Download Test # 1. Which of the following is not an electron acceptor or carrier?

Exam 2 (Lessons 10-19)
Test #
1.
Which of the following is not an electron acceptor or carrier?
a)
NADP+
b)
FAD
c)
Oxygen
d)
ATP
2.
Consider the following equation: NAD+ + H+ + 2e- ------> NADH . Which statement is true of the
equation?
a)
NAD+ is reduced in the reaction, forming NADH.
b)
NAD+ is oxidized in the reaction, forming NADH.
3.
Which of the following play a role in chemiosmotic (oxidative) phosphorylation?
a)
A source of electrons.
b)
A terminal electron acceptor.
c)
A Hydrogen pump.
d)
ATP synthase.
e)
Mark e if all play a role in chemiosmotic/oxidative phosphorulation.
4.
Which of following is not an example of an enzymatic cycle?
a)
Krebs cycle.
b)
The Dark Reaction of photosynthesis.
c)
Glycolysis.
5.
Which of the following is required for photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorophyll-b.
b)
Chlorophyll-a.
c)
Xanthophylls.
d)
Carotenes.
6.
Which statement is not true of the chloroplast?
a)
It has an outer membrane and inner membrane.
b)
The inner membrane is highly folded.
c)
Chloroplasts are thought to have evolved from symbiotic prokaryotes.
d)
Mark d if all statements are true.
7.
Electrons lost by Chlorophyll-a at the beginning of photosynthesis (photosystem II) are replaced by
electrons lost from:
a)
Photosystem I.
b)
The enzymatic break up of water molecules.
c)
NADPH
8.
Which of the following is the terminal electron acceptor at the end (of photosystem I) of the light reaction
of photosynthesis?
a)
NADP+ .
b)
Water.
c)
Oxygen.
d)
ATP.
9.
What causes ATP synthase to make ATP from ADP and phosphate?
a)
Energy from the hydrolysis of ATP.
b)
The diffusion of Hydrogen ions through the ATP synthase molecule.
10.
Which of the following is absorbed by the leaves of the plant and is required for photosynthesis?
a)
NADPH
b)
CO2
c)
ATP
11.
Which of the following is not required for the Dark reaction of photosynthesis?
a)
NADPH
b)
CO2
c)
ATP
d)
Mark d if all are required for the Dark reaction of photosynthesis.
12.
In the Calvin cycle (dark reaction) what molecule binds (fixes) carbon dioxide for eventual glucose
production?
a)
RUBP.
b)
NADP.
c)
Oxygen.
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13.
How many molecules of carbon dioxide are required by the Dark reaction (Calvin Cycle) to make a single
molecule of glucose?
a)
Two.
b)
Four.
c)
Six.
d)
Eight.
e)
Twelve.
14.
Which statement is not true of stomata?
a)
They are openings into the interior of a leaf.
b)
The stomata of a leaf are controlled by the guard cells.
c)
When a plant is dehydrated the stomata will open.
d)
When stomata are open, carbon dioxide diffuses into the interior of the leaf where it will be used in
photosynthesis.
15.
Which statement is not true of C4 and CAM plants?
a)
They are found in wet, tropical habitats where water is abundant.
b)
They concentrate carbon dioxide within a plant very quickly.
c)
They employ techniques that limit water loss, and improve the efficiency of photosynthesis.
16.
Which statement is true of fermentation (anaerobic glycolysis)?
a)
Mammals produce lactate and carbon dioxide.
b)
Mammals produce ethanol.
c)
Yeasts produce ethanol and carbon dioxide.
17.
What is the terminal electron acceptor of the mitochondrial electron transport system in the cellular
oxidation of glucose?
a)
NAD+.
b)
NADP+.
c)
Oxygen.
d)
Water.
18.
Which process produces the most ATP’s in the cellular oxidation of glucose?
a)
Glycolysis.
b)
Kreb’s cycle.
c)
Mitochondrial chemiosmotic/oxidative phosphorylation.
19.
What is the value of the Krebs Cycle in the cellular oxidation of glucose?
a)
It produces large quantities of NADH and FADH2 for mitochondrial chemiosmotic/oxidative
phosphorylation.
b)
It produces large quantities of ATP, compared to glycolysis, and the cellular oxidation of glucose.
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20.
