Download Final Exam Review!! - Iowa State University

FINAL EXAM REVIEW!!
Exam 1-3 & New material
Supplemental Instruction
Iowa State University
Leader:
Course:
Instructor:
Date:
Lauren
BIOL 212
Kukday
12/12/13
Exam 1: Origin of Life, Chemistry of Life, Cells & Membranes
Ch. 2, 3, 4, 5, 15.1-15.2
1. A neutral atom has:
a. Equal numbers of protons and electrons
b. More protons than electrons
c. More electrons than protons
d. More neutrons than either protons or electrons
2. What type of bond exists between sodium and chlorine in the salt NaCl?
a. Nonpolar covalent
b. Polar covalent
c. Ionic
d. Hydrogen
3. In order to convert a polymeric carbohydrate into its smaller monomers, you must break
a. Hydrogen bonds
b. Peptide bonds
c. Phosphodiester bonds
d. Glycosidic bonds
4. What type of bond maintains the primary structure of a protein? Secondary structure?
a. Glycosidic, hydrogen
b. Hydrogen, peptide
c. Ionic, peptide
d. Peptide, hydrogen
5. A protein that does not have a signal sequence will:
a. Be degraded
b. Remain in the cytosol
c. Be exocytosed
d. Not be functional
6. What is the common path for a protein undergoing vesicle transport?
a. Smooth ER, rough ER, Golgi apparatus, plasma membrane
b. Golgi apparatus, rough ER, smooth ER, plasma membrane
c. Nucleus, smooth ER, Golgi Apparatus, rough ER, plasma membrane
d. Rough ER, smooth ER, Golgi apparatus, plasma membrane
7. Integral membrane proteins have transmembrane regions that mostly contain:
a. Hydrophilic amino acids that interact via hydrogen bonds
b. Hydrophilic amino acids that interact via ionic bonds
c. Hydrophobic amino acids that interact via hydrogen bonds
d. Hydrophobic amino acids that interact via ionic bonds
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8. A particular organism lives in an extremely hot environment, what could it do to keep its cell
membranes somewhat rigid? (remember: membranes are semifluid, meaning too much fluidity
is a bad thing)
a. Increase the percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in the membrane
b. Shorten the fatty acid tails of the phospholipids in the membrane
c. Increase the percentage of saturated phospholipids in the membrane
d. None of the above
9. Place the following events of mitosis in chronological order
i. Sister chromatids align along metaphase plate
ii. Nuclear membrane breaks up
iii. Sister chromatids separate
iv. Sister chromatids condense
v. Cleave furrow forms
a. iv, ii, i, iii, v
b. i, ii, iii, iv, v
c. i, iv, iii, v, ii
d. v, iv, iii, ii, i
10. T/F Mitosis forms 4 haploid daughter cells from a diploid parent cell.
11. The membrane protein labeled “A” below is a Na+/glucose symporter, what would you expect to
happen?
a. Na+ will move inside the cell while glucose will move outside the cell
b. Glucose will move outside the cell
c. Glucose will move inside the cell
d. Nothing will move
12. Which of the following require energy?
a. Active transport
b. Facilitated Diffusion
c. Simple Diffusion
d. A & B
e. A & C
Exam 2: Energetics, Molecular Genetics, Cell Signaling
Ch. 6(1-3), 7(1-2), 8(1-2), 11(2-4), 12(2-4, 6), 13(3-4), 9(1-5), 36(1-2, figs. 17-19)
13. What effect does a non-competitive inhibitor have on an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
a. Increases the Km of the enzyme
b. Lowers the Km
c. Increases Vmax
d. Lowers Vmax
14. Which of the following is NOT true about the electron transport chain & oxidative
phosphorylation?
a. Both NADH & FADH2 are oxidized
b. Protons are pumped into the intermembrane space
c. Cytochrome oxidase (complex IV) is the final electron acceptor
d. ATP is synthesized from ADP & Pi
15. Photosystem II strips electrons from chlorophyll & delivers them to the chloroplast electron
transport (cytochrome) chain. Where do the replacement electrons come from?
