorus atom is A. 1s22s22p63s5 B. 1s22s22p63s23p3 C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s1 200. The electron configuration for the carbon atom is A. [Ne]2s22p2 B. 1s22s22p2 C. [He]2s4 201. 1s22s22p63s23p2 is the correct electron configuration for which of the following atoms? A. C B. Si C. Al 202. The halogens (Group 17 or 7A) contain how many valence electrons? A. 1 B. 7 C. 8 203. The elements chlorine and iodine have similar chemical properties because they A. have the same number of electrons in their outer energy levels B. are in the same chemical period C. have the same number of stable isotopes 204. The alkali metals (Group 1) have how many valence electrons? A. 1 B. 7 C. 8 205. Which of the following is the highest energy orbital for a silicon atom? A. 3s B. 3p C. 3d 206. How many electrons are in the third principal energy level (n= 3) of one atom of Fe? A. 2 B. 8 C. 16 207. The noble gases contain how many valence electrons? A. 1 B. 7 C. 8 208. All these atoms have seven electrons in their outermost energy levels except A. Cl B. Br C. H 209. Which element has the largest number of electrons in its valence shell? A. S B. F C. Fr 210. How many d electrons are there in a vanadium atom? A. 3 B. 5 C. 23 211. When moving down a group (family) in the periodic table, the number of valence electrons A. remains constant B. increases by 2, 8, 18 and finally 32 C. decreases regularly 212. The Group 3 elements through the Group 8 elements form an area of the periodic table where the electron sublevels being filled are A. p and d orbitals B. p orbitals C. s and p orbitals 213. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d7 is the electron configuration for which of the following atoms? A. Ca B. Ar C. Co 214. The correct electron configuration for Mn is A. 1s22s22p63s23p63d7 B. 1s22s22p62d103s23p3 C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d5 215. The noble gas electron configuration for manganese is A. [Ar]3d7 B. [Ar]4s23d5 C. [Ar]4s24p5 216. Which of the following has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s2? A. Cr B. Mn C. Ca 217. Which of the following atoms has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s1? A. Ca B. K C. Sc 218. Which electron configuration indicates a transition element? A. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p2 B. 1s22s22p63s13p6 C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d3 219. The element with the electron configuration [Kr]5s24d105p3 is A. Nb B. Sb C. As 220. What element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10? A. Cu B. Ag C. Zn 221. What element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d8? A. Pd B. Zn C. Ni 222. What element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1? A. Ca B. K C. Sc 223. What element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p5? A. I B. Kr C. Br 224. What element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p3? A. N B. Al C. P 225. What element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d105p66s2? A. Pb B. Ba C. Sn 226. Which of the following atoms has the largest atomic radius? A. C B. Na C. Si 227. Which of the following atoms has the highest ionization energy? A. P B. Mg C. Cl 228. Which of the following has the smallest atomic radius? A. F B. N C. S 229. Which of the following atoms has the highest ionization energy? A. Sb B. P C. As 230. Metal atoms tend to ? electrons and form ? ions. A. lose; negative B. gain; positive C. lose; positive 231. Which of the following properties generally increases as we go from the lower left to the upper right of the periodic table? A. atomic number B. ionization energy C. atomic size 232. The number of waves that pass through a certain point in a given period of time is the: A. energy of the wave C. frequency of the wave. B. length of the wave D. speed of the wave. 233. Hydrogen atoms produce characteristic spectral lines when their electrons A. orbit the nucleus in a single energy level. B. move faster in their normal energy levels. C. move from higher energy levels to lower energy levels. D. move slower in their normal energy levels. 234. Which of the following quantum designations has the lowest energy (is closest to the nucleus)? A. 2s B. 3p C. 3s D. 4d 235. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy any given orbital? A. 8 B. 2 C. 1 D. 4 236. The number of valence electrons in the outermost energy level of a chlorine atom (atomic number 17) is? A. 7 B. 5 C. 3 D. 1 237. The correct representation of the electron configuration of an oxygen atom is: A. 1s2 2s2 2p4 B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 D. 1s2 2s2 238. Which species has the same electron configuration as the fluoride ion, F-­‐? A. Cl-­‐ B. Na C. O D. Ne 239. In the Periodic Table, the noble gases are found A. on the upper left side C. in the middle B. on the lower left side D. on the far right side 240. Which of the following orbital designations does not exist? A. 2p B. 3s C. 4d D. 1f 241. The electronegativity value of an element is a measure of the atoms ability to: A. attract electrons C. attract protons B. conduct electrons D. remain stable 242. Which element of Row 2 would most likely gain an electron in a reaction? A. Li