Which statement is not true of mitochondria?
a)
They have an outer membrane and inner membrane.
b)
Plant cells lack mitochondria.
c)
The inner membrane is highly folded.
d)
Mitochondria are thought to have evolved from symbiotic prokaryotes.
21.
The cellular oxidation of glucose yields a net gain of how many ATP per glucose, if the cell has
mitochondria and oxygen is plentiful?
a)
Two.
b)
Thirty-two.
c)
Thirty-six .
d)
Mark d if none of the choices is correct.
22.
The cellular oxidation of glucose yields a net gain of how many ATP per glucose, if the cell lacks
mitochondria, or if oxygen is not present?
a)
Two.
b)
Thirty-two.
c)
Thirty-six .
d)
Mark d if none of the choices is correct.
23.
Which of the following does not occur within the mitochondria?
a)
Glycolysis.
b)
Krebs cycle.
c)
Electron transport system and chemiosmotic/oxidative phosphorylation.
d)
The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coA.
24.
Which statement is not true of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins?
a)
All can be used to generate ATP.
b)
All can be converted to acetyl coA.
c)
Only lipids can be converted to and stored as fat.
25.
Most of the producers in ecosystems are plants. Where do plants get the ATP they need to live?
a)
From solar energy via the light reaction of photosynthesis.
b)
From the cellular oxidation of glucose molecules they produce themselves in the process of
photosynthesis.
c)
From the cellular oxidation of glucose molecules obtained by feeding on other organisms.
d)
Mark d if both a and b are correct.
26.
Where do consumers in ecosystems get the ATP they need to live?
a)
From solar energy via the light reaction of photosynthesis.
b)
From the cellular oxidation of glucose molecules they produce themselves in the process of
photosynthesis.
c)
From the cellular oxidation of glucose molecules obtained by feeding on other organisms.
d)
Mark d if both a and b are correct.
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27.
Which of the following is a product of photosynthesis?
a)
Water.
b)
Oxygen.
c)
Carbon dioxide.
d)
Mark d if all are products of photosynthesis.
28.
Prior to the 1920's many scientists felt that proteins might be genetic material.
a)
True.
b)
False.
29.
Which researcher(s) used mice and Pneumococcus bacteria to determine that a transforming factor (later
identified as DNA) changed the behavior of bacteria?
a)
Hershey-Chase.
b)
Watson-Crick.
c)
Hardy-Weinberg.
d)
Laurel-Hardy.
e)
Griffith.
30.
Which researcher(s) used radioactive isotopes of Phosphorus and Sulfur to determine that DNA was the
viral genetic material?
a)
Hershey-Chase.
b)
Watson-Crick.
c)
Hardy-Weinberg.
d)
Laurel-Hardy.
e)
Griffith.
31.
Which researchers determined the 3-dimensional structure of DNA?
a)
Hershey-Chase.
b)
Watson-Crick.
c)
Hardy-Weinberg.
d)
Laurel-Hardy.
e)
Darwin-Mendel.
32.
Consider the section of DNA listed below. Which statement is not true?
5’ AAATTTACAGGGCCC 3’
3’ TTTAAATGTCCCGGG 5’
a)
b)
33.
The two strands are complementary.
The two strands are identical, i.e. they code for the same protein.
Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) are composed of monomers called:
a)
Fatty acids.
b)
Nucleotides.
c)
Amino acids.
d)
Operons.
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34.
Which of the following is not true of RNA?
a)
RNA can form complex 3-dimensional shapes.
b)
RNA nucleotides contain the sugar ribose instead of deoxyribose.
c)
RNA is confined to the nucleus, and is not found in the cytoplasm.
d)
Different RNA’s work together to make proteins.
e)
RNA nucleotides contain the nitrogenous base Uracil instead of Thymine.
35.
Which statement is not true of the central dogma?
a)
RNA polymerase “reads” a DNA strand, and builds a complementary RNA strand in a process
known as transcription.
b)
m-RNA, t-RNA, and r-RNA are made by RNA polymerase.
c)
Both transcription and translation occur in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.
d)
Translation involves m-RNA, t-RNA, ribosomes, and amino acids in the synthesis of proteins.
36.
What type of RNA is composed of “codons” that code for the amino acid sequence of a protein?
a)
m-RNA.
b)
t-RNA.
c)
r-RNA.
