Download Organismal Biology Section Two Exam

Organismal Biology 1030 A & B, Section Two Exam, Spring 2010
1.
In Griffith's experiment demonstrating that Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria can transfer genetic information,
the reason that the type "S" strain could infect mice and cause pneumonia was because:
A. They had flagella as a means of movement, whereas the “R” did not
B. They reproduced much faster than type "R" bacteria, due to a superior DNA polymerase
C. They produced a smooth polysaccharide capsule (coat) that helps them evade the mouse’s immune system
D. The type “R” bacteria had all been killed by subjecting them to a high temperature
E. They did not cause pneumonia in the mice, the type “R” strain did
2.
Hershey and Chase showed that the virus T4:
A. Injects protein into a bacterium
B. Injects polysaccharide into a bacterium
C. Injects protein and DNA into a bacterium
D. Injects RNA into a bacterium
E. Injects DNA into a bacterium
3.
Chargaff showed that DNA contains equal amounts of adenine and:
A. Thymine
B. Uracil
C. Guanine
D. Cytosine
E. Threonine
4.
The four nitrogen bases that are found in the different nucleotides of DNA are:
A. Adenine, thymine, cytosine, uracil
B. Adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine
C. Uracil, adenine, cytosine, guanine
D. Uracil, cytosine, guanine, thymine
E. Alanine, threonine, cysteine, glycine
5.
DNA's base pairs are joined by:
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Covalent bonds
C. Ionic bonds
D. Strong bonds
E. Peptide bonds
6.
The genome of an organism is all of its:
A. Proteins
B. Genetic material (DNA)
C. Transcribed RNA
D. Visible characteristics
E. Cells
7.
In eukaryotic cells DNA is not found in the:
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Chloroplasts
D. Ribosomes
E. Chromosomes
8.
A sequence of DNA nucleotides coding for a specific protein or structural or catalytic RNA molecule is a:
A. Gene
B. Genome
C. Chromosome
D. Chromatid
E. Nucleosome
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9.
The process by which DNA reproduces itself is:
A. Protein synthesis
B. Aerobic respiration
C. Substrate-level phosphorylation
D. Replication
E. Photosynthesis
10. DNA replication is:
A. Conservative
B. A one-step process
C. Not carried out by enzymes
D. Semi-conservative
E. Not carried out in Bacterial or Archaeal cells
11. The enzyme that adds nucleotides to form new strands of DNA is:
A. Primase
B. DNA polymerase
C. ATP synthase
D. Ligase
E. Helicase
12. A mutation can not:
A. Eliminate the ability of a protein to function
B. Alter the functional ability of a protein
C. Improve the function of a protein
D. Interfere with the transcription of a gene
E. Be passed on to future generations, if it occurs in a somatic cell
13. Requirements for the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) do not include:
A. A target DNA sequence sample to be replicated
B. A heat tolerant DNA polymerase such as taq
C. A supply of the four different DNA nucleotides
D. Two types of short, laboratory-made primers of defined sequence
E. Knowledge of the complete DNA sequence to be replicated
14. The polymerase chain reaction can not be used to:
A. Solve crimes based on biological evidence
B. Establish genetic (including parental) relationships
C. Identify the remains of dead organisms (including people)
D. Identify disease-causing genes or pathogens
E. Cure global warming
15. If one strand of a DNA molecule has the base sequence of ATGTGCC the complementary strand will read:
A. ATGTGCC
B. UACACGG
C. CGTGTAA
D. TACACGG
E. Gee, you look great today
16. Apoptosis is also called:
A. Replication
B. Mitosis
C. The cell cycle
D. Programmed cell death
E. Programmed cellular reproduction
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17. Before a cell divides, it must first duplicate its entire ______________:
A. Genome
B. Cytoplasmic contents
C. Cell membrane structure
D. Array of enzymes
E. Phenotype
18. A discreet package of DNA and associated proteins in eukaryotes is a:
A. Nucleus
B. Ribosome
C. Chromosome
D. Golgi body
E. Centromere
19. A nucleosome consists of:
A. A defined stretch of DNA
B. A defined stretch of RNA
C. A ribosome and mRNA
D. A defined stretch of RNA and histones
E. A defined stretch of DNA and histones
20. One of two identical attached copies of a replicated chromosome defines the term:
A. Centromere
B. Chromatin
C. Chromosome
D. Chromatid
E. Nucleosome
21. A part of a chromosome that attaches sister chromatids to each other defines the term:
A. Centromere
B. Chromatin
C. Nucleosome
D. Histone
E. Telomere
22. A cell with two full sets of chromosomes would be termed a _______________ cell.
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Sister
D. Somatic
E. Germ
23. A cell with one full set of chromosomes would be termed a ________________ cell.
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Sister
D. Somatic
E. Germ
24. The single pair of unmatched chromosomes in humans:
A. Are not the sex chromosomes
B. Are not the "X" and "Y" chromosomes
C. Contain entirely different genes
D. Do not determine sex (gender) of humans
E. Are autosomes
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25. The process by which a sperm cell combines with an egg cell is:
A. Recombination
B. Replication
C. Mitosis
D. Fertilization
E. Germination
26. If a sperm cell combines with an egg cell, the result is a(n):
A. Gamete
B. Germ cell
C. Zygote
D. Duplicated chromosome
E. Omelette
27. Examples of a haploid cells do not include:
A. Sperm cells
B. Gametes
C. Egg cells
D. Zygotes
E. Plant spores
28. In humans, specialized cells that produce gametes are:
A. Somatic cells
B. Sperm cells
C. Egg cells
D. Germ cells
E. Gametophytes
29. In humans, cells that do not produce gametes are collectively called:
A. Somatic cells
B. Sperm cells
C. Egg cells
D. Germ cells
E. Gametophytes
30. The actual splitting of a cell into two daughter cells in the cell cycle is:
A. Mitosis
B. Interphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Cytokinesis
31. The division of the nucleus itself during the cell cycle is:
A. Mitosis
B. Interphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Cytokinesis
32. The replication of a cell’s DNA during the cell cycle occurs during:
A. Mitosis
B. Interphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Cytokinesis
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33.
The correct sequence for the phases of mitosis is:
A. Interphase - prophase - telophase - metaphase - anaphase
B. Interphase - metaphase - anaphase - prophase - telophase
C. Prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
D. Anaphase - prophase - metaphase - telophase
E. Prophase - anaphase - telophase - metaphase
34. The portion of the cytoskeleton that enables the chromosomes to be separated equally into two sets is the:
A. Golgi body
B. Centromere
C. Pilus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
E. Mitotic spindle
35. The phase of mitosis when the centromeres split and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell is:
A. Prophase
B. Interphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
36. The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned along the equator of the cell is:
A. Prophase
B. Interphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
37. The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes condense and centrosomes move to opposite poles of the cell is:
A. Prophase
B. Interphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase
38. Meiosis is a process that does not produce:
A. Sperm cells
B. Egg cells
C. Gametes
D. Haploid cells
E. Zygotes
39. The process by which a bacterium uses a sex pilus to transfer genetic information to another bacterium is:
A. Recombination
B. Conjugation
C. Apotosis
D. Mitosis
E. Replication
40.
Sexual reproduction is important to the survival of a species in a changing environment because:
A. Sexual reproduction requires less overall energy expenditure than asexual reproduction
B. Sexual reproduction requires only one individual
C. Sexual reproduction produces genetically identical individuals
D. Sexual reproduction produces genetically different individuals
E. Sexual reproduction is fun
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41. If human gametes were diploid:
A. The products of fertilization would have the same number of chromosomes as their parents
B. The products of fertilization would have more chromosomes than their parents
C. The products of fertilization would have fewer chromosomes than their parents
D. Fertilization could not occur
E. Human infants could fly
42. A diploid germ cell reduces its chromosome number by half to generate four haploid nuclei in:
A. Fertilization
B. Mitosis
C. Meiosis
D. Replication
E. Interphase
43.