a. Splitting H2O
b. Light
c. Photosystem I
d. NADPH
16. Which of the following is true about the lagging strand during DNA replication?
a. It is synthesized in the 3’ to 5’ direction while the leading strand is 5’ to 3’
b. It requires DNA ligase
c. In E. coli it is synthesized by DNA polymerase I while the leading strand is synthesized by
DNA polymerase III
d. It is synthesized much slower than the leading strand
17. Which of the following are required for transcription?
a. tRNA
b. Ribosome
c. mRNA transcript
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
18. The template strand of DNA is 5’-TTAGCGCCAAT-3’ it will be transcribed as:
a. 3’-AATCGCGGTTA-5’
b. 3’-UUAGCGCCAAT-5’
c. 5’-AUUGGCGCUAA-3’
d. None of the above
19. Which of the following is true?
a. Enhancers bind activators and stimulate transcription
b. Activators bind enhancers and stimulate translation
c. Activators bind enhancers and stimulate transcription
d. Repressors bind silencers and stimulate transcription
20. What is the function of adenylyl cyclase?
a. Converts ATP to cAMP
b. Converts ATP to ADP + Pi
c. Converts cAMP to AMP
d. Converts AMP to cAMP
21. What is the role of auxin in plants?
a. Gravitropism – helps the plant know to grow upwards
b. Phototropism – helps plant bend towards light
c. Photosynthesis – helps plant absorb light energy to make carbohydrates
d. Induces formation of different plant parts – roots & shoots
22. The result of the EGF-EGFR pathway is:
a. Glycogen breakdown & the “flight or fight” response
b. The “rest & digest” response
c. The transcription of genes resulting in apoptosis
d. The transcription of genes resulting in cell growth & proliferation
23. miRNAs and siRNAs are an example of which type of gene regulation?
a. Transcriptional
b. Translational
c. Post-Translational
d. RNA Processing
24. The second step of glucose breakdown, breakdown of pyruvate, provides what to the third step
(the citric acid or Kreb’s cycle)?
a. NADH
b. ATP
c. FADH2
d. Acetyl CoA
Exam 3: Biotechnology, Cell Specialization, Nutrition & Digestion
Ch. 20(1, 3) 10(1-2), 19(1-3), 35(1-2), 45(1, 4-7), 47(1-4, 7)
25. You want to make sure your bacterial cells took up a plasmid containing the gene of interest,
which method of screening should you use?
a. Ampicillin resistance
b. Kanamycin resistance
c. Blue-White Screening
d. Sequence the DNA of all the cells & look for the gene of interest using a computer
program
26. Arrange the following steps of gene cloning in the correct sequence:
i. Transform bacterial cells with recombinant plasmid
ii. Isolate plasmid vector & gene of interest
iii. Use a selectable marker to identify transformed bacterial cells
iv. Ligate plasmid vector & gene of interest using DNA ligase
v. Cut the plasmid vector & gene of interest using a restriction enzyme
a. ii, v, iv, i, iii
b. i, v, iv, ii, iii
c. v, ii, iv, I, iii
d. i, ii, iii, iv, v
27. Which protein is necessary for the coordinated contraction of cardiac muscle cells?
a. Cadherins
b. Occludins
c. Connexins
d. Claudins
28. What would happen if the extension sequences were not removed from procollagen?
a. They would assemble the large fibers inside the cell & the cell would burst
b. They would not assemble into fibrils
c. They would remain as single α chains & not assemble into triple helixes
d. They would degrade
29. What would happen if the Bicoid gene protein product were injected into both ends of a
developing Drosophila embryo?
a. It would develop no head & two spiracles
b. It would develop no spiracles & two heads
c. It would develop normally
d. It would develop one head & one spiracle but reversed along the anteroposterior axis
30. In the development of the Drosophila eye, the following experimental results are achieved.
Which of the following are reasonable assumptions based on this data?
