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Transcript
22 responses
SUMMARY
INDIVIDUAL
BIO114 LECTURE EXAM #3 SP 2016
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BIO114 LECTURE EXAM #3 SP 2016
NAME : LAST, FIRST
GANNON, PATRICK
Large airborne particles are ltered by
A) the external olfactory meatuses.
B) the soft palate.
C) nasal hairs in the vestibule of the nose.
D) the nasal sinuses.
E) the nasopharynx.
Air entering the body is ltered, warmed, and humidi ed by
A) the upper respiratory tract.
B) the lower respiratory tract.
C) the lungs.
D) the alveoli.
E) all of the above
Surfactant
A) protects the surface of the lungs.
B) phagocytizes small particulates.
C) replaces mucus in the alveoli.
D) helps prevent the alveoli from collapsing.
E) is not found in healthy lung tissue.
The function of the nasal conchae is
A) to divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side.
B) to provide an opening into the pharynx.
C) to provide a surface for the sense of smell.
D) to create turbulence in the air to trap small particulates in mucus.
E) to provide an opening to the outside of the body.
The openings to the nostrils are the
A) external nares.
B) internal nares.
C) vestibules.
D) turbinates.
E) palates.
The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) vestibule.
E) internal pharynx.
The common passageway shared by the respiratory and
digestive systems is the
A) larynx.
B) glottis.
C) vestibule.
D) pharynx.
E) trachea.
The hard palate separates
A) the nasal cavity from the larynx.
B) the left and right sides of the nasal cavity.
C) the nasal cavity and the oral cavity.
D) the external nares from the internal nares.
E) the soft palate from the nasal cavity.
The vocal folds are located in the
B) oropharynx.
A) nasopharynx.
C) larynx.
D) trachea.
E) bronchi.
The elastic cartilage that shields the opening to the larynx during
swallowing is the
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) cricoid cartilage.
C) corniculate cartilage.
D) cuneiform cartilage.
E) epiglottic cartilage
The trachea
A) is lined by pseudostrati ed ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages.
C) contains many mucous glands.
D) can alter its diameter when stimulated by the autonomic nervous system.
E) is characterized by all of the above.
Secondary bronchi supply air to the
A) lungs. .
B) lobes of the lungs
C) lobules of the lungs.
D) alveoli.
E) alveolar ducts.
The respiratory membrane consists primarily of
A) pseudostrati ed ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) moist cuboidal epithelium.
C) simple squamous epithelium.
D) ciliated squamous epithelium.
E) surfactant cells.
The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
A) bronchioles.
B) alveolar ducts.
C) pleural spaces.
D) alveoli.
E) terminal sacs.
General functions of the lymphatic system include
A) uid and nutrient transport
B) lymphocyte development
C) the immune response
D) all of the above
How much excess interstitial uid must the lymphatic system
return to the bloodstream each day?
A) less than 500 milliliters
B) up to 1 liter
C) about 3 liters
D) between 4 and 5 liters
Which selection includes all the major components of the
lymphatic system?
A) lymphatic cells and structures, lymph, and lymph vessels
B) thoracic duct, right lymphatic duct, and lymph
C) lymphocytes, lymph, and lymph nodes
D) spleen, thymus, and tonsils
A systematic defense against antigens, initiated by lymphatic
cells, is called
A) a cross-reaction
B) in ammation
C) septicemia
D) an immune response
All of the following are types of T-lymphocytes EXCEPT
A) helper
B) plasma
C) suppressor
D) memory
Helper T-lymphocytes secrete chemical signals called
____________ that bind to receptors on other lymphatic cells and
activate them.
A) coreceptors
B) antibodies
C) immunoglobulins
D) cytokines
Each type of T-lymphocyte has a particular ____________ in its
plasma membrane that recognizes a speci c antigen.