B. B C. Na D. F 243. The elements with very low ionization energies A. are unreactive C. gain electrons readily B. form negative ions D. lose electrons readily 244. When nonmetallic atoms combine with other nonmetallic atoms, the bond that is formed is ? and electrons are ? . A. ionic, shared B. ionic, transferred C. covalent, shared D. covalent, transferred 245.In order for ions to bond to each other in a compound, they must have A. opposite charges B. the same size C. different sizes D. the same charges 246.The number of valence electrons that an atom needs to be most stable is generally considered to be: A. 6 B. 8 C. 18 D. 32 247. When electrons are shared unequally, chemists characterize these types of bonds as A. polar covalent B. ionic C. pure covalent 248. Chemical bonds formed by the attraction of oppositely charged ions are called A. ionic bonds B. magnetic bonds C. covalent bonds 249. Atoms with greatly differing electronegativity values are expected to form A. nonpolar covalent bonds B. ionic bonds C. no bonds 250. Metals typically have ? electronegativity values. A. negative B. no C. low 251. Nonmetal elements typically have ? electronegativities. A. neutral B. low C. high 252. The electron pair in a C-­‐-­‐F bond could be considered A. closer to F because fluorine has a higher electronegativity than carbon B. an inadequate model because the bond is ionic C. closer to C because carbon has a larger radius and thus exerts greater control over the shared electron pair 253. Which of the following bonds would be the most polar without being considered ionic? A. O—O B. Mg—O C. Si—O Use the following choices to classify each of the following molecules. A. ionic B. covalent ____ 254. N2O ____ 255. Al2O3 ____ 256. Na2S ____ 257. H2O2 Use the following choices to classify the bonds in each of the following molecules. A. nonpolar B. polar ____ 258. CF4 ____ 259. H2S ____ 260. I2 261. Which of the following compounds contains an ionic bond? A. CCl4 B. NaCl C. HCl(g) 262. Which of the following compounds contains one or more covalent bonds? A. BaBr2 B. Cs2O C. CO2 263. Which of these is not an ionic compound? A. NaSCN B. MgCl2 C. HCl 264. Which of the following has nonpolar bonds? A. Br2 B. H2S C. OF2 265. Which of the following has only nonpolar covalent bonds? A. N2 B. CO C. CCl4 266. The number of polar covalent bonds in NH3 is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 267. If atom X forms a diatomic molecule with itself, the bond is A. polar covalent B. nonpolar covalent C. ionic 268. Which of the following has ionic bonding? A. SO3 B. CS2 C. K2S 269. When a molecule has a center of positive charge and a center of negative charge, it is said to have a ? . A. magnetic attraction B. polyatomic ion C. dipole moment 270. One of the most important characteristics of the water molecule is its ? , which allows it to surround and attract both positive and negative ions. A. polarity B. strength C. fluidity 271. Which element or ion listed below has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p6? A. Ca2+ B. Cl C. Br1 – 272. Which element or ion listed below has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p6? A. both of these B. Se C. Ca2+ 273. Which element or ion listed below has the electron configuration 1s22s22p6? A. Al3+ B. F1 – C. Both A and B 274. A phosphorus atom needs to gain ? electrons to achieve a noble gas configuration. A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 275. Which of the following has the largest radius? A. S2 – B. K1+ C. Cl1 – 276. Which of the following has the smallest radius? A. Cl1 – B. K1+ C. S2 – 277. Which of the following ions has the same electron configuration as an argon atom? A. S3 – B. Br1 – C. K1+ 278. The electron configuration for the bromide ion is identical to that of A. Br B. I1 – C. Kr 279. The electron configuration for Ca2+ is identical to A. Kr B. Ar C. Ne 280. Magnesium reacts with sulfur to form A. Mg2S B. Mg2S3 C. MgS 281. Calcium reacts with fluorine to form A. CaF2 B. Ca2F C. CaF 282. When they react chemically, the alkali metals (Group 1) A. gain one electron B. gain or lose seven electrons C. lose one electron Use the following choices to describe the molecular structure of each of the following molecules or ions. A. linear B. trigonal planar C. tetrahedral D. trigonal pyramidal E. Bent or V-­‐shaped ____ 283. NH3 ____ 284. SiO2 ____ 285. H2O ____ 286. CH4 287. Which of the following is an acceptable Lewis dot structure for oxygen (O2)? A. O : O B. :O :: O: C. :Ö :: Ö: D. :O :::: O: 288. Which of the following is a polar molecule? A. CCl4 B. HF C. Br2 D. N2 289. A double bond in a molecule consists of ? pair(s) of shared electrons A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 290. Which molecule contains a triple bond? A. Br2 B. O2 C. H2 D. N2 291. The shape of a molecule with a central atom surrounded by three bonding pairs and one lone pair of electrons is: A. linear B. trigonal pyramid C. tetrahedral D. bent 292. Which of the following molecules has a bent shape? A. CCl4 B. Br2 C. NH3 D. H2S FREE RESPONSE TOPICS 1. States of Matter 2. Atomic Structure 3. Molecular Shapes 4. Electron Configuration and Atomic Trends 5. Stoichiometry and Enthalpy Change