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Multiple Choice Review
1.
We know that the kinetic energy of an object can be calculated utilizing the
formula KE = 1/2mv2. Suppose the KE of helium atoms is equal to the KE of
iron atoms. Why might one have a much higher velocity than the other?
a. difference in number of protons
b. difference in number of electrons
c. difference in atomic mass
d. difference in kinetic energy
2.
Some characteristics are true for all elements on the periodic table. Which of
the following statements accurately identifies one such characteristic?
a. The less mass the higher velocity, if all other conditions are equal
b. The atoms from all elements are light enough to escape from Earth’s
atmosphere.
c. All atoms found on Earth, were once found within stars
d. Both A & C
3.
Organic monomers may have originated on Earth, but may also have been
brought to early Earth. What is one theory of how they might have been
brought to Earth?
a. organic monomers were brought to Earth by alien plants and animals
b. organic monomers originated from stars that exploded long ago
c. organic monomers were brought to Earth by meteorites
d. organic monomers were brought to Earth by comets.
4.
Stanley Miller developed an experiment to test which hypothesis
a. that organic monomers originated on Earth
b. that organic monomers originated in stars
c. that organic monomers were brought to Earth
d. that organic monomers developed after cells
5.
Ultimately, others have developed experiments expanding upon Stanley
Miller’s work. In these more recent experiments, which of the following
molecules have been produced?
a. Proteins
b. Cells
c. Sugars
d. All of the above
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Biology
Midterm Review
6.
If chemical evolution requires specific conditions, what are those conditions?
a. oxygen present - inorganic molecules - adequate time - hydrogen and
helium in atmosphere
b. oxygen absent- inorganic molecules present - high energy input adequate time
c. oxygen absent - organic polymers present - low UV radiation adequate time
d. oxygen present - organic polymers present - ozone present - adequate
time
7.
Identify the process shown in the illustration below:
http://kasper-achs-block2.wikispaces.com
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dehydration synthesis
Hydration synthesis
Hydrolysis
De-polymerization
8.
One end of a phospholipid molecule forms hydrogen bonds with water. We
can describe this end of the molecule as the _________________.
a. polar hydrophilic end
b. polar hydrophobic end
c. non-polar hydrophilic end
d. non-polar hydrophobic end
9.
Which of the characteristics of life relate to an organism’s change as it
proceeds through a life cycle?
a. adaptation
b. development
c. sexual reproduction
d. response
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Biology
Midterm Review
10.
Which characteristic refers to regulation?
a. Adaptation
b. Environmental response
c. Adaptation
d. Homeostasis
11.
The extinction of the American mastodon occurred approximately 6,000
years ago. If the average human lifetime is 70 years, approximately how
many lifetimes ago did these animals become extinct?
a. 8.6 lifetimes
b. 86 lifetimes
c. 420,000 lifetimes
d. 4,200 lifetimes
Use the table provided below to answer questions 12, 13, and 14
Event
Time
Event
Time
Formation of Earth
4.6 BYA
Mammals
200 MYA
3.6 BYA
Birds
150 MYA
A.
First Prokaryotic Cell
3.5 BYA
Photosynthesis (in
3.0 BYA
Cyanobacteria)
First Eukaryotic Cell (single
2.0 BYA
celled)
D.
85 MYA
Dinosaurs Extinction
65 MYA
First Hominids (Genus Homo)
2.5 MYA
1.0 BYA
First Homo habilis (species of
hominid that made the first stone
tools)
2.4 MYA
600 MYA
First Homo neanderthalensis
350,000 YA
Simple Animals in Oceans
600 MYA
First Early Humans (Homo sapiens) 100,000 YA
Fish
500 MYA
Extinction of Homo
neanderthalensis
30,000 YA
First Vertebrate appears
(fish)
480 MYA
Extinction of Wooly Mammoth
10,000 YA
360 MYA
Extinction of America Mastodon
6, 000 YA
320 MYA
The Fall of the Roman Empire
1,500 YA
First Eukaryote (multicellular)
B.
C.
Reptiles
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Biology
Midterm Review
12.
LUCA existed during the time period marked
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
13.
The first single celled eukaryote occurred approximately ____________ years
after the Earth was formed.
a. 3.6 billion
b. 2.6 billion
c. 2.6 million
d. 3.6 million
14.
Approximately how long after the first vertebrates appeared, did dinosaurs
become extinct?
a. 39.5 my
b. 480 my
c. 395 my
d. 48.0 my
15.