A) surface antibody
B) coreceptor
C) alpha-receptor
D) beta-receptor
Plasma cells produce and secrete
A) antibodies
B) antigens
C) cytokines
D) alpha-globulins
Large groups of lymphatic nodules in the mucosa of the
gastrointestinal, respiratory, genital, and urinary tracts are
collectively called
A) MALT
B) Peyer patches
C) germinal centers
D) mucosal lymph nodes
What occurs in the thymus?
A) production of large quantities of antibodies
B) activation of the immune response by circulating antigens
C) T-lymphocyte maturation and differentiation
D) all of the above
Antibodies are
A) plasma cells
B) B-lymphocytes
C) T-lymphocytes
D) gamma globulin proteins
The function of interferons is to
A) break down bacterial cell walls
B) fragment bacterial DNA
C) opsonize microbes
D) prevent viral replication
The process of coating a microbe with antibodies to make it
more susceptible to phagocytosis is
A) chemotaxis
B) opsonization
C) cloning
D) anergy
The antibodies involved in allergic reactions
A) are called allergens
B) are secreted by mast cells
C) belong to the IgE group
D) are produced by T-lymphocytes
The most abundant type of immunoglobulin is
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgG
D) IgD
In an autoimmune disease, the immune response is directed
toward
A) foreign antigens
B) self-antigens
C) antibodies
D) viruses
An antigen is ______, whereas an antibody is_______.
A) a foreign substance such as a protein or polysaccharide to which
lymphocytes respond; a globular protein that reacts with antigens to
eliminate them
B) an immunoglobulin that is produced by lymph nodes in response to
bacteria; a foreign protein that enters the body and causes an immune
reaction
C) a hapten molecule that is quite complicated in shape; an enzyme that is
produced by the thymus gland to neutralize antigens
D) produced by T-cells; produced by B-cells
A primary immune response is ________, and a secondary
immune response is ________.
A) very important; of less importance
B) the primary source of immunity; a back-up form of immunity in case the
primary response fails
C) production of antibodies after the body's initial exposure to an antigen;
the rapid production of large quantities of antibodies after subsequent
exposure to the antigen
D) activation of the complement; production of antibodies
In cell-mediated immunity, the antigen is destroyed by
A) killer T-cells
B) mast cells
C) B-cells
D) antibodies
Cytotoxic T-cells recognize antigens combined with
A) interleukin-1
B) CD8
C) MHC-I antigens
D) MHC-II antigens
Cytotoxic T-cells destroy their target cells by releasing a
substance that affects
A) cell membranes
B) lysosomes
C) ribosomes
D) DNA molecules
A vaccine produces its effects by
A) directly attacking the antigens and neutralizing them
B) opsonization
C) stimulating a primary immune response
D) causing cell lysis
The type of resistance that is acquired as a result of developing
and recovering from a disease is
A) naturally acquired active immunity
B) arti cially acquired active immunity
C) arti cially acquired passive immunity
D) naturally acquired passive immunity
The structure of a lymph node can be described as
A) being divided into compartments that contain masses of lymphocytes
and macrophages
B) afferent vessels circulating lymph into the node on its convex surface
C) efferent vessels circulating lymph out of the node at its hilus
D) all of the above
Complement proteins
are found in blood plasma.
are present in infected cells.
are produced by T-cells.
are produced by B-cells.
All of the following are symptoms of in ammation EXCEPT
pain
redness
fever
swelling
The rst line of defense against disease-causing organisms is
cell-based immunity.
production of antibodies.
in ammation.
the intact skin.
Air moves into the lungs because
A) the gas pressure in the lungs is less than outside pressure.
B) the volume of the lungs decreases with inspiration.
C) the thorax is muscular.
D) contraction of the diaphragm decreases the volume of the pleural cavity.
E) of all of the above.
Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the
A) scalenes.
B) diaphragm.
C) internal intercostals.
D) external intercostals.
E) serratus anterior.
When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract
A) the volume of the thoracic cavity increases.
B) the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.
C) the volume of the lungs decreases.
D) the lungs collapse.
E) expiration occurs.
Pulmonary ventilation refers to
A) the movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) the movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
C) the movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space.
