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22 responses SUMMARY INDIVIDUAL BIO114 LECTURE EXAM #3 SP 2016 Message for respondents QUESTIONS Not accepting responses RESPONSES 22 This form is no longer accepting responses 1 of 22 BIO114 LECTURE EXAM #3 SP 2016 NAME : LAST, FIRST GANNON, PATRICK Large airborne particles are ltered by A) the external olfactory meatuses. B) the soft palate. C) nasal hairs in the vestibule of the nose. D) the nasal sinuses. E) the nasopharynx. Air entering the body is ltered, warmed, and humidi ed by A) the upper respiratory tract. B) the lower respiratory tract. C) the lungs. D) the alveoli. E) all of the above Surfactant A) protects the surface of the lungs. B) phagocytizes small particulates. C) replaces mucus in the alveoli. D) helps prevent the alveoli from collapsing. E) is not found in healthy lung tissue. The function of the nasal conchae is A) to divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side. B) to provide an opening into the pharynx. C) to provide a surface for the sense of smell. D) to create turbulence in the air to trap small particulates in mucus. E) to provide an opening to the outside of the body. The openings to the nostrils are the A) external nares. B) internal nares. C) vestibules. D) turbinates. E) palates. The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) laryngopharynx. D) vestibule. E) internal pharynx. The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the A) larynx. B) glottis. C) vestibule. D) pharynx. E) trachea. The hard palate separates A) the nasal cavity from the larynx. B) the left and right sides of the nasal cavity. C) the nasal cavity and the oral cavity. D) the external nares from the internal nares. E) the soft palate from the nasal cavity. The vocal folds are located in the B) oropharynx. A) nasopharynx. C) larynx. D) trachea. E) bronchi. The elastic cartilage that shields the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the A) thyroid cartilage. B) cricoid cartilage. C) corniculate cartilage. D) cuneiform cartilage. E) epiglottic cartilage The trachea A) is lined by pseudostrati ed ciliated columnar epithelium. B) is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages. C) contains many mucous glands. D) can alter its diameter when stimulated by the autonomic nervous system. E) is characterized by all of the above. Secondary bronchi supply air to the A) lungs. . B) lobes of the lungs C) lobules of the lungs. D) alveoli. E) alveolar ducts. The respiratory membrane consists primarily of A) pseudostrati ed ciliated columnar epithelium. B) moist cuboidal epithelium. C) simple squamous epithelium. D) ciliated squamous epithelium. E) surfactant cells. The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are A) bronchioles. B) alveolar ducts. C) pleural spaces. D) alveoli. E) terminal sacs. General functions of the lymphatic system include A) uid and nutrient transport B) lymphocyte development C) the immune response D) all of the above How much excess interstitial uid must the lymphatic system return to the bloodstream each day? A) less than 500 milliliters B) up to 1 liter C) about 3 liters D) between 4 and 5 liters Which selection includes all the major components of the lymphatic system? A) lymphatic cells and structures, lymph, and lymph vessels B) thoracic duct, right lymphatic duct, and lymph C) lymphocytes, lymph, and lymph nodes D) spleen, thymus, and tonsils A systematic defense against antigens, initiated by lymphatic cells, is called A) a cross-reaction B) in ammation C) septicemia D) an immune response All of the following are types of T-lymphocytes EXCEPT A) helper B) plasma C) suppressor D) memory Helper T-lymphocytes secrete chemical signals called ____________ that bind to receptors on other lymphatic cells and activate them. A) coreceptors B) antibodies C) immunoglobulins D) cytokines Each type of T-lymphocyte has a particular ____________ in its plasma membrane that recognizes a speci c antigen. A) surface antibody B) coreceptor C) alpha-receptor D) beta-receptor Plasma cells produce and secrete A) antibodies B) antigens C) cytokines D) alpha-globulins Large groups of lymphatic nodules in the mucosa of the gastrointestinal, respiratory, genital, and urinary tracts are collectively called A) MALT B) Peyer patches C) germinal centers D) mucosal lymph nodes What occurs in the thymus? A) production of large quantities of antibodies B) activation of the immune response by circulating antigens C) T-lymphocyte maturation and differentiation D) all of the above Antibodies are A) plasma cells B) B-lymphocytes C) T-lymphocytes D) gamma globulin proteins The function of interferons is to A) break down bacterial cell walls B) fragment bacterial DNA C) opsonize microbes D) prevent viral replication The process of coating a microbe with antibodies to make it more susceptible to phagocytosis is A) chemotaxis B) opsonization C) cloning D) anergy The antibodies involved in allergic reactions A) are called allergens B) are secreted by mast cells C) belong to the IgE group D) are produced by T-lymphocytes The most abundant type of immunoglobulin is A) IgA B) IgE C) IgG D) IgD In an autoimmune disease, the immune response is directed toward A) foreign antigens B) self-antigens C) antibodies D) viruses An antigen is ______, whereas an antibody is_______. A) a foreign substance such as a protein or polysaccharide to which