37.
Which statement is true of spliceosomes?
a)
Within the nucleus of a cell, they remove introns from a pre-mRNA, and splice exons together to
form mRNA, which is then transported to the cytoplasm.
b)
Within the nucleus of a cell, they remove exons from a pre-mRNA, and splice introns together to
form mRNA, which is then transported to the cytoplasm.
38.
Which RNA has an “anticodon,” that is complementary to a specific codon, is attached to a specific
amino acid in a process called “charging,” and works with other RNA’s to position amino acids for
chemical bonding to one another?
a)
m-RNA.
b)
t-RNA.
c)
r-RNA.
d)
Spliceosomes.
39.
How many m-RNA nucleotides in succession, code for a single amino acid (known as a codon)?
a)
One.
b)
Two.
c)
Three.
d)
Four.
e)
Five.
40.
When a ribosome gets to a stop codon, what binds to the codon?
a)
A t-RNA.
b)
An amino acid.
c)
A releasing protein.
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41.
What is an example of a mutation where one base (nucleotide) is substituted for another in a strand of
DNA?
a)
A missense mutation.
b)
A frame shift mutation.
42.
What type of mutation is more likely to have a dramatic effect on the shape and function of a protein
encoded by DNA?
a)
A missense mutation.
b)
A frame shift mutation.
A woman incurs a mutation in a gene within one of her liver cells. It will eventually lead to liver cancer.
This gene will not be passed to her children since it is not a mutation in one of her ova. What type of
mutation is this?
a)
Heritable mutation.
b)
Somatic mutation.
43.
44.
Which statement is not true?
a)
Ultraviolet radiation can cause bases in the same strand of DNA to bond to one another forming a
dimer.
b)
A dimer can cause DNA polymerase to misread a DNA strand and build a defective
complementary strand of DNA.
c)
A DNA polymerase misread can cause a mutation.
d)
Mutation always changes the amino acid sequence in a protein.
45.
Which of the following is not a suppressor/inhibitor of gene activity?
a)
RNAi.
b)
SiRNA.
c)
Base analog.
d)
Antisense RNA.
e)
Mi RNA.
46.
Which of the following is not involved in post transcriptional control of gene expression?
a)
Micro RNA.
b)
Activator proteins.
c)
Antisense RNA.
d)
Small interfering RNA.
47.
There are controls on gene expression even after a protein is made.
a)
That statement is true.
b)
That statement is false.
48.
Hypercoiling of DNA:
a)
Activates gene expression.
b)
Inhibits/supresses gene expression.
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49.
For transcription to begin, RNA polymerase must bind to the:
a)
Promoter.
b)
Operator.
c)
Ribosome.
d)
mRNA.
50.
What type of polymerase is required for chromosomal replication?
a)
DNA polymerase.
b)
RNA polymerase.
51.
When a chromosome replicates:
a)
The daughter chromosomes have one original strand of DNA and one newly synthesized strand
of DNA.
b)
One daughter chromosome is composed of the two original complementary DNA strands and the
other daughter chromosome is composed of two newly synthesized complementary DNA strands.
52.
What happens to the telomeres (ends) of most chromosomes with each round of replication?
a)
They get longer.
b)
They get shorter.
c)
They are unchanged.
53.
Which statement is not true?
a)
In chromosomal replication, one DNA strand is built continuously, while the other strand is built
in pieces, called Okazaki fragments.
b)
Most cells can divide an infinite number of times.
c)
An RNA primer is required in chromosomal replication because DNA polymerase will not bind
to a single stand of nucleic acid, it requires two stands.
d)
Once chromosomal replication begins, a cell is going to divide within a short period of time.
54.
Chromosomes replicate during which subphase of interphase in the cell cycle?
a)
The S subphase.
b)
The G1 subphase.
c)
The G2 subphase.
55.
In mitosis, interphase immediately follows
a)
Metaphase.
b)
Telophase.
c)
Prophase.
d)
Anaphase.
56.
Sister chromatids line up at the equator (midline) of the mitotic spindle in which phase of mitosis?
a)
Metaphase.
b)
Telophase.
c)
Interphase.
d)
Prophase.
e)
Anaphase.
of the previous cell division.
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57.
