Download IMT- II PG - E

IMMUNOLOGY AND IMMUNOTECHNOLOGY
UNIT – I
Section – A
1. The A and B blood group antigens are _______________
a. Polysaccharides
b. Peptides
c. Glycosylated lipid d. Oligosaccharide
2. Anti-Rh factor antibody was described by ______________
a. Landsteiner and Wiener b. Landsteiner and Levine
c. Wiener and Peters
d. Levine and Stetson
3. Father of Immunology is ___________a. Landsteiner b. Elie Metchnikoff c. Joseph Lister
d. Robert Koch
4. Mast cell was discovered by __________
a. William B Coley b. Paul Ehrlich
c. Ernest Haeckel
d. Ross
5. Antigen - Antibody binding hypothesis was described by ____________
a. Peyton Ross
b. John Marrack
c. Louis Pastuer
d. Joseph Lister
6. AB blood group contains ____________
a. Antigen A b. Antigen B c. Both Antigen A and Antigen B d. neither A nor B antigen
7. Who demonstrated cell mediated immunity?
a. Elie Metchnikoff b. Elvin Kabat
c. Von Behring
d. Louis Pasteur
8. Macrophage in the liver is called as _______
a. Kupffer cells
b. alveolar macrophages
c. microglial cells
d. histiocytes
9. Cytokines may exhibit ______ action, signaling the cells that produce them
a. paracrine
b. autocrine
c. endocrine
d. all the above
10. Several cytokines may have the same effect on the cells they bind is an example of a _______
a. cascade
b. antagonism
c. pleiotropism
d. redundancy
11. Cytokines are _______
a. able to increase B-cell proliferation
b. able to stimulate an increase in antibody production
c. able to activate T-cells
d. all the above
12. All the following are lymphokines EXCEPT _______
a. interferon b. histamine c. tumor necrosis factor
d. transforming growth factor
13. Transforming growth factor-beta _______
a. activates macrophages
b. activated fibroblasts
c. enhances T-cell functions
d. enhances B-cell function
14. The major role of T-cells in the immune response includes _______
a. complement fixation
b. phagocytosis
c. production of antibodies
d. recognition of epitopes presented with major histocompatibility complex molecules on the
surfaces
15. Humoral immunity is mediated by ______________
a. B cells
b. macrophages
c. both a and b
d. phagocytes
16. The macrophages of the brain is called ____________
a. Microglia
b. Giant cells c. Kupffer cells
d. Alueolar mactophages
17. The cells involved in non specific immunity is ________________
a. Lymphoid cells
b. Myeloid cells
c. T lymphocytes
d. NK lymphocytes
18. The phagocytic cell that generates acute inflammation is ___________
a. Neutrophils b. Basophils
c. Eosinophils d. Monocytes
19. The phagocytic cell that generates acute inflammation is __________
a. Neutrophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Basophil
d. Monocytes
20. Which is true about the activation of NK cells?
a. activated by T cells b. activated by complements c. activated by macrophages
d. independent of antibody
21. The dendritic cells are present in T cell areas of the secondary lymphoid tissue is ______
a. Veiled cells
b. Interdigitating dendritic cells
c. Langerhans cells
d. Interstitical dendrite cells
22. Nonspecific host defences that exist prior to exposure to an antigen is called ___________
a. acquired immunity
b. innate immunity c. adaptive immunity d. all of these
23. Innate immunity involves all except ___________
a. anatomic barriers b. phagocytic c. inflammatory mechanisms d. antibody production