Amino acids have an identifiable structure. Which of the following accurately
represents that structure?
a. ammonia - carbon group - side chain
b. NO2 - COH - side chain
c. NH3 - COOH - side chain
d. N2OH- COOH - side chain
16.
When proteins are formed , their monomers are linked together to form
a _____________.
a. polypeptide
b. monopeptide
c. bipeptide
d. plurapeptide
17.
Which of the following statements best describes the impact of the structure
of proteins?
a. The structure of a protein is the major factor in its function.
b. The structure of a protein has some impact on its function.
c. The structure of a protein can change, without impacting its function.
d. The structure of a protein results from being changed by enzyme
reactions.
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Biology
Midterm Review
18.
Glucose is an example of a(n) __________________, and is a ___________________.
a. inorganic molecule; carbohydrate
b. carbohydrate; disaccharide
c. protein; monocarbohydrate
d. carbohydrate; monosaccharide
19.
Polysaccharides play important roles in cells. Which of the following
correctly matches one type of polysaccharide with its primary function?
a. starch, storage
b. starch, cell walls
c. glucose, cell walls
d. cellulose, storage
20.
There are five types of nitrogenous bases, four of which are found within
DNA molecules. These are:
a. adenine, thymine, guanine, uracil
b. adenine, uracil, guanine, cytosine
c. adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine
d. adenine, uracil, phosphate, ribose
21.
The nucleotides of DNA pair bond utilizing ___________________ bonds.
_____________ bonds with guanine and _________________ bonds with
________________.
a. oxygen; cytosine, adenine, uracil
b. hydrogen; guanine, adenine, cytosine
c. hydrogen; cytosine, adenine, thymine
d. helium; cytosine, adenine, thymine
22.
The image below represents a(n) __________________ fatty acid, identifiable
because of its _______________ bond(s).
a.
b.
c.
d.
saturated fat; single carbon
saturated fat; double carbon
unsaturated; double carbon
unsaturated, single carbon
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Biology
Midterm Review
Use the table of results below to answer question 23
Results from an experiment testing for presence of specific chemicals. Indicators
used are listed across the top of the chart.
unknown
Lugol’s iodine
Sudan stain
Biuret reagent
1
positive
Negative
negative
23.
The results of the lab tests performed (shown in the data table above)
indicate that unknown #1 contains _______________. This is because the
_________________ changed from light brown to blue black during the test.
a. proteins; Lugol’s
b. sugars; Biuret
c. starch; Lugol’s
d. lipids; Lugol’s
24.
The image below represents monomer of a nucleic acid. Which of the lists
below accurately identifies the components of this monomer?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25.
1 = sugar; 2 = phosphate; 3 = base
1 = base; 2 = sugar; 3 = phosphate
1 = phosphate; 2 = sugar; 3 = base
1 = sugar; 2 = base; 3 = phosphate
Cell membranes allow some materials to pass freely, therefore, they are
considered to be _____________________________
a. selectively permeable
b. ionically permeable
c. completely permeable
d. protein permeable
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Biology
Midterm Review
Use the illustration below to answer
60gNaCl
300ml water
3g NaCl,
30ml
water
26.
Using the information found within the illustration above, determine the
concentration of NaCl outside of the cell and the concentration of NaCl inside
of the cell.
a. Outside = 2.0g/ml; inside = 0.1g/ml
b. Outside = 5.0g/ml; inside = 10.0g/ml
c. Outside = 50.0g/ml; inside =1.0g/ml
d. Outside = 0.20g/ml; inside 0.10g/ml
27.
Based upon the concentrations of NaCl inside and outside of the bag, the
outside environment is considered to be ____________________ relative to the
inside of the bag.
a. hypertonic
b. isotonic
c. hypotonic
d. equatonic
28.
A cell will likely shrink or shrivel up when placed into a ______________________
environment.
a. Hypotonic
b. Hypertonic
c. Isotonic
d. Neutral tonic
29.
What do facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common?
a. They both involved the movement of molecules from low
concentration to high concentration.
b. They both involve the transport but facilitated diffusion requires
energy for movement across the cell membrane.
c. They both involve the movement of molecules that require proteins
for movement across the cell membrane.
d. They both involve the movement of molecules from high
concentration to low concentration.
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Biology
Midterm Review
30.