The centromere replicates and sister chromosomes are pulled to each end of the mitotic spindle in which
phase of mitosis?
a)
Metaphase.
b)
Telophase.
c)
Prophase.
d)
Anaphase.
58.
The nuclear envelope disintegrates, the sister chromatids coil and condense (becoming visible under the
light microscope), and the mitotic spindle begins to form in which stage of mitosis?
a)
Metaphase.
b)
Telophase.
c)
Interphase.
d)
Prophase.
e)
Anaphase.
59.
When a parent cell undergoes mitosis it produces how many daughter cells?
a)
One.
b)
Two.
c)
Three.
d)
Four.
60.
Which statement is not true of the daughter cells of mitosis?
a)
They are genetically identical to one another.
b)
They are genetically identical to the parental cell.
c)
They are genetically unlike one another.
61.
If a cell with a ploidy of 4n undergoes mitosis, the daughter cells will have a ploidy of:
a)
n.
b)
2n.
c)
3n.
d)
4n.
62.
Which of the following is not a function of mitosis in nature?
a)
Asexual reproduction.
b)
Growth.
c)
Cell replacement.
d)
Sperm or ovum (gamete) production.
63.
When a parent cell undergoes meiosis it produces how many gametes?
a)
One.
b)
Two.
c)
Three.
d)
Four.
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64.
If a cell with a ploidy of 4n undergoes meiosis, the gametes will have a ploidy of:
a)
n.
b)
2n.
c)
3n.
d)
4n.
65.
Which of the following is the primary function of meiosis in nature?
a)
Asexual reproduction.
b)
Growth.
c)
Cell replacement.
d)
Sperm or ovum (gamete) production.
66.
Crossing over occurs in which phase of meiosis?
a)
Interphase 1.
b)
Prophase 1.
c)
Metaphase 2.
d)
Interphase 2.
e)
Prophase 2.
67.
What statement is not true of crossing over?
a)
It mixes genes of sister chromatids of homologous pairs.
b)
It leaves sister chromatids genetically dissimilar.
c)
It increases genetic diversity in a population.
d)
It leaves sister chromatids genetically identical.
68.
Independent assortment of sister chromatids occurs in which phase of meiosis?
a)
Interphase 1.
b)
Prophase 1.
c)
Metaphase 2.
d)
Interphase 2.
e)
Prophase 2.
69.
Which of the following does not contribute to genetic diversity of a species?
a)
Independent assortment.
b)
Mitotic division.
c)
Sexual reproduction.
d)
Crossing over.
70.
What would be the expected genotypic outcomes of the offspring in the following parental cross: AA x
aa?
a)
100% AA.
b)
100% aa.
c)
50% AA: 50% Aa
d)
25% AA: 50% Aa: 25% aa.
e)
Mark e if none are correct.
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71.
What would be the expected genotypic outcomes of the offspring in the following parental cross: Aa x
aa?
a)
100% AA.
b)
100% aa.
c)
50% AA: 50% Aa
d)
25% AA: 50% Aa: 25% aa.
e)
Mark e if none are correct.
72.
What would be the expected genotypic outcomes of the offspring in the following parental cross: Aa x
Aa?
a)
100% AA.
b)
100% aa.
c)
50% AA: 50% Aa
d)
25% AA: 50% Aa: 25% aa.
e)
Mark e if none are correct.
73.
What would be the expected genotypic outcomes of the offspring in the following parental cross: AA x
Aa?
a)
100% AA.
b)
100% aa.
c)
50% AA: 50% Aa
d)
25% AA: 50% Aa: 25% aa.
e)
Mark e if none are correct.
74.
In cattle, the hornless trait is dominant (H) to the horned trait (h) which is recessive. A farmer mates a
hornless bull to three cows: Cow A, which is horned, gives birth to a hornless calf; Cow B which is
horned, produces a horned calf; and Cow C, which is hornless, produces a horned calf. What is the
genotype of the bull?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
More information needed to be certain of genotype.
75.
In cattle the hornless trait is dominant (H) to the horned trait(h) which is recessive. A farmer mates a
hornless bull to three cows: Cow A, which is horned, gives birth to a hornless calf; Cow B which is
horned, produces a horned calf; and Cow C, which is hornless, produces a horned calf. What is the
genotype of Cow C?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
More information is needed to certain of genotype.
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