24. Neutrophils are ___________
a. phagocytes b. short lived leucocytes
c. involved in second line of defence d. all of these
25. Which of these body systems causes allergic reactions?
a. Lymph
b. Immune c. Nervous
d. Autonomic e. Circulatory
Section – B
26. Write a note on Phagocytosis.
27. Describe about the historical background of Immunology.
28. Write an account on Natural killer (NK) cells.
29. Describe briefly about the ABO blood group system.
30. Write a short note on a. Metchnikoff and b. Burnet.
31. What are secondary lymphoid organs? Explain their structure and functions.
32. Explain the salient features of non immunological defence mechanism.
Seciton – C
33. Write an essay on the various phenomenon of cell mediated immunity.
34. Write an essay on types of immunity.
35. Give a detailed account on the types of cells of immune system and their function.
36. Give a detailed account on primary lymphoid organ.
UNIT – II
Section – A
1. The number of antigenic determinant sites is related to _____________
a. Molecular structure of the antigen
b. Reactive groups on the surface of the antigen
c. Size of the antigen
d. All the above
2. Antibodies to hapten are mainly produced by ____________
a.T cells
b. B cells
c. Macrophages
d. Both T cells and B cells
3. The site by which the antigen bind to the antibody is ______________
a. hapten
b. idiotype
c. epitope
d. allotype
4. Haptens are ___________
a. Immunogenic
b. Non-immunogenic
c. Heterophile antigens
d. none
5. Antibodies are ________________
a. proteins
b. glycoproteins
c. carbohydrates
d. nucleic acid
6. Antibodies consists of _______________
a. 2 light chains and 2 heavy chains arranged in a Y shaped configuration
b. A light chain and 2 heavy chains arranged in a Y shaped configuration
c. 2 light chains and a heavy chain arranged in a Y shaped configuration
d. all of these
7. Fab stands for ________________
a. fragment antibody binding
b. fragment antigen binding
c. fragment antibody or antigen binding
d. fragment affinity binding
8. Which of the following statement is true regarding Fc region
a. fragment crystalisation and is the constant region
b. fragment constant and is the variable region
c. fragment crystalisation and is the variable region
d. fragment crystalisation and has both variable and constant region
9. Fc region is involved in ________________
a. cell surface receptor binding
b. complement activation
c. determining diffusivity of antibody molecule
d. all of these
10. The ability of antigen to stimulate antibody production is called _________________
a. affinity
b. Antigenicity
c. elicitation
d. none of these
11. Light chains and heavy chains of antibodies are joined by _____________
a. hydrogen bond
b. hydrophobic bond c. disulphide bond d. ionic bond
12. The two identical light chains of an antibody belongs to __________________
a. kappa only
b. lambda only
c. lambda or kappa d) none of these
13. Which is the Ig that can cross placenta and provide passive immunity to new born?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE
14. Which is the Ig that first reaches the site of infection __________________
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE
15. Which of the following statements are true regarding IgM
a. IgM is a pentamer and is the largest Ig and called as ‘natural antibody’
b. IgM exists as monomer on B cell surface
c. IgM is involved in early primary immune response
d. all of the above
16. The antibody present in secretions like tears, saliva, colostrum is _________________
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgE
17. Haptens cannot activate T cell or B cells due to _______________
a. its low molecular weight antigens arbuscules
b. its inability to bind to MHC
c. both a and b
d. none of these
18. Which of the following is a hapten
a. Cyanide
b. paracetamol
c. Penicillin d. none of these
19. An incomplete antigens _____________
a. are also called as haptens b. are immunogenic upon binding covalently to a carrier protein
c. cannot induce antibody production by itself
d. all of the above
20. Haptens are immunogenic upon binding ____________
a. covalently to a carrier protein b. covalently to an antibody c. covalently to a paratope
d. none of these
21. Clearance of antigens by antibodies involve _______________
a. neutralization and agglutination
b. opsonisation and complement activation
c. precipitation
d. all of these
22. Any agents that may stimulate the immune system and enhance the response without having any
specific antigenic effect by itself.