What is the purpose of active transport if molecules can already move into
and out of the cell by diffusion or facilitated transport?
a. Some molecules must move down the concentration gradient and
energy is required to accomplish this.
b. Water molecules need to move even when solutions are isotonic and
energy is needed for this.
c. Some molecules must move against the concentration gradient and
energy is needed to accomplish this.
d. Molecules that are too large to pass directly through the phospholipid
membrane must use energy to pass through.
Cells are placed in a liquid environment. The concentration of glucose outside of the
cells is 30mg/ml. The concentration of glucose inside of the cells is 3g/l. Use this
information to answer questions 35 below:
31.
Assuming the glucose is the only solute, in which direction will osmosis
occur?
a. Water will diffuse into the cell.
b. Water will diffuse out of the cell.
c. Water is already in equilibrium
d. The solute will move out of the cell.
32.
The formation of a membrane has allowed cells to regulate materials coming
into and out of the cell. This allows the cell to maintain _____________________.
a. an isotonic state
b. acidic pH
c. isolation
d. homeostasis
33.
Molarity is one way to measure the concentration of a solution. We dissolve
0.15 moles of KMnO4 in 0.75 L of solution. What is the molarity of the
solution?
a. 0.5M
b. 2.0M
c. 0.2M
d. 5.0M
34.
Which of the following characteristics are not associated with catalysts?
a. Change G of the reaction
b. Speed up reactions
c. Remain unchanged
d. Lower activation energy
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35.
The graphs below show the same reaction, with the energy of activation
required for each reaction. Which graph represents the reaction with the
contribution of an enzyme?
http://cnx.org/content/m46004/latest/?collection=col11496/latest
a.
b.
c.
d.
a represents the reaction with the enzyme
b represents the reaction with the enzyme
neither represents the reaction with the enzyme
both represent the reaction with the enzyme
36.
How might a significant variation from the optimal temperature or pH affect
an enzyme in a reaction?
a. The enzyme will perform faster if the pH and temperature are
extremely high.
b. The enzyme will perform slower if the pH and temperature are
extremely high.
c. Any significant variation will denature the enzyme.
d. Any significant variation will cause dehydration synthesis in the
enzyme.
37.
There are a few ways in which the human body will increase internal
temperature above the normal 37o Celsius. Why might this potentially be a
problem?
a. The optimal temperature for bacterial enzymes are 40oC and above.
b. At 40oC and above, bacterial enzymes will be denatured.
c. At 40oC and above, human enzymes will be denatured.
d. The optimal temperature for viral enzymes are 40oC and above.
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Biology
Midterm Review
Use the data provided in the table below to answer this question:
“Normal” values for human blood test for five indicators:
Partial pressure of oxygen
75-100 mmHg
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
38-42 mmHg
Arterial blood pH
7.38 – 7.42
Oxygen saturation
94 – 100%
Bicarbonate
22-28 mg/L
38.
Based upon the data provided, enzymes found in our blood most likely have
an optimal pH range, which is ___________________.
a. neutral
b. basic
c. acidic
d. acidic or basic
39.
The graph below shows the action of two enzymes, pepsin and trypsin, both
of which are found in the human body. Trypsin is found primarily within the
small intestine while pepsin is found within the stomach. What is the pH of
the stomach and small intestine?
a.
b.
c.
d.
40.
Both tend to be neutral environments
The small intestine is acidic while the stomach is basic
The small intestine is neutral while the stomach is basic
The small intestine is neutral while the stomach is acidic
Which of the following is not true regarding the active site of an enzyme?
a. It is specific to a substrate
b. It may require a cofactor
c. It can be denatured
d. It can be utilized only once
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Biology
Midterm Review
41.
Which of the following best describes how a competitive inhibitor may affect
the enzyme substrate complex?
a. A competitive inhibitor binds to non-active site obstructing the
reaction.
b. A competitive inhibitor binds to a non-active site encouraging the
reaction.
c. A competitive inhibitor binds to the active site encouraging the
reaction.
d. A competitive inhibitor binds to the active site obstructing the
reaction.
42.
The image below represents a type of inhibition. Which type of inhibition is
seen in this illustration?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Competitive inhibition
Non-competitive inhibition
Accidental inhibition
Irreversible inhibition
43.
Increasing the concentration of the substrate in the above situation will most
likely
a. Inhibit the reaction
b. Inhibit the enzyme’s function
c. Increase the enzyme concentration
d. Increase the rate of the reaction
44.