lymphocytes respond; a globular protein that reacts with antigens to eliminate them B) an immunoglobulin that is produced by lymph nodes in response to bacteria; a foreign protein that enters the body and causes an immune reaction C) a hapten molecule that is quite complicated in shape; an enzyme that is produced by the thymus gland to neutralize antigens D) produced by T-cells; produced by B-cells A primary immune response is ________, and a secondary immune response is ________. A) very important; of less importance B) the primary source of immunity; a back-up form of immunity in case the primary response fails C) production of antibodies after the body's initial exposure to an antigen; the rapid production of large quantities of antibodies after subsequent exposure to the antigen D) activation of the complement; production of antibodies In cell-mediated immunity, the antigen is destroyed by A) killer T-cells B) mast cells C) B-cells D) antibodies Cytotoxic T-cells recognize antigens combined with A) interleukin-1 B) CD8 C) MHC-I antigens D) MHC-II antigens Cytotoxic T-cells destroy their target cells by releasing a substance that affects A) cell membranes B) lysosomes C) ribosomes D) DNA molecules A vaccine produces its effects by A) directly attacking the antigens and neutralizing them B) opsonization C) stimulating a primary immune response D) causing cell lysis The type of resistance that is acquired as a result of developing and recovering from a disease is A) naturally acquired active immunity B) arti cially acquired active immunity C) arti cially acquired passive immunity D) naturally acquired passive immunity The structure of a lymph node can be described as A) being divided into compartments that contain masses of lymphocytes and macrophages B) afferent vessels circulating lymph into the node on its convex surface C) efferent vessels circulating lymph out of the node at its hilus D) all of the above Complement proteins are found in blood plasma. are present in infected cells. are produced by T-cells. are produced by B-cells. All of the following are symptoms of in ammation EXCEPT pain redness fever swelling The rst line of defense against disease-causing organisms is cell-based immunity. production of antibodies. in ammation. the intact skin. Air moves into the lungs because A) the gas pressure in the lungs is less than outside pressure. B) the volume of the lungs decreases with inspiration. C) the thorax is muscular. D) contraction of the diaphragm decreases the volume of the pleural cavity. E) of all of the above. Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the A) scalenes. B) diaphragm. C) internal intercostals. D) external intercostals. E) serratus anterior. When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract A) the volume of the thoracic cavity increases. B) the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases. C) the volume of the lungs decreases. D) the lungs collapse. E) expiration occurs. Pulmonary ventilation refers to A) the movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) the movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. C) the movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space. D) the movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells. E) the utilization of oxygen Alveolar ventilation refers to A) the movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) the movement of air into and out of the alveoli. C) the movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. D) the movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli. E) the utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism The function of pulmonary ventilation is to A) remove carbon dioxide from the lymph. B) supply nitrogen to the blood. C) maintain an adequate alveolar ventilation. D) remove air from dead air space. E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles. Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is A) dissolved in plasma. B) bound to hemoglobin. C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma. D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide. E) carried by white blood cells. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as A) solute dissolved in the plasma B) carbaminohemoglobin. C) bicarbonate ions. D) solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells. E) carbonic acid. The most important chemical regulator of respiration is A) oxygen. B) carbon dioxide. C) bicarbonate ion. D) sodium ion. E) hemoglobin. Functions of the nose include A) ltering the air. B) warming the air. C) humidifying the air. D) acting as a resonating chamber in speech. E) all of the above. The function of the nasal conchae is to A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side. B) provide an opening into the pharynx. C) provide a surface for the sense of smell. D) create turbulence in the air to trap small particulates in mucus. E) provide an opening to the outside of the body. The walls of bronchioles are dominated by ________, whose activity is regulated by the autonomic nervous system. A) C rings of hyaline cartilage B) elastic cartilage C) skeletal muscle D) a mix of cartilage plates and smooth muscle E) smooth muscle The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are A) bronchioles. B) alveolar ducts. C) pleural spaces. D) alveoli. E) capillary beds. The volume of air that can be forcefully inhaled over and