D) the movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells.
E) the utilization of oxygen
Alveolar ventilation refers to
A) the movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) the movement of air into and out of the alveoli.
C) the movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
D) the movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.
E) the utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism
The function of pulmonary ventilation is to
A) remove carbon dioxide from the lymph.
B) supply nitrogen to the blood.
C) maintain an adequate alveolar ventilation.
D) remove air from dead air space.
E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles.
Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is
A) dissolved in plasma.
B) bound to hemoglobin.
C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma.
D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide.
E) carried by white blood cells.
Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
A) solute dissolved in the plasma
B) carbaminohemoglobin.
C) bicarbonate ions.
D) solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells.
E) carbonic acid.
The most important chemical regulator of respiration is
A) oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) bicarbonate ion.
D) sodium ion.
E) hemoglobin.
Functions of the nose include
A) ltering the air.
B) warming the air.
C) humidifying the air.
D) acting as a resonating chamber in speech.
E) all of the above.
The function of the nasal conchae is to
A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side.
B) provide an opening into the pharynx.
C) provide a surface for the sense of smell.
D) create turbulence in the air to trap small particulates in mucus.
E) provide an opening to the outside of the body.
The walls of bronchioles are dominated by ________, whose
activity is regulated by the autonomic nervous system.
A) C rings of hyaline cartilage
B) elastic cartilage
C) skeletal muscle
D) a mix of cartilage plates and smooth muscle
E) smooth muscle
The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
A) bronchioles.
B) alveolar ducts.
C) pleural spaces.
D) alveoli.
E) capillary beds.
The volume of air that can be forcefully inhaled over and above
tidal volume is called ________.
A) expiratory reserve volume
B) residual volume
C) minimal volume
D) inspiratory reserve volume
E) vital capacity
During exhalation,
A) pressure inside the lungs is less than the outside pressure.
B) pressure within the thoracic cavity decreases.
C) inside and outside pressures are equal.
D) the volume of the thoracic cavity increases.
E) the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.
Centers in which of the following adjust the respiratory rate and
depth of respiration in response to sensory stimuli, emotional
states, or speech patterns?
A) midbrain
B) cerebellum
C) cerebrum
D) spinal cord
E) pons
Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive
tract except one. Identify the exception.
A) stomach
B) pharynx
C) esophagus
D) spleen
E) colon
Digestion refers to the
A) progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.
B) input of food into the digestive tract.
C) chemical breakdown of food.
D) absorption of nutrients in the gut.
E) mixing of nutrients with digestive enzymes.
Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?
A) stomach
B) pancreas
C) spleen
D) colon
E) esophagus
Which of the following is NOT a digestive function?
A) mechanical processing
B) absorption
C) compaction
D) ingestion
E) ltration
Contraction of the __________ layer of the intestinal wall functions
to change the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves food
through its length.
A) mucosa
B) submucosa
C) serosa
D) muscularis
E) adventitia
The __________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that
hold some of the visceral organs in their proper position.
A) serosa
B) adventitia
C) mesenteries
D) brosa
E) muscularis
Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the
digestive tract from one point to another are called
A) segmentations.
B) pendulum movements.
C) peristalsis.
D) churning movements.
E) mastications.
Regional movements that occur in the small intestine and
function to churn and fragment the digestive materials are called
A) segmentation.
B) pendulum movements.
C) peristalsis.
D) A churning movements.
E) mastication.
__________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity.
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) Five
Functions of the tongue include
A) mechanical processing of food.
B) manipulation of food.
C) sensory analysis of food.
D) A and B only.
E) all of the above.
The __________ are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or
chopping.
A) wisdom teeth
B) incisors
C) bicuspids
D) cuspids
E) molars
The __________ are teeth with attened crowns and prominent
ridges that are adapted for grinding.
A) molars
B) cuspids
C) eye teeth
D) canines
E) bicuspids
The esophagus
A) extends from the oropharynx to the stomach.