Below is an illustration representing how a product of a reaction can have an
impact on the reaction itself. What type of interaction is seen in this
illustration?
a.
b.
c.
d.
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Biology
Allosteric inhibition
Feedback activation
Allosteric denaturation
Feedback inhibition
Midterm Review
45.
What molecules and bonding connects one strand of DNA to another strand
of DNA?
a. Purine and pyrimidine connected by hydrogen bonds
b. Purine and purine connected by hydrogen bonds
c. Pyrimidine and pyrimidine connected by hydrogen bonds
d. Sugar and base connected by hydrogen bonds.
46.
Both DNA and RNA contain codes for the production of molecules. Where is
this code contained?
a. in the sequence of phosphate groups
b. in the sequence of amino acids
c. in the sequence of bases
d. in the sequence of sugars
47.
If one strand of DNA is A-A-T-C-C-C-T-G-A what is the base sequence of the
complimentary strand of DNA?
a. A-A-U-G-G-G-U-G-A
b. A-A-T-C-C-C-T-G-A
c. U-U-A-C-C-C-U-G-A
d. T-T-A-G-G-G-A-C-T
48.
In DNA replication, what is the template strand of a DNA molecule?
a. This is the newly produced DNA strand
b. This is the parent strand of DNA
c. This is the parent strand of RNA
d. This is the newly produced RNA strand
49.
The illustration below shows a section of a single strand of a DNA molecule.
To which end is the new DNA nucleotide attached, and what is this end of the
DNA called?
a.
b.
c.
d.
50.
End 1; this is the 3’ end of the strand.
End 2; is the 3’ end of the strand
End 1; this is the 5’ end of the strand
End 2; is the 5’ end of the strand
Once RNA is produced, what is its function?
a. to deliver sugar for metabolism to the
ribosome
b. to deliver the genetic code to the outside
of the cell
c. to deliver the sugar to the mitochondria
d. to deliver the genetic code to the
ribosome
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Biology
Midterm Review
51.
When RNA is produced from a DNA template, there is a specific region just
before the actual start of RNA production. What is this region called, and
what is the process called?
a. Initiation region; translation
b. Promoter; transcription
c. Promoter; translation
d. Initiation; RNA processing
52.
The structure of proteins is directly related to their ability to perform their
function(s) within the cell. Which of the following factors is the primary
factor affecting protein structure?
a. sequence of amino acids
b. two dimensional shape
c. where the protein is produced
d. type of bonds between monomers
53.
The process of using the information within mRNA to produce a protein is
called
a. replication
b. translation
c. transcription
d. transduction
54.
The mRNA base sequence is considered a code. Three bases are read at a
time. What is this three base code called and what does it code for?
a. tri-code, DNA
b. base coding, more RNA
c. coding code, amino acids
d. codon, amino acids
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Biology
Midterm Review
The chart below shows the mRNA codes for amino acids. Use this chart to
answer
http://www.oconee.k12.sc.us/webpages/tstanton/index.cfm?subpage=47164
55.
A portion of an mRNA sequence to be “de-coded” is C-G-U-U-A-C-G-C-U
What will the amino acid sequence be for the protein produced from this
section of mRNA?
a. arginine, stop
b. arginine, tyrosine, alanine
c. alanine, methionine, arginine
d. alanine, tyrosine, alanine
56.
Which of the following will be the amino acid sequence from the DNA
template sequence of C-C-G-T-A-T-G-A-T ?
a. glycine, isoleucine, leucine
b. proline, tyrosine, aspartate
c. glycine, tyrosine, leucine
d. proline, isoleucine, aspartate
57.
The central dogma of biology refers to which of the following?
a. The concept that RNA leads to DNA, which leads to proteins through
transcription and translation.
b. The concept that translation is the most important step in the process
of producing proteins from DNA and RNA
c. The concept that proteins carry the same genetic code that originates
in the DNA.
d. The concept that DNA, via transcription, results in RNA, which, via
translation, results in proteins.
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Biology
Midterm Review
58.
Which of the following accurately reflects the central dogma of biology?
a. Changes in proteins will affect DNA, but not the reverse.
b. Changes to DNA will affect proteins, but not the reverse.
c. Changes in proteins will affect RNA, but not the reverse.
d. Changes in RNA will affect DNA, but not the reverse.
59.