above tidal volume is called ________. A) expiratory reserve volume B) residual volume C) minimal volume D) inspiratory reserve volume E) vital capacity During exhalation, A) pressure inside the lungs is less than the outside pressure. B) pressure within the thoracic cavity decreases. C) inside and outside pressures are equal. D) the volume of the thoracic cavity increases. E) the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases. Centers in which of the following adjust the respiratory rate and depth of respiration in response to sensory stimuli, emotional states, or speech patterns? A) midbrain B) cerebellum C) cerebrum D) spinal cord E) pons Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive tract except one. Identify the exception. A) stomach B) pharynx C) esophagus D) spleen E) colon Digestion refers to the A) progressive dehydration of indigestible residue. B) input of food into the digestive tract. C) chemical breakdown of food. D) absorption of nutrients in the gut. E) mixing of nutrients with digestive enzymes. Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion? A) stomach B) pancreas C) spleen D) colon E) esophagus Which of the following is NOT a digestive function? A) mechanical processing B) absorption C) compaction D) ingestion E) ltration Contraction of the __________ layer of the intestinal wall functions to change the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves food through its length. A) mucosa B) submucosa C) serosa D) muscularis E) adventitia The __________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold some of the visceral organs in their proper position. A) serosa B) adventitia C) mesenteries D) brosa E) muscularis Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract from one point to another are called A) segmentations. B) pendulum movements. C) peristalsis. D) churning movements. E) mastications. Regional movements that occur in the small intestine and function to churn and fragment the digestive materials are called A) segmentation. B) pendulum movements. C) peristalsis. D) A churning movements. E) mastication. __________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity. A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four E) Five Functions of the tongue include A) mechanical processing of food. B) manipulation of food. C) sensory analysis of food. D) A and B only. E) all of the above. The __________ are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or chopping. A) wisdom teeth B) incisors C) bicuspids D) cuspids E) molars The __________ are teeth with attened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for grinding. A) molars B) cuspids C) eye teeth D) canines E) bicuspids The esophagus A) extends from the oropharynx to the stomach. B) is a muscular tube. C) functions in digestion of carbohydrates. D) has a thick lining that will tolerate stomach acid. E) exhibits all of the above. Parietal cells secrete A) pepsin. B) gastrin. C) mucus. D) hydrochloric acid. E) all of the above. The portion of the stomach that connects to the esophagus is the A) fundus. B) cardia. C) body. D) antrum. E) pylorus The prominent ridges in the lining of the stomach are called A) papillae. B) cardia. C) rugae. D) plicae. E) valvulae. The enzyme pepsin digests A) carbohydrates. B) proteins. C) lipids. D) nucleic acids. E) vitamins. Plicae and intestinal villi A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine. B) carry products of digestion that will not pass through the walls of blood capillaries. C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine. D) secrete digestive enzymes. E) produce hormones. The most striking aspect of intestinal histology is A) the large number of mucus-producing goblet cells. B) the complexity of the enzyme-secreting cells. C) the large number of endocrine cells. D) the adaptation for increasing absorptive area. E) the variety of the cells lining the mucosa. The portion of the small intestine that is attached to the pylorus of the stomach is the A) ileum. B) colon. C) cecum. D) jejunum. E) duodenum The middle portion of the small intestine is the A) ileum. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) pylorus. E) cecum. An intestinal hormone that stimulates the gall bladder to release bile is A) enterokinase. B) secretin. C) cholecystokinin D) GIP. E) gastrin Bile salts break lipid droplets apart in a process called ________. A) absorption B) emulsi cation C) bile storage D) bile synthesis E) secretion The basic functional units of the liver are the A) hepatocytes. B) liver cells. C) lobules. D) portal areas. E) bile canaliculi. ________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of irregular,one-cell-thick plates radiating outward. A) Portal cells B) Hepatocytes C) Bile canaliculi D) Bile ducts E) Hepatic ducts Synthesis of plasma proteins is a major function of the A) gallbladder. B) duodenum. C) pancreas D) stomach. E) liver The hormone secretin functions to A) convert trypsinogen into trypsin. B) activate chymotrypsin. C) stimulate the release of a secretion containing bicarbonate from the pancreas. D) stimulate the release of enzymes from the pancreas. E) decrease the pH of chyme A buffer, ________, helps to increase the pH of chyme A) secretin B) trypsin C) sodium bicarbonate D) bile salt E) cholecystokinin Pancreatic enzymes and buffers are secreted by which of the following? A)chief cells B) alpha cells