a. antigens
b. allergens
c. adjuvants
d. carriers
23. The ability of an individual antibody – combing site to react with more than one antigenic determinant site of
the antigen is called ___________
a. Cross reactivity
b. affinity of antibody c. avidity of antibody d. specificity of antibody
24. The Ig involved in host defence against parasitic infection (helminths)
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgE
25. Antibodies produced by plasma cells are ____________
a) specific
b) produced against the epitope that triggered B cell activation
c) both a and b
d) diverse
Section – B
26. Write an account on antibodies.
27. Describe briefly about cross reactive antigens.
28. Distinguish between epitope and paratope.
29. Describe briefly about Freund’s complete and incomplete antigen.
30. Give a detailed account on properties of antibodies.
31. Write a note on T-independent antigen.
32. Write a detailed note on the factors that influence the antigenicity and immunogenicity.
Section – C
33. Write in detail about the structure, types and functions of immunoglobulins.
34. Discuss the properties of different types of antigens.
35. Write a detailed account on antibody diversity.
Unit – III
Section – A
1. The complement receptor absent in T cell is ____________
a. CR 1
b. CR 2
c. CR 3
d. CR4
2. Which is the most sensitive method to detect antigens present in trace amounts?
a. Immunofluorescence
b. ELISA
c. RIA
d. Passive haemagglutination
3. Agglutination reaction is more sensitive than precipitation for the detection of _____________
a. antigens b. antibodies
c. complement
d. antigen-antibody complexes
4. Precipitation reaction is relatively less sensitive for the detection of ______________
a. antigens
b. antigen-antibody complexes
c. antibodies
d. complement
5. Ring test is used for ____________
a. Creactive protein test
b. Ascoli's thermoprecipitation test
c. typing of streptococci and pneumococci
d. all of the above
6. Precipitation reaction can be converted into agglutination reaction by coating soluble antigen onto
a. bentonite particles
b. RBCs
c. latex particles
d. all of these
7. Commercially available ELISA kits are used for the detection of ______________
a. rotavirus
b. hepatitis B surface antigen
c. anti-HIV antibodies
d. all of these
8. Monoclonal antibody production requires _______________
a. mouse splenic lymphocytes
b. mouse myeloma cells
c. both (a) and (b)
d. none of these
9. Quellung reaction is used for typing of _______________
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae and Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
10. In which of the following case a large lattice is formed?
a. Antibody is in excess
b. Antigens and antibodies are in optimal proportion
c. Antigen is in excess
d. None of these
11. Complement is ___________
a. an antibody
b. an antigen
c. Natural substances in serum
d. regain
12. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is known as ________________
a. Agglutination
b. Precipitation
c. Flocculation
d. Complement fixation
13. Overall ability of antibodies to interact with antigen is _____________
a. Cross reactivity b. Affinity of antibody c. Avidity of antibody d. Specificity of antibody
14. Agglutination tests used in diagnostic serology is ___________
a. Rh blood typing
b. Wasserman test
c. ELISA
d. analysis of serum protein
15. Kahn test is example for ________________
a. Agglutination
b. Precipitation test c. Immunodiffusion test
d. Flocculation test
16. The anti-globulin test is otherwise called ________________
a. Coombs test
b. Ring test
c. Kahn test
d. VDRL test
17. RAST is _______________
a. Radioallosorbent test
b. Radioallergosorbet test c. Radioassay simulation test
18. Fluorescent treponemal antibody test is an example of ____________
a. indirect Immunofluorescence b. direct Immunofluorescence
c. both (a) and (b)
19. Counter immunoelectrophoresis is used for the detection of _____________
a. Meningococcal antigen
b. Hepatitis B surface antigen
c. Alphafetoprotein
d. All of these
20. Slide agglutination reaction is/are useful for the identification of the culture(s) of ____________
a. Shigella
b. E. coli
c. Salmonella
d. both a and c
21. Amount of various immunoglobulin classes can be measured by ________________
a. double diffusion in one dimension
b. single diffusion in two dimensions
c. single diffusion in one dimension
d. double diffusion in two dimensions
22. The direct ELISA test requires ________________
a. known antibody b. known antigen
c. complement
d. patient antibody
23. Hybridoma technology was developed by ______________
a. Kohler and Milstein
b. Khorana and Nirenberg
c. Khorana and Korenberg
d. Beedle and Tautum
24. Which of the following cell is made deficient of hypoxanthine guanyl phosphoribosyl transferase
(HGPRT) enzyme?