What is the primary role played by tRNA?
a. It carries the protein away from the ribosome.
b. It carries the mRNA to the ribosome.
c. It brings an amino acid to the ribosome.
d. It contains a codon for each amino acid.
60.
What is the “A” site?
a. A site within the ribosome where RNA processing occurs.
b. A site within the ribosome where tRNA is produced.
c. A site within the ribosome where amino acids are delivered.
d. A site within the ribosome where the new protein is emerging.
61.
The “codes” between the mRNA and tRNA are said to be complimentary.
Which of the following best explains how this is utilized in the production of
proteins?
a. The bases on the mRNA match up with the bases on tRNA, A with U
and C with G.
b. The bases on the mRNA match up with the bases on the tRNA, A with
A, U with U, C with C, and G with G.
c. The bases on the mRNA match up with the bases on the tRNA, A with
T, and C with G.
d. The bases on the mRNA match up with the bases on the tRNA, A with
A, T with T, C with C and G with G.
62.
To code for a particular protein, a gene consists of 12,669 base pairs.
Assuming that 3 base pairs code for the START and 3 base pairs code for
STOP, approximately how many amino acids do we anticipate exist within
the protein?
a. 4223 amino acids
b. 4,222 amino acids
c. 37,989 amino acids
d. 38,007 amino acids
63.
The normal hemoglobin protein consists of 574 amino acids. Approximately
how many base pairs (bp) code for this protein?
a. 191 bp
b. 1,722 bp
c. 287 bp
d. 1,910 bp
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Biology
Midterm Review
64.
Which of the following statements best characterizes anabolic and catabolic
pathways?
a. Anabolic pathways break down molecules while catabolic pathways
synthesize molecules
b. Anabolic pathways synthesize molecules while catabolic pathways
break down molecules.
c. Both pathways synthesize molecules but do so in different ways.
d. Both pathways break down molecules but do so in different ways.
65.
Which of the reactions shown in the graphs below requires a net input of
energy to proceed, and what type of reaction is this?
http://funylool.com
Graph 1
a.
b.
c.
d.
66.
Graph 2
Graph 1, because it is an endergonic reaction
Graph 1, because it is an exergonic reaction.
Graph 2, because it is an endergonic reaction
Graph 2, because it is an exergonic reaction
Cells are classified based upon a variety of characteristics, one of which is
oxygen requirement. The following statements identify a type of cell and it’s
oxygen requirement. Which of the following is accurate?
a. Obligate aerobes can survive in the presence or absence of oxygen.
b. Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.
c. Obligate aerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.
d. Obligate anaerobes can survive in the presence or absence of oxygen.
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Biology
Midterm Review
The image below represents the steps of one of the processes of cellular
respiration. Use this illustration to respond to the next two questions.
67.
Identify the process shown in the image above.
a. photosystem 2
b. glycolysis
c. electron transport chain
d. citric acid cycle
68.
How many net ATP are produced through the process shown in the image
above?
a. 38
b. 4
c. 6
d. 2
69.
By the end of the citric acid (Krebs) cycle, one molecule of glucose has
produced ATP. However, the vast majority of the potential energy is stored
in the form of
a. ADP and FAD
b. CO2 and NADH
c. NADH and FADH2
d. Pyruvate and NAD
70.
Cellular respiration is made up of four stages. Which of the following lists 3
of these stages accurately and in the correct order?
a. Glycolysis, electron transport, Krebs cycle
b. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain
c. Electron transport chain, glycolysis Krebs cycle
d. Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis
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Biology
Midterm Review
71.
Anaerobic respiration occurs ____________________________________.
a. when oxygen is present
b. when oxygen is absent
c. when NAD is present
d. when carbon dioxide is absent
72.
Which of the following equations represents the reactants and products of
the Light Dependent Reactions of photosynthesis?
a. 2H2O + 2NADP- + 3ADP + 3P
O2 + 2NADPH + 3 ATP
b. O2 + 2NADPH + 3 ATP
light energy +2H2O + 3ADP + 3P
c. C6H12O6 + 6O2 + light energy
6H2O + 6CO2
d. light energy + 6H2O + 6CO2
C6H12O6 + 6O2
73.
The illustration below represents a process considered to be the first
type of photosynthesis to originate.
Which system is utilized to perform the process shown in the image above?
a. the mitochondria
b. the chloroplast
c. photosystem II
d. photosystem I
74.