A zygote is:
A. A haploid cell
B. A gamete
C. The first diploid cell of a new organism
D. A product of meiosis
E. A product of mitosis
44. Human cell's have:
A. 22 pairs of chromosomes
B. 23 pairs of chromosomes
C. 45 chromosomes
D. 2 pairs of sex chromosomes
E. One pair of autosomes
45. The human chromosomes that do not determine whether an individual is male or female are:
A. Not found in homologous pairs
B. The autosomes
C. The "X" and "Y" chromosomes
D. Called the sex chromosomes
E. Somatic
46. The ‘normal’ chromosomal designation for a human male is:
A. "XX"
B. "XO"
C. "XY"
D. "YY"
E. "XXX"
47. The ‘normal’ chromosomal designation for a human female is:
A. "XX"
B. "XYY"
C. "XY"
D. "YY"
E. "XO"
48. Chromosomes that look alike and carry the same sequence of genes for the same traits are:
A. The "X" and "Y" chromosome
B. All the autosomes
C. Found in females only
D. Found in males only
E. Homologous chromosomes
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49.
In meiosis, DNA replicates only during:
A. Prophase one
B. Prophase two
C. Interphase one
D. Interphase two
E. Metaphase two
50. In meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate during:
A. Prophase one
B. Prophase two
C. Metaphase one
D. Anaphase one
E. Anaphase two
51. In meiosis, paired homologous chromosomes align down the center of the cell during:
A. Prophase one
B. Prophase two
C. Metaphase one
D. Metaphase two
E. Anaphase two
52. In meiosis, chromosomes containing sister chromatids (not homologous chromosomes) align along the equatorial
center of the cell during:
A. Prophase one
B. Prophase two
C. Interphase two
D. Metaphase one
E. Metaphase two
53. In meiosis, the separated sister chromatids move to opposite poles of the cell during:
A. Metaphase one
B. Metaphase two
C. Anaphase one
D. Anaphase two
E. Telophase one
54. In meiosis two, cytokinesis results in the production of:
A. Four haploid daughter cells
B. Two haploid daughter cells
C. Four diploid daughter cells
D. Two diploid daughter cells
E. One daughter cell identical to the parent cell that underwent meiosis
55.
Sexual reproduction and meiosis do not generate significant genetic variety through:
A. Random fertilization
B. Independent assortment
C. Crossing over (a.k.a. homologous recombination)
D. Law of segregation
E. DNA replication
56. Alternate forms of the same gene:
A. Do not exist
B. Are homologous
C. Are alleles
D. Are sister chromatids
E. Do not occur in the same individual
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57.
A healthy young couple are both carriers of cystic fibrosis, a Mendelian-style, simple recessive trait, the chance
that each of their future children will inherit this serious illness is:
A. No chance, because cystic fibrosis is not an inherited illness
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
E. 100%
58. An allele that exerts its effects whenever it is present is:
A. Dominant
B. Recessive
C. Homologous
D. Homozygous
E. Heterozygous
59. When Mendel crossed short pea plants with short pea plants the offspring:
A. Were always short
B. Were always tall
C. Were always a mix of short and tall
D. Were sometimes tall, but sometimes a mix of tall and short
E. Did not grow and reproduce
60. When Mendel crossed tall plants with tall plants the offspring:
A. Were always short
B. Were always tall
C. Were always a mix of short and tall
D. Were sometimes tall, but sometimes a mix of tall and short
E. Did not grow and reproduce
61. If the two alleles for a particular gene are identical the gene pair is:
A. Homologous
B. Heterozygous
C. Homozygous
D. Dominant
E. Recessive
62. If the two alleles for a particular gene are different, the gene pair is:
A. Homologous
B. Heterozygous
C. Homozygous
D. Dominant
E. Recessive
63. If an individual is heterozygous for a particular trait:
A. Each parent contributed a different allele for that trait
B. Each parent contributed the same allele for that trait
C. Only one parent contributed an allele of that gene, the other contributed no alleles of that gene
D. Two different genes contribute to the trait
E. That particular trait insures that the individual is heterosexual
64. Phenotype means:
A. The number of gametes in an individual
B. The number of chromosomes in an individual
C. The observable expression of the genes in an individual
D. The combination of alleles in an individual
E. The arranged image of all the individual’s stained prophase stage chromosomes
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65. A monohybrid cross is a mating between two individuals that are both:
A. Heterozygous for one gene
B. Homozygous for one gene
C. Heterozygous for two genes
D. Homozygous for two genes
E. Hemizygous for one gene
66. Mendel's monohybrid cross of "Tt" (T for tall, t for short) parents resulted in a tall to short ratio of:
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 3:1
E. 1:3
67. A dihybrid cross is a mating between two individuals that are each ____________ for _________ gene(s).
A. Homozygous, one
B. Homozygous, two
C. Homologous, two
D. Heterozygous, one
E. Heterozygous, two
68.
In the ABO blood type system the IA and IB alleles:
A. Are recessive
B. Are codominant
C. Only one is expressed when both are present
D. Have incomplete dominance
E. Are completely different genes
69. If the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between those of the two different homozygotes, this is called:
A. Codominance
B. Incomplete dominance
C. Independent assortment
D. Epistasis
E. Polygenic
70. Traits that depend on more than one gene are:
A. Pleiotropic
B. Polygenic
C. Codominant
D. Recessive
E. Incomplete dominant traits
71. Which major characteristic is not used to uniquely identify each chromosome in a karyotype?
A. Banding pattern after staining
B. Overall size
C. Centromere position
D. p and q arm lengths
E. Telomere length
72. Linked genes, by definition, are genes that:
A. Have no alleles
B. Are found in the same species
C. Are found close to each other on the same chromosome
D. Have more alleles than usual
E. Are alleles that are found in different daughter cells
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73. If any of the traits that Mendel worked with had been due to linked genes, his dihybrid crosses:
A. Would have produced sterile offspring
B. Would have produced more offspring
C. Would have produced less offspring
D. Would have exhibited a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1
E. Would have exhibited a phenotypic ratio of 3:1
74.
A dihybrid cross of unlinked genes theoretically gives a phenotypic ratio:
A. Of 9:3:3:1
B. Of 1:1
C. Of 2:1
D. Of 3:1
E. That is the same as that for genes that are linked
75. Crossing over is more likely to separate genes on a chromosome, if they are:
A. Close together
B. Recessive genes
C. Far apart
D. Dominant genes
E. Mutated genes
76. To inherit an autosomal dominant disorder, a person could receive the disease causing allele from:
A. The father only, not the mother
B. The mother only, not the father
C. The parent who does not exhibit the disease
D. The mother or the father, whichever exhibits the disease
E. Any of the four grandparents
77. To inherit an autosomal recessive disorder requires a person to receive the disease causing allele from:
A. The father only, not the mother
B. The mother only, not the father
C. Only the parent that exhibits the disease
D. Only one parent who is homozygous recessive for the disease
E. Both parents
78. As seen in the video on sex determination, androgen insensitivity syndrome is a good example of:
A. Epistasis
B. Pleiotropy
C. Incomplete dominance
D. A polygenic trait
E. Codominance
79. The chromosome that plays the largest role in human male sex determination is:
A. The "X" chromosome
B. Chromosome number 21
C. The "Y" chromosome
D. All of the autosomes
E. The "X" and "Y" chromosome are equally responsible
80. A male expresses:
A. Only the dominant alleles on his "X" chromosome
B. Only the recessive alleles on his "X" chromosome
C. Both the dominant and recessive alleles on his "X" chromosome
D. None of the alleles on his "X" chromosome
E. A male doesn’t have a "X" chromosome
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81.