a. Wildtype R1 is required for normal development of R7
b. Wildtype R2, R3, R4, R5, & R8 cells are all required for normal development of R7
c. Wildtype R1, R6, & pre-R7 are not required for normal development of R7
d. Wildtype R1 & R6 are required for normal development of R7
31. Which plant organs undergo determinate growth?
a. Roots & shoots
b. Only shoots
c. Only flowers
d. Flowers & fruits
32. Plant meristems affect:
a. Plant development
b. Plant growth
c. Size of the meristem
d. A & B
e. All of the above
33. Where would a piece of steak first begin to be digested?
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
34. You eat some food & it is digested, the fat from that food then moves into the villi of your small
intestine, where it is then absorbed by:
a. Lacteals
b. Capillaries
c. Arterioles
d. Muscles
35. When blood enters a ventricle from an atrium, it passes through:
a. Semilunar valves
b. Sinoatrial nodes
c. Atrioventricular valves
d. Atrioventricular nodes
36. Which of the following is false?
a. Pulmonary arteries contain deoxygenated blood
b. Systemic arteries contain oxygenated blood
c. Pulmonary veins contain deoxygenated blood
d. System veins contain deoxygenated blood
No Exam 4 Material on Final! (This was circulatory respiratory, & nervous systems, & locomotion)
New Stuff: Reproduction, Disease
Ch. 51(2-4, 6), 14(1, 3), 18(1), 53(?)
37. Which of the following are true?
a. One spermatogonium produces 4 mature sperm cells
b. One oogonium produces 4 mature egg cells
c. One spermatogonium produces one mature sperm cell
d. One oogonium produces one mature egg cell
e. A & B
f. A & D
g. C & D
h. B & C
38. Which hormone stimulates the oocyte to finish meiosis I & be released at ovulation?
a. FSH
b. LH
c. Estrogen
d. A & B
e. All of the above
39. What is a role of progesterone in pregnancy?
a. Maintain lining of uterus
b. Stimulate production of FSH & LH
c. Stimulate oocyte maturation
d. None of the above
40. Which of the following is false about birth control pills?
a. Estrogen prevents FSH & LH production
b. Progestin prevents uterine lining from nurturing egg
c. They release hormones that are fatal to a fertilized embryo
d. Mimics the cropus luteum throughout the cycle
41. T/F testosterone prevents the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus
42. Where does spermatogenesis occur?
a. Leydig cells
b. Sertoli cells
c. Epididymis
d. Seminiferous tubules
43. How could androgens such as testosterone possibly work as a male contraceptive?
a. Lower production of GnRH & LH
b. Increase LH & FSH production
c. Block sperm exit
d. Increasing the temperature of the testis
44. A certain wild type gene codes for an enzyme that stimulates cell division, what type of gene
could this be?
a. Proto-oncogene
b. Oncogene
c. Tumor-suppressor gene
45. What is the gene that encodes p53?
a. Proto-oncogene
b. Oncogene
c. Tumor-suppressor gene
46. T/F it is usually one mutation that leads to cancer in an organism
47. How does a missense mutation convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene?
a. Changes the amino acid sequence of the protein product in such a way that the protein
functions abnormally
b. Causes too much of the protein product to be synthesized
c. Creates a chimeric oncogene
d. Uses viral regulatory elements to enhance expression
48. How do viruses reproduce?
a. Binary fission
b. Sexual reproduction
c. Overtaking the reproductive machinery of a host cell
d. None of the above
49. What stimulates the production of antibodies?
a. Immunoglobins
b. B-cells
c. Antigens
d. Helper T-cells
50. How does an antibody recognize an antigen?
a. The variable region has binding specificity for it
b. The heavy chains have binding specificity for it
c. The light chains have binging specificity for it
d. They bind via base pairing
**Note: This study guide does NOT cover everything we went over; it’d be far too long if it did. I used
past exams, clicker questions, & learning objectives to make this. These are great places to find the
extra material that couldn’t fit on this review!**
Thanks for a great semester & good luck with all your finals!