Carbon fixing is best described as:
a. Carbon dioxide, as a gas in the atmosphere, is converted into glucose.
b. Oxygen is utilized to produce the carbon compound, glucose.
c. The carbon compound glucose is utilized to produce oxygen gas.
d. Carbon dioxide, as a gas in the atmosphere, is converted into free
carbon.
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Biology
Midterm Review
Use the image of the Calvin Cycle below to respond to question 78.
75.
To make one glucose molecule, how many ATP, NADPH and CO2 molecules
are needed?
a. 3CO2, 9ATP and 6NADPH
b. 6CO2, 18ATP and 12NADPH
c. 9CO2, 27ATP and 18NADPH
d. CO2, 3ATP and 2NADPH
NAD+ and FAD are key molecules involved the process of cell respiration.
Their chemical reactions are shown below. Use these equations to respond to
questions 79 and 80.
76.
NAD+ + 2H+ +2e- + energy
NADH + H+
FAD + 2H+ +2e- + energy
FADH2
When the reaction proceeds to the right, energy is:
a. released
b. created
c. destroyed
d. stored
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Biology
Midterm Review
77.
When the reaction proceeds to the left, and electrons are removed, this is
referred to as the process of:
a. oxidation
b. phosphorylation
c. electronization
d. reduction
78.
What role do enzymes play in the metabolism of a cell?
a. They catalyze the steps of anabolic pathways allowing the release of
energy to power other reactions.
b. They catalyze the steps of a pathway, allowing the pathway to proceed
more quickly
c. They catalyze catabolic pathways, as energy is required for the
reactions to occur.
d. They catalyze the breakdown of molecules but not the synthesis of
molecules.
79.
The production of lactic acid, such as in muscles after vigorous exercise, is an
example of which of the following processes?
a. aerobic respiration
b. fermentation
c. cyclic energy transfer
d. Krebs cycle
80.
What is the approximate percentage of ATP produced during the electron
transport chain (oxidative phosphorylation) compared to that produced by
all stages of aerobic respiration combined?
a. 5.5%
b. 11.1%
c. 89.5%
d. 99.9%
81.
If oxygen is present one NADH yields 3 ATPs and one FADH2 yields 2 ATPs.
What combination of NADH molecules and FADH2 molecules listed below,
will generate 60 ATP molecules?
a. 10 NADH + 10 FADH2
b. 10 NADH + 15 FADH2
c. 15 NADH + 10 FADH2
d. 5 NADH + 15 FADH2
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Biology
Midterm Review
82.
The image below is a representation of the relationships of bacteria, archaea
and eukaryotes.
http://www.sciencepartners.info/?page_id=348
Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between these
three domains?
a. Eukaryotes and bacteria are more closely related than eukaryotes and
archaea.
b. Bacteria and archaea are both related to eukaryotes, which bacteria
being more closely related to eukaryotes.
c. Bacteria and archaea are both related to eukaryotes, with archaea
being more closely related to eukaryotes.
d. Bacteria and archaea are considered non-living, therefore are not
closely related to eukaryotes.
83.
Based upon the structure seen below, what is the genus name of this
organism?
a.
b.
c.
d.
84.
staphylococcus
staphylobaccili
streptococcus
streptobacilli
Prokaryotic cells are similar to and yet different from eukaryotic cells. What
are one major difference and one similarity?
a. Difference: Prokaryotic cells have a cell membrane; Same = both have
cell organelles
b. Difference: Prokaryotic cell DNA is single stranded; Same = both have
cell walls
c. Difference: prokaryotic cells have a single circular DNA chromosome;
Same = both have cell membranes
d. Difference: eukaryotic cells are larger; Same = both have a nucleus
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Biology
Midterm Review
85.
Plasmids are small circular pieces of DNA found within certain cells. How
does the R plasmid benefit prokaryotes?
a. provides resistance to sexual reproduction
b. provides resistance to certain antibiotics
c. provides resistance to mutations
d. provides ability to produce ribosomes
86.
If we assume that a bacterium can double every hour and all of the bacteria
survive and reproduce at the same rate, how long will it take for one
bacterium to reproduce into 500 bacteria?
a. Approximately 5 hours
b. Approximately 6 hours
c. Approximately 9 hours
d. Approximately 10 hours
87.
A bacterial population doubles every 20 minutes. Assuming that the same
pattern of bacterial reproduction continues, and we start with a population
of 100 bacteria, what can we project the bacterial population to be after 80
minutes?
a. 400 bacteria
b. 1,600 bacteria
c. 800 bacteria
d. 300 bacteria
88.