a. B cells
b. hybrid cells
c. myeloma cells
d. none of these
25. What indicates a positive reaction in the complement fixation test?
a. Antigen-antibody precipitation
b. Solubilization of sheep red blood cells
c. No haemolysis of sheep red blood cells d. Haemolysis of sheep red blood cells
Section – B
26. Explain briefly about classical complement pathway
27. Describe briefly about Radio Immuno Assay (RIA) and its applicaitons
28. Explain briefly about Radioallergo – sorbent technique (RAST) and its uses
29. Describe briefly about mechanism of precipitation
30. Explain briefly about the serology and its applicaiton
31. Write in detail about flow cytometry
Section – C
32. Write in detailed account of Hybridoma technology
33. Explain in detail about alternate pathway of complement
34. Write in detail about ELISA and its applications
35. Explain about Immunofluorescence
Unit – IV
Section - A
1. Cell mediated hypersensitivity is ____________
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity
2. Mediators of the type IV hypersensitivity reaction is ____________
a. Cytokines
b. Complement proteins
c. Histamine
d. Serotoxin
3. One principal function of the Class I and Class II major histocompatibility complex S proteins is to
a. transduce the signal to the T-cell interior following antigen binding
b. mediate immunoglobulin class switching
c. present antigen for recognition by the T-cell antigen receptor
d. stimulate production of interleukins
e. bind complement
4. T-cell antigen receptors are distinguished from antibodies by which of the following
a. T-Cell receptors are glycosylated
b. T-cell receptors must interact with antigen uniquely presented by other cells but not with free
antigen
c. T-Cell receptors bind various cytokines
d. T-Cell receptors bind complement to lyse cells
e. T-cell receptors are mediators of allergic reactions
5. T-cell receptors or antibodies react with antigens
a. because both are made by lymphocytes
b. because of complementary of molecular fit of both with antigen
c. because both have light chain and heavy chain polypeptides
d. cause histamine release
6. Which of the following uniquely distinguishes the T-cell receptor (TCR) from an antibody?
a. The TCR can bind an antigen fragment only in a trimolecular complex with either the class I
or class II surface proteins of the major histocompatibility complex
b. The TCR can function as a cell surface antigen receptor
c. The TCR is composed of two different types of polypeptide chains
d. The TCR is capable of participating in a cytotoxic reaction
7. The major histocompatibility complex proteins function to
a. degrade T4 and T8 polypeptides
b. bind antibody for lymphokine production
c. bind complement for cell lysis
d. bind antigen fragments for presentation to T-cells
8. Class I MHC proteins are
a. able to carry an antigen fragment
b. recognized by the T8 (or CD8) protein
c. used in combination with an antigen fragment to mark a cell for killing by cytotoxic T-cells
d. All the above
9. The T-cell receptor
a. Is composed of four polypeptide chains
b. is secreted into the plasma by the T-cell
c. Is the recognition element of the humoral arm of the immune system
d. recognizes antigen fragments via the alpha and beta chains
10. Killer T-cells effect their killing
a. by antibodies with specific recognition capabilities
b. by Inserting the complement components, CS and C9, into the target cell membrane
c. by the T- cell antigen receptor and Class MHC proteins
d. By inserting a pore forming protein called perforin into the target cell membrane
11. Immune complex mediate ___________
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity
12. MHC class I molecules present antigens to ____________
a. B cells
b. CD8 + Tc cells
c. CD4 + T4 cells
d. dendritic cells
13. Pollen would most likely evoke which type of hypersensitivity response:
a. Cytotoxic (Type II) b. Immune complex (Type III)
c. Cell Mediated (Type IV)
d. Immediate type (Type I)
14. Which of the following bind to mast cells and cross-link, resulting in de-granulation and release of
histamine?