B) is a muscular tube.
C) functions in digestion of carbohydrates.
D) has a thick lining that will tolerate stomach acid.
E) exhibits all of the above.
Parietal cells secrete
A) pepsin.
B) gastrin.
C) mucus.
D) hydrochloric acid.
E) all of the above.
The portion of the stomach that connects to the esophagus is
the
A) fundus.
B) cardia.
C) body.
D) antrum.
E) pylorus
The prominent ridges in the lining of the stomach are called
A) papillae.
B) cardia.
C) rugae.
D) plicae.
E) valvulae.
The enzyme pepsin digests
A) carbohydrates.
B) proteins.
C) lipids.
D) nucleic acids.
E) vitamins.
Plicae and intestinal villi
A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine.
B) carry products of digestion that will not pass through the walls of blood
capillaries.
C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine.
D) secrete digestive enzymes.
E) produce hormones.
The most striking aspect of intestinal histology is
A) the large number of mucus-producing goblet cells.
B) the complexity of the enzyme-secreting cells.
C) the large number of endocrine cells.
D) the adaptation for increasing absorptive area.
E) the variety of the cells lining the mucosa.
The portion of the small intestine that is attached to the pylorus
of the stomach is the
A) ileum.
B) colon.
C) cecum.
D) jejunum.
E) duodenum
The middle portion of the small intestine is the
A) ileum.
B) duodenum.
C) jejunum.
D) pylorus.
E) cecum.
An intestinal hormone that stimulates the gall bladder to release
bile is
A) enterokinase.
B) secretin.
C) cholecystokinin
D) GIP.
E) gastrin
Bile salts break lipid droplets apart in a process called ________.
A) absorption
B) emulsi cation
C) bile storage
D) bile synthesis
E) secretion
The basic functional units of the liver are the
A) hepatocytes.
B) liver cells.
C) lobules.
D) portal areas.
E) bile canaliculi.
________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of
irregular,one-cell-thick plates radiating outward.
A) Portal cells
B) Hepatocytes
C) Bile canaliculi
D) Bile ducts
E) Hepatic ducts
Synthesis of plasma proteins is a major function of the
A) gallbladder.
B) duodenum.
C) pancreas
D) stomach.
E) liver
The hormone secretin functions to
A) convert trypsinogen into trypsin.
B) activate chymotrypsin.
C) stimulate the release of a secretion containing bicarbonate from the
pancreas.
D) stimulate the release of enzymes from the pancreas.
E) decrease the pH of chyme
A buffer, ________, helps to increase the pH of chyme
A) secretin
B) trypsin
C) sodium bicarbonate
D) bile salt
E) cholecystokinin
Pancreatic enzymes and buffers are secreted by which of the
following?
A)chief cells
B) alpha cells
C) lobules
D) acinar cells
E) beta cells
________ enable the immune system to launch a faster, stronger
responseto a previously encountered antigen
A) Plasma cells C) Helper T cells
B) Memory cells
C) Helper T cells
D) NK cells
E) Pathogenic cells
During a typical immune response, activated B cells mature into
cells that produce ________, which bind(s) to and attack(s) foreign
invaders.
A) antigens
B) perforins
C) antibodies
D) heparin
E) complement proteins
________ exists when the immune system does not respond to
normaltissues and their antigens
A) Versatility
B) Tolerance
C) Memory
D) Speci city
E) Active immunity
A child develops symptoms of chicken pox, produces antibodies
against its speci c antigens, and recovers from the illness. Later
as an adult, he is immune to another exposure to the chicken pox
virus. This is an example of which type of immunity?
A) arti cially induced active immunity
B) naturally acquired passive immunity
C)arti cially induced passive immunity
D) innate (nonspeci c) immunity
E) naturally acquired active immunity
________ develop(s) when the immune response mistakenly
targets normal body cells and tissues.
A) Autoimmune disorders
B) Immediate hypersensitivity
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Immunode ciency diseases
E) Immune complex disorders
The increased incidence of cancer in the elderly re ects the fact
that
A)immune surveillance increases.