C) lobules D) acinar cells E) beta cells ________ enable the immune system to launch a faster, stronger responseto a previously encountered antigen A) Plasma cells C) Helper T cells B) Memory cells C) Helper T cells D) NK cells E) Pathogenic cells During a typical immune response, activated B cells mature into cells that produce ________, which bind(s) to and attack(s) foreign invaders. A) antigens B) perforins C) antibodies D) heparin E) complement proteins ________ exists when the immune system does not respond to normaltissues and their antigens A) Versatility B) Tolerance C) Memory D) Speci city E) Active immunity A child develops symptoms of chicken pox, produces antibodies against its speci c antigens, and recovers from the illness. Later as an adult, he is immune to another exposure to the chicken pox virus. This is an example of which type of immunity? A) arti cially induced active immunity B) naturally acquired passive immunity C)arti cially induced passive immunity D) innate (nonspeci c) immunity E) naturally acquired active immunity ________ develop(s) when the immune response mistakenly targets normal body cells and tissues. A) Autoimmune disorders B) Immediate hypersensitivity C) Anaphylaxis D) Immunode ciency diseases E) Immune complex disorders The increased incidence of cancer in the elderly re ects the fact that A)immune surveillance increases. B) tumor cells are eliminated effectively. C) their diets do not meet nutritional standards. D) everyone is prone to disease. E) immune surveillance declines with age. The ability of certain phagocytes to move through the wall of a capillary is called A) in ammation B) diapedesis C) chemotaxis D) necrosis E) immunological escape Other : A foreign microorganism that may cause disease in humans is called a(n) A)pathogen. B) antigen. C) antibody. D) pathology. E) plaque. Which cells have a primary role in cell-mediated immunity? A) B cells B) T cells C) NK cells D) antigens E) plasma cells Which property of immunity exists when the plasma membrane of each T cell and B cell has receptors that will bind only one particular type of antigen, ignoring all other types of antigens? A) speci city B) memory C) versatility D) tolerance E) innate immunity What is the function of IgG antibodies? A)They attack pathogens before they enter the body tissues. B) They play a role in the activation of B cells. C) They are responsible for defense against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins. D) They accelerate in ammation upon exposure to antigens. E) They are responsible for cross reactions between incompatible blood types. The clumping of red blood cells, which occurs when incompatible blood types are mixed, is an example of ________. A) agglutination B) opsonization C) sensitization D) precipitation E) immunological surveillance IgG antibodies A) are found in glandular secretions. B) bind antigens in the extracellular uid to B cells. C) stimulate the release of histamine and other in ammatory chemicals. D) are the rst antibody type secreted, following initial exposure to an antigen. E) can also cross the placenta and provide passive immunity to the fetus. The palatine tonsils lie in the lateral walls of the ________. A) oropharynx B) nasal vestibule C) larynx D) esophagus E) laryngopharynx The trachea A) is lined by dense regular connective tissue. B) is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages. C) contains the vocal cords. D) always maintains the same diameter. E) ends distally at the level of the diaphragm The following is a list of some of the structures of the respiratory tree: 1 -secondary bronchi 2 - tertiary bronchi 3 - bronchioles 4 primary bronchi The order in which air passes through these structures beginning at the trachea is A) 4-1-2-3. B) 3-2-1-4. C) 2-3-1-4. D) 4-1-3-2. E) 1-2-3-4. The force that causes air to move into the lungs during inspiration is supplied A) the pterygoids. B) the abdominal muscles. C) internal intercostal muscles. D) atmospheric pressure. E) the digastric muscles. When at rest, the amount of air that enters and leaves the lungs in a normal respiratory cycle is the A) total lung capacity. B) vital capacity. C) tidal volume. D) residual volume. E) inspiratory volume. The volume of air that can be forcefully inhaled over and above tidal volume is called ________. A) expiratory reserve volume B) residual volume C) minimal volume D) inspiratory reserve volume E) vital capacity Which gastrointestinal hormone is released when the pH in the duodenum falls as acidic chyme arrives from the stomach? A) HCl B) gastric inhibitory peptide C) cholecystokinin D) secretin E) gastrin Which pancreatic digestive enzymes digest starches? A) carbohydrases B) lipases C) proteases D) peptidases E) nucleases Functions of the large intestine include A) chemical digestion of chyme. B) temporary food storage. C) reabsorption of water and compaction of feces. D) absorption of the products of digestion. E) hormone production. Regarding the chemical events in digestion, which of the following forms chylomicrons? A) proteins B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) nucleic acids E) peptides Chewing is called A) segmentation. B) pendulum movements. C) peristalsis. D) ingestion. E) mastication. The rst place in which mechanical processing of food takes place is the A) oral cavity. B) esophagus. C) stomach. D) large intestine. E) small intestine