In a molecule of DNA:
A. Adenine pairs with thymine
B. Cytosine pairs with adenine
C. Thymine pairs with uracil
D. Adenine pairs with uracil
E. Guanine pairs with thymine
82. The "Central Dogma" of molecular biology does not refer to:
A. The flow of genetic information in cells
B. Genetic information passing from DNA to RNA by transcription
C. Genetic information passing from RNA to protein by translation
D. All organisms have evolved from preexisting life
E. Information cannot be transferred back from protein to either protein or nucleic acid
83. DNA differs from RNA in that:
A. DNA contains uracil
B. DNA can catalyze chemical reactions
C. DNA contains thymine
D. DNA is usually single stranded
E. DNA contains ribose
84. The type of RNA that carries the information that specifies a protein is:
A. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
B. Transfer RNA (tRAN)
C. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
D. The 5’ cap
E. The poly-A tail
85.
The type of RNA that helps align the ribosome and mRNA, and catalyzes the reaction that creates the peptide
bond is:
A. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
B. Transfer RNA (tRAN)
C. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
D. The 5’ cap
E. The poly-A tail
86. The type of RNA that carries each amino acid to the ribosome is:
A. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
B. Transfer RNA (tRNA)
C. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
D. The 5’ cap
E. The poly-A tail
87. A DNA sequence that signals a gene's start is:
A. A codon
B. An anticodon
C. A terminator
D. An amino acid attachment site
E. A promoter
88. The process used by cells to convert the mRNA "message" into a sequence of amino acids is:
A. Transcription
B. Translation
C. Replication
D. Mitosis
E. Amino acid synthesis
11
89. A three base sequence (loop) in tRNA that is complementary to a sequence of three bases in mRNA is:
A. An anticodon
B. A codon
C. A promoter
D. A terminator
E. An amino acid attachment site
90. A tRNA molecule is "bilingual" because it binds to:
A. Amino acids and DNA
B. DNA and mRNA codons
C. Codons of mRNA and amino acids
D. Promoters and amino acids
E. Promoters and terminators
91. The first step of translation in which an mRNA, a small ribosomal subunit, and the initiator tRNA are aligned
together is:
A. Mitosis
B. Initiation
C. Elongation
D. Termination
E. Transcription
92. The middle step of translation in which amino acids are added one at a time to the growing polypeptide is:
A. Mitosis
B. Initiation
C. Elongation
D. Termination
E. Transcription
93. The last step of translation in which release factors bind to a stop codon is:
A. Mitosis
B. Initiation
C. Elongation
D. Termination
E. Transcription
94.
A group of genes and other segments of DNA in Bacteria that are controlled together is:
A. A proteome
B. A chromosome
C. A ribosome
D. An operon
E. A replication fork
95. In the Lac operon, the protein that binds to the operator to prevent transcription is:
A. RNA polymerase
B. DNA polymerase
C. The repressor
D. The promoter
E. Lactose
96. Proteins that initiate transcription in eukaryotes by recognizing sequences within the promoter region of a gene
and attracting RNA polymerase are:
A. Repressors
B. Transcription factors
C. Inducers
D. TATA boxes
E. Poly A Tails
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97. Any change in a cell's DNA sequence is:
A. Replication
B. Transcription
C. Translation
D. An operon
E. A mutation
98.
In a "missense" (nonsynonymous) mutation in an exon:
A. The codon that mutates does not cause a change in the amino acid specified
B. The codon that mutates causes a change in the amino acid specified
C. The codon that mutates causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid
D. The addition of any number of nucleotides (bases) in multiples of three destroys the protein's function
E. The deletion of any number of nucleotides (bases) in multiples of three destroys the protein's function
99.
In a "silent" (synonymous) mutation that occurs in an exon:
A. The codon that mutates does not cause a change in the amino acid specified
B. The codon that mutates causes a change in the amino acid specified
C. The codon that mutates causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid
D. The addition of any number of nucleotides (bases) in multiples of three preserves the protein's function
E. The deletion of any number of nucleotides (bases) in multiples of three preserves the protein's function
100. Which statement does not apply to a "frameshift" mutation:
A. It may be caused by an addition of any number of nucleotides (bases) not in multiples of three
B. It may be caused by a deletion of any number of nucleotides (bases) not in multiples of three
C. It always disrupts the reading frame of a gene
D. It almost always destroys a protein's ability to function
E. It usually does not harm a protein's ability to function
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Organismal Biology Section Two Exam Key (warning – some questions differ from above with different answers)
1.
