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SBI4U Final Exam January 2010 Question Booklet A. Multiple Choice (40 marks) Identify the choice that best answers the question. Put answers on the answer sheet. ___ 1. The properties of a phospholipid that allow it to attract both polar and nonpolar molecules are a. the hydrophilic head & hydrophobic tail b. the hydrophobic head & hydrophilic tail c. the polysaccharide tail and lipid head d. the charged tails and uncharged head ___ 2. A 10% sucrose solution in dialysis tubing is placed in a beaker with an unknown concentration of sucrose. The original mass of the tubing was 0.15 g; after 24 h the tubing was removed and the mass was found to be 0.17 g. What type of solution was in the beaker? a. hypertonic b. hypotonic c. isotonic d. none of the above ___ 3. The following structural formula is representative of which functional group? a. sulfhydryl d. carboxyl b. hydroxyl e. amino c. carbonyl ___ 4. Of the list of compounds below, which one cannot result in the production of urea, a nitrogen-containing waste product found in urine? a. glucose d. proteins b. amino acids e. peptides c. enzymes ___ 5. When two organic molecules are joined together and a water molecule is removed, the reaction is called which of the following? a. dehydration synthesis (condensation) d. oxidation b. hydrogenation e. reduction c. hydrolysis ___ 6. During the process of glycolysis, some hydrogen atoms are essentially removed from glucose. This is an example of a. hydrolysis d. dehydration b. dehydration synthesis (condensation) e. neutralization c. oxidation ___ 7. At which temperature would you expect any enzyme extracted from a human tissue to have its optimal performance? a. 5C b. 10C c. 25C d. 37C e. 95C ___ 8. Enzymes work as catalysts by doing which of the following? a. increasing the free energy of the reactants b. decreasing the free energy of the reactants c. increasing the activation energy d. decreasing the activation energy e. bypassing the need for a transition state to occur ____ 9. The following molecules can be found at various stages during cellular respiration: I. acetyl-CoA II. carbon dioxide III. glucose IV. glyceraldehyde V. pyruvate Which of the following sequences represents the molecules in order from largest to smallest amount of chemical energy? a. II, I, V, IV, III d. III, I, V, IV, II b. III, IV, V, I, II e. IV, III, II, I, V c. III, IV, I, V, II ___ 10. Glycolysis can best be described as which of the following kinds of pathways? a. catabolic and synthetic d. anaerobic and catabolic b. glycolytic and aerobic e. anaerobic and anabolic c. aerobic and catabolic ___ 11. During aerobic cellular respiration, which of the following molecules activates Krebs cycle? a. citrate d. acetyl coenzyme A b. pyruvate e. carbon dioxide c. cytochrome oxidase ___ 12. When ATP is broken down to ADP and phosphate, energy is a. absorbed c. b. released d. created destroyed ___ 13. Which of the following events of photosynthesis is concerned immediately with light? a. production of ATP b. fixation of carbon dioxide c. transfer of energy from chlorophyll to carbon dioxide d. excitation of chlorophyll e. regeneration of chlorophyll ___ 14. Photophosphorylation specifically refers to the a. synthesis of glucose via carbon fixation b. splitting water as a result of light c. synthesis of ATP by photolysis ___ ___ 15. Ultimately, the light reactions a. make G-3-P and carbon dioxide b. c. split water and carbon dioxide form ATP and absorb carbon dioxide d. reduction of NADPH by electron transport e. synthesis of ATP using light d. e. form ATP and NADPH + H+ breakdown ATP and water 16. What does carbon dioxide combine with during photosynthesis? a. G3P d. NAD+ b. ribulose bisphosphate e. water c. ribulose ____ 17. If a DNA strand is composed of 40% adenine it would be expected to also have a. 40% cytosine c. 20% thymine b. 40% thymine d. 40% guanine ___ 18. During DNA replication, the function of RNA primers is to a. open replication bubbles b. serve as starting points for DNA strand elongation by DNA polymerase I in the 3' - 5' direction c. serve as starting points for DNA strand elongation by DNA polymerase III in prokaryotes d. prevent new-separated strands of DNA from rejoining e. serve as a binding site for DNA ligase ___ 19. Frederick Griffith discovered a. the structure of DNA b. transformation c. base complementarity d. e. virulence bacterial capsules ___ 20. In what order do the following molecules become involved in DNA replication in E. coli? 1. single-stranded binding proteins 2. DNA polymerase III 3. primase 4. helicase a. 4,1,3,2 d. 3,2,4,1 b. 4,3,1,2 e. 2,3,4,1 c. 1,3,4,2 ___ 21. A certain protein needs to have a high energy phosphate group added to it in the cytoplasm before it becomes active. This offers the possibility of control at which of the following levels? a. transcriptional d. translational b. operational e. posttranslational c. post-transcriptional ___ 22. Gel electrophoresis separates fragments of DNA using