a. IgM
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. Interleukins
e. IgE
15. Type II hypersensitivity is due to:
a. IgE
b. Activation of cytotoxic T cells
c. Pollen
d. IgM e. Mismatched blood
types in transfusion
16. Production of auto-antibodies may be due to:
a. Emergence of mutant clones of B cells
b. Production of antibodies against sequestered (hidden) tissues
c. genetic factors
d. all are possible
17. A positive tuberculin test is an example of ______________
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Delayed type hypersensitivity
c. acute contact dermatitis
d. Eczema
e. Pollen allergic response
18. An example of a type III immune complex disease is:
a. Contact dermatitis b. Graft rejection
c. Serum sickness
d. Atopy
e. Allergies
19. Which of the following describes an activated dendritic cell upon arriving in a lymph node?
a. Located in follicles and medulla of the lymph node
b. Associated mainly with antigen uptake and processing
c. Bears highly elaborated finger-like processes called dendrites
d. Expresses low levels of MHC class II molecules
e. Carries out apoptosis of lymphocytes
20. Which of the following cell types is not considered a professional antigen-presenting cell?
a. macrophage
b. neutrophil
c. B cell
d. dendritic cell
e. all of the above are professional antigen-presenting cells
21. MHC molecules have promiscuous binding specificity. This means that _________________
a. a particular MHC molecule has the potential to bind to different peptides
b. when MHC molecules bind to peptides, they are degraded
c. peptides bind with low affinity to MHC molecules
d. none of the above describes promiscuous binding specificity
22. Cells which have MHC Class II are _______, which present _______antigen to TH cells
a. antigen presenting cells, endogenous
b. antigen presenting cells, exogenous
c. infected cells, inflammatory
d. target cells, endogenous
23. The endogenous antigen presentation requires delivery of antigen peptides to the endoplasmic
reticulum by ______________
a. class I MHC and invariant chain
b. calnexin and tapasin
c. HLA-DM
d. leader sequence
24. The major histocompatibility complex proteins functions to _______.
a. degrade T4 and T8 polypeptides
b. bind antibody for lymphokine production
c. bind complement for cell lysis
d. bind antigen fragments for presentation to T-cells
25. The signal transduction molecules associated with TCR is ________________
a. CD1
b. CD3
c. CD4
d. CD8
Section – B
26. Write an account on T-cell receptor complex
27. What is hypersensitivity? Write an account on IgE mediated hypersensitivity
28. Write notes on role of B cells against protozoan infection
29. Explain the types of T-cells
30. Write notes on role of B cells against viral infection
31. Write a note on delayed type hypersensitivity
Section – C
32. Give a detailed account on MHC antigens and its function
33. Give an elaborates notes on immunity to infectious diseases
34. Explain about the various types of hypersensitivity reactions with the salient points of each type
Unit – V
Section - A
1. Graft versus host disease results when the recipient lacks or has a poor immune system, and the donor
organ and recipient express different:
a. HLA
b. T cells
c. Antibodies
d. Autoantibodies
e. Interleukins
2. α-gammaglobulinemia is an immunodeficiency disease due to a deficiency in:
a. T cells
b. MHC
c. IgE
d. Cytokines
e. B cells
3. Why is using an adjuvant in a vaccine preparation advantageous?
a. It prevents pain during the injection
b. It alleviates the necessity of booster doses of the vaccine
c. It enhances the immunogenicity of the antigen
d. It helps prevent back mutations of attenuated microbes
e. It prevents local reactions at the injection site
4. Which disease would be most similar to AIDS in its pathology?
a. SCID
b. DiGeorge Syndrome
c. Agammaglobulinemia d. ADA deficiency
5. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) binds specifically to which immune cell marker?