In Griffith's experiment demonstrating that bacteria can transfer genetic information, the reason that the type
"S" strain could infect mice and cause pneumonia was because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
They had flagella as a means of
movement
They reproduced much faster than type "R"
bacteria
They produced a polysaccharide capsule
(coat)
All of the above are
correct
None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #9
Question Type: Comprehension
2.
Hershey and Chase showed that the virus T4:
A. Injects protein into a
bacterium
B. Injects polysaccharide into a
bacterium
C. Injects protein and DNA into a
bacterium
D. Injects RNA into a
bacterium
E. Injects DNA into a
bacterium
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #11
Question Type: Comprehension
3.
Chargaff showed that DNA contains equal amounts of adenine and:
A. Thymine
B. Uracil
C. Guanin
e
D. Cytosin
e
E. Threonin
e
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #13
Question Type: Knowledge
1
4.
The four nitrogen bases that are found in the different nucleotides of DNA are:
A. Adenine, thymine, cytosine,
uracil
B. Adenine, thymine, cytosine,
guanine
C. Uracil, adenine, cytosine,
guanine
D. Uracil, cytosine, guanine,
thymine
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #15
Question Type: Knowledge
5.
DNA's base pairs are joined by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hydrogen
bonds
Covalent
bonds
Ionic
bonds
All the above are
correct
None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #17
Question Type: Comprehension
6.
The genome of an organism is all of its:
A. Protein
s
B. Genetic
material
C. RNA
D. Characteristic
s
E. All of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #22
Question Type: Knowledge
2
7.
In eukaryotic cells DNA is found in the:
A. Nucleu
s
B. Mitochondri
a
C. Chloroplast
s
D. All of the above are
correct
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #23
Question Type: Knowledge
8.
A sequence of DNA nucleotides coding for a specific protein or RNA molecule is a:
A. Gen
e
B. Genom
e
C. Chromosom
e
D. All of the above are
correct
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #26
Question Type: Knowledge
9.
The process by which DNA reproduces itself is:
A. Protein
synthesis
B. Aerobic
respiration
C. Substratephosphorylation
D. Replicatio
n
E. Photosynthesi
s
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #29
Question Type: Knowledge
3
10.
DNA replication is:
A. Conservativ
e
B. A one-step
process
C. Not carried out by
enzymes
D. Semiconservative
E. Not carried out in prokaryotic
cells
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #30
Question Type: Knowledge
11.
The enzyme that adds nucleotides to form new strands of DNA is:
A. Primas
e
B. DNA
polymerase
C. ATP
synthase
D. Ligas
e
E. Helicas
e
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #34
Question Type: Knowledge
12.
A mutation may:
A. Eliminate the ability of a protein to
function
B. Not alter the functional ability of a
protein
C. Improve the function of a
protein
D. All of the above are
correct
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #35
Question Type: Comprehension
4
13.
Requirements for polymerase chain reaction tests include:
A. A target DNA sequence to be
replicated
B. A heat tolerant DNA
polymerase
C. A supply of the four different DNA
nucleotides
D. Two types of short, laboratory-made
primers
E. All of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #38
Question Type: Comprehension
14.
Polymerase chain reaction may be used to:
A. Identify missing
persons
B. Establish genetic
relationships
C. Identify
remains
D. Identify disease-causing
genes
E. All of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #39
Question Type: Comprehension
15.
If one strand of a DNA molecule has the base sequence of ATGTGCC the complementary strand will read:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
ATGTGCC
UACACGG
CGTGTAA
TACACGG
None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07 #41
Question Type: Application
5
16.
Apoptosis is also called:
A. Replicatio
n
B. Mitosis
C. The cell
cycle
D. Programmed cell
death
E. Programmed cellular
reproduction
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #1
Question Type: Knowledge
17.