a. a sieving medium through which DNA fragments are moved by gravitational forces b. repulsion of charged DNA molecules by the electrically charged gel beads c. a sieving medium through which DNA molecules are moved by electrical forces d. movement through a sieving medium by positively charged DNA molecules attracted by a negative pole e. movement of DNA fragments of different sizes at different speeds as a result of ultracentrifugation ____ 23. Restriction endonucleases existed before genetic engineers. These enzymes originally evolved a. to destroy bacterial DNA. b. as part of the immune system of animals. c. to destroy bacteriophage DNA. d. as components of spliceosomes. e. to aid in the DNA repair process. ___ ____ Composition (g/100 mL) Component Plasma Filtrate Urine I Urea 0.030 0.030 2.00 II Uric acid 0.004 0.004 0.05 III Glucose 0.100 0.100 0.00 IV Amino acids 0.050 0.050 0.00 V Salts 0.720 0.720 1.50 VI Proteins 8.000 0.036 0.00 24. A patient's test results are shown in the table above. According to the table above, which items are completely reabsorbed into the plasma? a. I, II, V d. III, IV, VI b. III, V, VI e. II, IV, V c. I, III, IV 25. The term used to describe the ability of a living organism to adjust to changing environmental conditions by regulating your internal processes is a. regulation d. feedback b. homeostasis e. metabolism c. inhibition ___ 26. The most important buffer in human blood and extracellular fluid is the a. carbonic acid–bicarbonate ion buffer b. hydrochloric acid–sodium hydroxide buffer c. chloric acid–chloride ion buffer d. phosphoric acid–phosphate ion buffer ___ 27. Which graph illustrates a person who may secrete too little glucagon? a. III c. IV b. I d. II and IV ___ ____ 28. The growing follicle secretes which of the following hormone? a. LH d. b. testosterone e. c. GnRH estrogen FSH 29. Testosterone production occurs in the which of the following? a. sperm cells d. b. seminiferous tubules e. c. interstitial cells anterior pituitary hypothalamus ___ 30. An action potential’s rate of propagation depends on which of the following? a. whether or not the axon is myelinated b. the axon's diameter c. whether or not the axon is insulated by glial cells d. the cross-sectional area of the axon e. all of the above ___ 31. Interneurons are most commonly located in which of the following? a. sensory nerves c. sympathetic nervous system b. central nervous system d. peripheral nervous system ___ 32. In the grasslands of Western Canada, prairie dogs live in colonies, isolated from other colonies by large, unoccupied areas of land. This is best described as a. ecological dispersion d. clumped dispersion b. random dispersion e. uniform dispersion c. crude density ___ 33. An orchard contains 20 apple trees in an area of 2.0 ha. Determine the density of the tree population. a. 20 trees /ha d. 10 trees/ha b. 40 trees/ha e. 4.0 trees/ha c. 0.10 ha/tree ___ 34. A population whose growth is influenced by natality, mortality and migrations is described as which of the following? a. endangered d. geometric b. open e. exponential c. closed ___ 35. A population that grows rapidly during breeding season, then declines through the year until the next breeding season, exhibits which of the following? a. linear growth d. logistic growth b. geometric growth e. theoretical growth c. exponential growth ___ 36. The intrinsic per capita growth rate of a population is determined to be 0.23 organisms/week. Estimate the time it will take the population to double in size. a. 0.23 weeks d. 3.0 weeks b. 0.71 weeks e. 0.69 weeks c. 0.33 weeks ___ 37. As the number of raccoons in the forest increases, the availability of nesting sites limits population growth. This describes which of the following? a. a density-dependent factor d. both a and c b. a density-independent factor e. none of the above c. intraspecific competition ___ 38. The coral snake and the king snake are very difficult to tell apart. One is poisonous, the other is not. This is an example of which of the following? a. protective coloration d. Mullerian mimicry b. camouflage e. obligatory mutualism c. Batesian mimicry ___ 39. As the world's population grows, increased food production is necessary for survival. Which of the following is true of world grain production over the last 15 years? a. Total food production has increased. b. Food production per capita has decline. c. Total food production has decreased. d. Total food production has stabilized. e. Both a and b are true. ___ 40. According to the concept of energy pyramids, what percentage of the energy of one trophic level is transferred to the next level? a. 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. 90% e. 100% B. Matching (10 marks) Match the correct term with the appropriate function listed below. Answer on the answer sheet. a. b. c. d. e. f. ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ chloroplast mitochondrion vacuole nucleus ribosome rough endoplasmic reticulum 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. g. h. i. j. k. l. provides a semi-permeable barrier for the cell carries out photosynthesis in plant cells manufactures proteins modifies and packages fats and proteins storage organelle contains digestive enzymes provides energy for cell functions transports and modifies proteins gives structural support to plant cells control centre of the cell cell membrane lysosome smooth endoplasmic reticulum Golgi apparatus cell wall flagellum C. Diagrams (20 marks) Label the following diagrams. Put your answers on the answer sheet. *Watch the numbering. 52. (all) 54. What reaction occurs here? 53. 57. 51. (each) 55. 56. 61. 60. 58. 62. 63. 59. 69. 70. 64. 65. 67. 66. READ FIRST: Sections D and E should be answered on loose leaf paper. Be sure to number the question and put your name on all sheets. Pay attention to the mark value associated with each question. D. Problems (8 marks) 71. A small field having an area of 1.5 ha contains a pond with a surface area of 0.3 ha and is home to 300 field mice. Determine the ecological density of the mouse population. (2 marks) 72. A grade 10 Science class of 28 students has been tagged by their teacher. Later in the day, 3 tagged students were observed in an English class of 30. Estimate the number of grade 10 students in the school. (2 marks) 73. Each May, harp seals give birth off the coast of Newfoundland and Labrador. In a hypothetical situation, an initial population of 900 seals gives birth to 390 pups in the spring, and during the rest of the year, 60 seals die. Assuming that the population is growing geometrically, what will the harp seal population be in 12 years? (4 marks) D. Short Answer (62 marks) 74. Briefly outline the structure of the four main types of lipids. (4 marks) 75. Illustrate the formation of sucrose from the reaction of an alpha-glucose molecule with a fructose molecule. (Fructose is drawn for you) (4 marks) 76. Discuss the importance of 4 intermolecular and intramolecular forces in the secondary and tertiary structure of proteins. Name two ways these forces can be disrupted causing denaturation of the protein. (6 marks) 77. Describe the main idea behind the induced-fit model of enzyme activity. (2 marks) 78. Aerobic cellular respiration takes place in 4 major phases. Outline the major events that occur in the second and third phase of the breakdown of a molecule of glucose to carbon dioxide and water. (6 marks) 79. Define anaerobic respiration and give an example that illustrates the process. What is the key to continuing anaerobic respiration? (3 marks) 80. Briefly explain how ATP is formed by oxidative phosphorylation of NADH (5 marks). 81. What is the function of each of the following in photosynthesis? (4 marks K) a. chlorophyll a b. electron transport chain of photosystem II c. NADPH + H+ d. rubisco 82. If the fragment of DNA shown below were to replicate, on which strand (A or B) would Okazaki fragments be formed? The origin of replication is at the left and the replication fork proceeds towards the right. Explain your reasoning. (2 marks) ORC 5' ATCGATCCCTAG 3’ strand A Strands open up here 3' TAGCTAGGGATC 5' strand B 83. Outline the 3 steps of DNA transcription and finish with the modification step that transcripts in all cells (eukaryotic and prokaryotic) must go through in order to leave the nucleus. (5 marks) 84. You have just eaten a huge feast to celebrate getting into university, draw or describe the feedback loop in your body that is maintaining your blood glucose at a constant level (3 marks). 85. After sweating excessively in a hot sauna, your body temperature returns to normal. However, NOW you are dehydrated, and water is leaving your cells to replace the lost water from the blood. Describe the homeostatic pathway that will be stimulated in order to bring your osmotic pressure back to normal. (4 marks) 86. Describe the processes of filtration, reabsorption, and active transport involved in urine formation in the human nephron. (4 marks) 87. How does an action potential get transferred from the presynaptic axon of one neuron to the dendrites of the next? Outline the events that occur at the synapse to allow an action potential to be generated in the postsynaptic neuron. Include the words exocytosis and diffusion in your answer. (4 marks) 88. Briefly define or describe the technique of population sampling known as "quadrat sampling." (2 marks) 89. Energy calculations suggest that raising animals for food is not an efficient use of land, and that more people can be fed on a plant-based diet. Describe situations in which an animal-based diet may be ecologically valid for a human population. (2 marks) Choose ONE of the following 3 questions: 90-1. Why are enzymes used in the cleaning industry? (2 marks) 90-2. Genetically modified (GM) crops are often unable to produce fertile seeds from one generation to the next. Why is this a particular disadvantage to developing countries with little money? (2 marks) 90-3. Define the term "bioremediation"and explain its role in restoration ecology. (2 marks)