a. CD8
b. MHC
c. CDC
d. CD4
e. GP120
6. HIV has a high mutation rate due to the imprecise operation of its:
a. Viral membrane
b. CD4 receptor
c. Reverse transcriptase
d. protease
7. Pregnancy test detects the presence of which of the following?
a. Rh
b. Human Chorionic Gonadotropoin (HCG)
c. Fetal proteins
d. Agglutination
e. Depuration factor
8. Which of the following is considered an autoimmune disease?
a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. AIDS
c. SCID
d. agammaglobulinemia
e. CJD
9. A transplant between individuals of different animal species is termed a ____________
a. allograft
b. isograft
c. enterograft
d. endograft e. xenograft
10. Production of auto-antibodies may be due to _______________
a. Emergence of mutant clones of B cells
b. Production of antibodies against sequestered (hidden) tissues
c. genetic factors
d. all are possible
e. None of these
11. A positive tuberculin test is an example of _______________
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Delayed type hypersensitivity c. acute contact dermatitis
d. Eczema
e. Pollen allergic response
12. Rheumatoid arthritis is an ……….disease that affects the……….
a. Allergic/ cartilage
b. Autoimmune/nerves
c. Autoimmune/ joints
d. Immunodeficiency/ muscles
e. Allergic/ muscles
13. Contact with poison ivy would elicit which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. type III
b. type I
c. type II
d. type IV
e. type V
14. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem?
a. potentially lethal graft versus host disease
b. high risk of T cell leukemia
c. inability to use a live donor
d. delayed hypersensitivity
15. Grafts between genetically identical individuals (i.e., identical twins)
a. are rejected slowly as a result of minor histocompatibility antigens
b. are subject to hyperacute rejection
c. are not rejected, even without immunosuppression
d. are not rejected if a kidney is grafted, but skin grafts are rejected
16. Chemically induced tumors have tumor associated transplantation antigens that ____________
a. are always the same for a given carcinogen
b. are different for two tumors of different histologic type even if induced by the same
carcinogen
c. are very strong antigens
d. do not induce an immune response
17. Graft between members of different species are called _______________
a. Isograft
b. Allograft
c. Xenograft
d. Autograft
18. _____________ coined the term vaccine
a. Jenner
b. Pasteur
c. Lister
d. Robert Koch
19. Tissue transplant between genetically different individual is __________
a. Allograft
b. Isograft
c. Autograft
d. Xenograft
20. Persons having myeloma in their body are _____________
a. Immunologically normal
b. Immuno suppressed
c. Immunologically protective
d. Resistant to infections
21. The tumor arising from epithelial cells is called ____________
a. Sarcoma
b. Carcinoma
c. Lymphoma
d. Leukemia
22. Primary immunodeficiency disorders caused by defective B cells as well as T cells is called _______
a. Di-George syndrome
b. Chediak-Higashi disease c. Hereditary neutropaemia
d. Severe combined immunodeficiency disorders (SCID)
23. The vaccine made by Louis Pasteur against Chicken cholera was ___________
a. attenuated vaccine
b. heat killed vaccine
c. subunit vaccine
d. live vaccine
24. Vaccination is an example of ______________
a. Naturally acquired active immunity
b. Artificially acquired active immunity
c. Naturally acquired passive immunity
25. Corticosteroids mainly suppress allograft rejection by suppressing ___________
a. macrophage function
b. T-cell function
c. antibodies synthesis
d. neutrophil function
Section – B
26. Explain briefly the allograft rejection
27. Briefly explain any two immunodeficiency diseases
28. Give an account on the factors involved in tumor immunology
29. Write about the various immunization schedules for children
20. Give an account on Immunotherapy in cancer
31. Explain the different types of vaccination methods
Section – C
32. Write an essay on tumor antigens
33. What is vaccines? Describe the different types of vaccination
34. Write an essay on transplantation.