Before a cell divides, it must first duplicate its entire ______________:
A. Genom
e
B. Cytoplasmic
contents
C. Cell membrane
structure
D. Array of
enzymes
E. All of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #3
Question Type: Comprehension
18.
A discreet package of DNA and associated proteins in eukaryotes is a:
A. Nucleu
s
B. Ribosom
e
C. Chromosom
e
D. Golgi body
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #4
Question Type: Knowledge
6
19.
A nucleosome consists of:
A. A stretch of
DNA
B. An RNA
molecule
C. A ribosome and
RNA
D. Histone
s
E. A stretch of DNA and
histones
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #6
Question Type: Knowledge
20.
One of two identical attached copies of a replicated chromosome defines the term:
A. Centromer
e
B. Chromati
n
C. Chromosom
e
D. Chromati
d
E. Nucleosom
e
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #8
Question Type: Knowledge
21.
A part of a chromosome that attaches sister chromatids to each other defines the term:
A. Centromer
e
B. Chromati
n
C. Nucleosom
e
D. Histone
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #9
Question Type: Knowledge
7
22.
A cell with two full sets of chromosomes would be termed a _______________ cell.
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Siste
r
D. Somati
c
E. Germ
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #13
Question Type: Knowledge
23.
A cell with one set of chromosomes would be termed a ________________ cell.
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Siste
r
D. Somati
c
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #14
Question Type: Knowledge
24.
The pair of unmatched chromosomes in humans:
A. Are the sex
chromosomes
B. Are the "X" and "Y"
chromosomes
C. Contain different
genes
D. Determine sex (gender) of
humans
E. All of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #15
Question Type: Comprehension
25.
The process by which a sperm cell combines with an egg cell is:
A. Recombinatio
n
B. Replicatio
n
C. Mitosis
D. Fertilizatio
n
E. Germinatio
n
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #16
Question Type: Knowledge
8
26.
If a sperm cell combines with an egg cell the result is a:
A. Gamet
e
B. Haploid cell
C. Diploid cell
D. Duplicated
chromosome
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #17
Question Type: Application
27.
An example of a haploid cell is:
A. A sperm
cell
B. A
gamete
C. An egg
cell
D. All of the above are
correct
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #18
Question Type: Application
28.
In humans, specialized cells that produce gametes are:
A. Somatic
cells
B. Sperm
cells
C. Egg
cells
D. Germ
cells
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #19
Question Type: Knowledge
9
29.
In humans, cells that do not produce gametes are collectively called:
A. Somatic
cells
B. Sperm
cells
C. Egg
cells
D. Germ
cells
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #20
Question Type: Knowledge
30.
The splitting of a cell into two daughter cells in the cell cycle is:
A. Mitosis
B. Interphas
e
C. Metaphas
e
D. Anaphas
e
E. Cytokinesi
s
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #26
Question Type: Knowledge
31.
The division of the nucleus during the cell cycle is:
A. Mitosis
B. Interphas
e
C. Synthesi
s
D. Cytokinesi
s
E. Replicatio
n
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #27
Question Type: Knowledge
10
32.
The replication of DNA during the cell cycle occurs during:
A. Mitosis
B. Interphas
e
C. Cytokinesi
s
D. Prophas
e
E. Telophas
e
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #28
Question Type: Knowledge
33.
The correct sequence for the phases of mitosis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Interphase - prophase - telophase - metaphase anaphase
Interphase - metaphase - anaphase - prophase telophase
Prophase - metaphase - anaphase telophase
Anaphase - prophase - metaphase telophase
Prophase - anaphase - telophase metaphase
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #30
Question Type: Comprehension
34.
The portion of the cytoskeleton that enables the chromosomes to be separated equally into two sets is the:
A. Golgi body
B. Centromer
e
C. Centrosom
e
D. Kinetochor
e
E. Mitotic
spindle
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #31
Question Type: Comprehension
11
35.