The image below represents a particular section of a prokaryotic
chromosome.
What is the role of the operator, as seen in the image above?
a. The operator acts as an on/off switch.
b. The operator is where the RNA polymerase binds.
c. The operator is direct coding for the amino acid within the protein.
d. The operator alone determines whether or not the protein will be
produced.
89.
The normal populations of bacteria both on and in humans, exhibit what
types of relationships with humans?
a. primarily parasitic and pathogenic
b. primarily mutualistic and pathogenic
c. primarily commensalistic and pathogenic
d. primarily mutualistic and commensalistic
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The image below illustrates the major steps of Griffith’s experiments. Use this image
to respond to questions 93 and 94 below.
90.
Frederick Griffith took the S (smooth) strain of bacteria from the dead mice
seen in Experiment 2 above. He then killed the bacteria using heat. Why,
then, were the mice in Experiment 3 able to survive?
a. The mice had developed a resistance to the S strain bacteria so they
could not be affected.
b. The heat killed S strain could not produce any products in order to
affect the mice.
c. The heat killed S strain shared genetic information causing the mice to
resist the disease.
d. The heat killed S strain bacteria were non-pathogenic to begin with.
91.
What were Griffith’s experiments designed to test?
a. The hypothesis that one cell can transform another by sharing genetic
information, even if dead
b. The hypothesis that mice are resistant to some bacteria but not to
others.
c. The hypothesis that only living organisms can transfer genetic
material to other cells
d. The hypothesis that bacteria and viruses sometimes work together to
kill organisms.
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92.
Which of the following are characteristics of viruses?
a. They can only infect eukaryotic cells.
b. They can infect any and all types of cells.
c. They are living organisms, considered to be parasites.
d. They use cellular materials from the host to reproduce.
93.
Below is a list of steps associated with one type of life cycle of a phage.
i. The particle releases its genetic instructions into the host cell.
ii. The new particles break free from the host cell.
iii. A virus particle attaches to a host cell
iv. The injected genetic material recruits the host cell's enzymes.
v. The enzymes make parts for more new virus particles.
vi. The new particles assemble the parts into new viruses.
Which of the following correctly lists the order of these steps as shown
above?
a. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi
b. vi, i, ii, v, iii, iv
c. ii, iv, vi, i, ii, iii
d. iii, i, iv, v, vi, ii
94.
Some bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotics because of their external
structure. Which type of bacteria is more susceptible?
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. They are equally susceptible.
d. Gram-indeterminate
95.
A certain bacterial strain is particularly virulent. They bacteria are able to
divide every 20 minutes, at body temperature conditions. A woman has a
small open cut on her leg, which is exposed to 100 of these bacteria. She
does not wash her leg until she takes a shower 4 hours later. Estimate how
many bacterial cells are embedded inside of her cut by the time she takes a
shower.
a. 496
b. 4,096
c. 1,200
d. 12,000
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Midterm Review
96.
There are some structures that can be found in all cells, whether prokaryote
or eukaryote, plant or animal. What are these four structures?
a. Chromosomes, ribosomes, cell wall, and a cell membrane.
b. Cell organelles, ribosomes, vacuoles, and a cell membrane.
c. DNA, lysosomes, ribosomes, and a cell membrane.
d. Chromosomes, ribosomes, cytoplasm, and a cell membrane.
97.
Eukaryotic cells contain DNA, and, therefore, genes. What portions of DNA
are contained within each cell of a multicellular organism?
a. Each cell contains only the portions of the DNA material needed to
perform its function.
b. Each cell contains all of the genes required for the entire organism,
but only certain genes are expressed in each cell.
c. Each cell contains half of the total number of chromosomes of the
eukaryotic organism.
d. Each cell contains all of the genes required for the entire organism,
and so can change from one type of cell to another quickly.
98.
When and where does mRNA processing occur?
a. It occurs in the nucleus when transcription begins.
b. It occurs in the cytoplasm after transcription is complete.
c. It occurs in the nucleus after transcription is complete.
d. It occurs in the nucleus during transcription.
99.
What are the two primary steps of mRNA processing?
a. alteration of the mRNA ends and removal of introns
b. Splicing of mRNA, removing exons and leaving introns.
c. alteration of the mRNA ends and attachment of RNA polymerase
d. methylation of the RNA and degradation of RNA.