B) tumor cells are eliminated effectively.
C) their diets do not meet nutritional standards.
D) everyone is prone to disease.
E) immune surveillance declines with age.
The ability of certain phagocytes to move through the wall of a
capillary is called
A) in ammation
B) diapedesis
C) chemotaxis
D) necrosis
E) immunological escape
Other :
A foreign microorganism that may cause disease in humans is
called a(n)
A)pathogen.
B) antigen.
C) antibody.
D) pathology.
E) plaque.
Which cells have a primary role in cell-mediated immunity?
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) NK cells
D) antigens
E) plasma cells
Which property of immunity exists when the plasma membrane
of each T cell and B cell has receptors that will bind only one
particular type of antigen, ignoring all other types of antigens?
A) speci city
B) memory
C) versatility
D) tolerance
E) innate immunity
What is the function of IgG antibodies?
A)They attack pathogens before they enter the body tissues.
B) They play a role in the activation of B cells.
C) They are responsible for defense against many viruses, bacteria, and
bacterial toxins.
D) They accelerate in ammation upon exposure to antigens.
E) They are responsible for cross reactions between incompatible blood
types.
The clumping of red blood cells, which occurs when incompatible
blood types are mixed, is an example of ________.
A) agglutination
B) opsonization
C) sensitization
D) precipitation
E) immunological surveillance
IgG antibodies
A) are found in glandular secretions.
B) bind antigens in the extracellular uid to B cells.
C) stimulate the release of histamine and other in ammatory chemicals.
D) are the rst antibody type secreted, following initial exposure to an
antigen.
E) can also cross the placenta and provide passive immunity to the fetus.
The palatine tonsils lie in the lateral walls of the ________.
A) oropharynx
B) nasal vestibule
C) larynx
D) esophagus
E) laryngopharynx
The trachea
A) is lined by dense regular connective tissue.
B) is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages.
C) contains the vocal cords.
D) always maintains the same diameter.
E) ends distally at the level of the diaphragm
The following is a list of some of the structures of the respiratory
tree: 1 -secondary bronchi 2 - tertiary bronchi 3 - bronchioles 4 primary bronchi The order in which air passes through these
structures beginning at the trachea is
A) 4-1-2-3.
B) 3-2-1-4.
C) 2-3-1-4.
D) 4-1-3-2.
E) 1-2-3-4.
The force that causes air to move into the lungs during
inspiration is supplied
A) the pterygoids.
B) the abdominal muscles.
C) internal intercostal muscles.
D) atmospheric pressure.
E) the digastric muscles.
When at rest, the amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs
in a normal respiratory cycle is the
A) total lung capacity.
B) vital capacity.
C) tidal volume.
D) residual volume.
E) inspiratory volume.
The volume of air that can be forcefully inhaled over and above
tidal volume is called ________.
A) expiratory reserve volume
B) residual volume
C) minimal volume
D) inspiratory reserve volume
E) vital capacity
Which gastrointestinal hormone is released when the pH in the
duodenum falls as acidic chyme arrives from the stomach?
A) HCl
B) gastric inhibitory peptide
C) cholecystokinin
D) secretin
E) gastrin
Which pancreatic digestive enzymes digest starches?
A) carbohydrases
B) lipases
C) proteases
D) peptidases
E) nucleases
Functions of the large intestine include
A) chemical digestion of chyme.
B) temporary food storage.
C) reabsorption of water and compaction of feces.
D) absorption of the products of digestion.
E) hormone production.
Regarding the chemical events in digestion, which of the
following forms chylomicrons?
A) proteins
B) carbohydrates
C) lipids
D) nucleic acids
E) peptides
Chewing is called
A) segmentation.
B) pendulum movements.
C) peristalsis.
D) ingestion.
E) mastication.
The rst place in which mechanical processing of food takes
place is the
A) oral cavity.
B) esophagus.
C) stomach.
D) large intestine.
E) small intestine