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Biology
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The illustration below represents an organelle, which is part of the
endomembrane system. Use this illustration to respond to questions 103 and
104 below.
100.
In the illustration above, substances arriving at the Golgi apparatus and then
are leaving the Golgi apparatus. What is contained within the incoming
transport vesicle, and where is it arriving from?
a. glycolipids, from the mitochondria
b. sugars, from the chloroplast
c. glycoproteins, from the rough ER
d. RNA, from the nucleus
101.
Once the Golgi apparatus has processed the incoming substances what can
happen to these substances?
a. They go to smooth ER or rough ER for more processing, or to
ribosomes to make proteins
b. They become a part of cell membrane, are secreted from cell, or are
retained for cell use
c. They become a part of cell wall, move to the nucleus to produce more
DNA, or are retained in the cell for cell use
d. They go to lysosomes or peroxisomes to break down materials, or go
to ribosomes to make proteins
102.
What role do lysosomes play within the cell?
a. They carry sugars to help digest food materials within a vacuole.
b. They can lyse part of the cell membrane to allow molecules to pass.
c. They contain enzymes that can hydrolyze molecules.
d. They contain proteins that can be used to synthesize other molecules.
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103.
Peroxisomes contain substances that perform a specific function for cells.
What are these substances and what do they do?
a. They contain enzymes that hydrolyze hydrogen peroxide.
b. They contain enzymes that synthesize hydrogen peroxide.
c. They contain enzymes that change peroxide to hydrogen peroxide.
d. They contain hydrogen and oxygen, to synthesize hydrogen peroxide.
104.
For endocytosis and/or exocytosis to occur, what must be the structure of
vesicles?
a. Their membrane is made up of a single layer of phospholipids.
b. Their membrane is made up of a double layer of phospholipids.
c. They must contain sugars needed for metabolism.
d. They must contain enzymes to digest the cell membrane.
The illustration below represents three possible transport mechanisms
through the plasma membrane.
a
1
b
c
d
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105.
Examples of types of transport across the cell membrane are shown in the
illustration above. In which of these types of transport are molecules moved
from lower concentration to higher concentration?
a. a.
b. b.
c. c.
d. d.
106.
In the illustration above, which type of transport could accurately represent
the movement of water across the cell membrane?
a. a.
b. b.
c. c.
d. d.
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107.
Chloroplasts and mitochondria both play a role in energy processing for the
cell. What are the roles that each of these organelles play?
a. Chloroplasts convert solar energy into chemical energy while
mitochondria convert chemical energy into ATP.
b. Mitochondria convert solar energy into chemical energy while
chloroplasts convert chemical energy into ATP.
c. Both convert chemical energy into ATP, but using different methods.
d. Chloroplasts convert solar energy into ATP while mitochondria
convert chemical energy into heat.
Images of a mitochondrion and a chloroplast are shown below.
108.
Which of the images above represents a mitochondrion and why?
a. Image 2, because the highly folded structure allows both anaerobic
and aerobic respiration to occur.
b. Image 2, because aerobic cell respiration occurs within the membrane
folds.
c. Image 1, because photosynthesis occurs within the intermembrane
space.
d. Image 1, because the aerobic reactions occur within the thylakoids.
109.
How do plants cells communicate and transfer materials between cells?
a. materials cannot pass between cells because of cell walls
b. adhering junctions fasten plant cells into sheets
c. communicating gap junctions allow materials to pass
d. plasmodesmata are channels between plant cells
110.
What type of cell junction allows for passage of materials between animal
cells?
a. plasmodesmata allow for transfer of materials between animal cells
b. gap junctions are totally leaky and allow substances to flow between
animal cells
c. tight junctions allow material to flow between animal cells
d. adhering junctions allow material to flow between animal cells
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111.
Based upon the animal cell vs. plant cell lab, and the images provided below,
which photo represents a human check cell and why?
a.
b.
c.
d.
112.
Cell 1, because you can see numerous ribosomes
Cell 1, because the cells are not square shaped
Cell 2, because there is no cell wall
Cell 2, because there are no chloroplasts seen
Which of the above cells would you expect to contain a central vacuole, and
what is the purpose of this organelle?
a. Cell 1, serves as a storage location for starch
b. Cell 1, helps maintain the turgor pressure of the cell
c. Cell 2, contains food for the cell
d. Cell 2, expels excessive water from the cell
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Biology
Midterm Review