The phase of mitosis in which the centromeres split and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the
cell is:
A. Prophas
e
B. Prometapha
se
C. Metaphas
e
D. Anaphas
e
E. Telophas
e
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #35
Question Type: Comprehension
36.
The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned along the equator of the cell is:
A. Prophas
e
B. Prometapha
se
C. Metaphas
e
D. Anaphas
e
E. Telophas
e
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #36
Question Type: Comprehension
37.
The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes condense and centrosomes move to opposite poles of the cell
is:
A. Prophas
e
B. Prometapha
se
C. Metaphas
e
D. Anaphas
e
E. Telophas
e
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08 #38
Question Type: Comprehension
12
38.
Meiosis is a process that produces:
A. Sperm
cells
B. Egg
cells
C. Gamete
s
D. Haploid
cells
E. All of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #1
Question Type: Comprehension
39.
The process by which a bacterium uses a sex pilus to transfer genetic information to another bacterium is:
A. Parthenogene
sis
B. Conjugatio
n
C. Apomixis
D. Mitosis
E. Replicatio
n
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #2
Question Type: Knowledge
40.
Sexual reproduction is important to the survival of a species in a changing environment because:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sexual reproduction requires less overall energy expenditure than asexual
reproduction
Sexual reproduction requires only one
individual
Sexual reproduction produces genetically identical
individuals
Sexual reproduction produces genetically different
individuals
None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #3
Question Type: Comprehension
13
41.
If human gametes were diploid:
A. The products of fertilization would have the same number of chromosomes as their
parents
B. The products of fertilization would have more chromosomes than their
parents
C. The products of fertilization would have fewer chromosomes than their
parents
D. Fertilization could not
occur
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #7
Question Type: Application
42.
A diploid germ cell reduces its chromosome number by half to generate four haploid nuclei in:
A. Fertilizatio
n
B. Mitosis
C. Meiosis
D. Replicatio
n
E. Parthenogene
sis
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #10
Question Type: Comprehension
43.
A zygote is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A haploid
cell
A
gamete
The first diploid cell of a new
organism
A product of
meiosis
All the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #13
Question Type: Knowledge
14
44.
Human cell's have:
A. 22 pairs of
chromosomes
B. 23 pairs of
chromosomes
C. 44
chromosomes
D. 2 pairs of sex
chromosomes
E. One pair of
autosomes
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #17
Question Type: Knowledge
45.
The human chromosomes that do not determine whether an individual is male or female are:
A. Not found in
pairs
B. Autosome
s
C. The "X" and "Y"
chromosomes
D. Called sex
chromosomes
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #19
Question Type: Knowledge
46.
The chromosomal designation for a human male is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
"XX"
"XO"
"XY"
"YY"
"XXX"
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #20
Question Type: Knowledge
47.
The chromosomal designation for a human female is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
"XX"
"XYY"
"XY"
"YY"
None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #21
Question Type: Knowledge
15
48.
Chromosomes that look alike and carry the same sequence of genes for the same traits are:
A. The "X" and "Y"
chromosome
B. All the
autosomes
C. Found in females
only
D. Found in males
only
E. Homologous
chromosomes
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #22
Question Type: Knowledge
49.
In meiosis, DNA replicates during:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Prophase
one
Prophase
two
Interphase
one
Interphase
two
Metaphase
two
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #28
Question Type: Comprehension
50.
In meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate during:
A. Prophase
one
B. Prophase
two
C. Metaphase
one
D. Anaphase
one
E. Anaphase
two
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #30
Question Type: Comprehension
16
51.
In meiosis, paired homologs align down the center of the cell during:
A. Prophase
one
B. Prophase
two
C. Metaphase
one
D. Metaphase
two
E. Anaphase
two
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #32
Question Type: Comprehension
52.
In meiosis, chromosomes containing sister chromatids (not homologous chromosomes) align along the center
of the cell during:
A. Prophase
one
B. Prophase
two
C. Interphase
two
D. Metaphase
one
E. Metaphase
two
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #33
Question Type: Comprehension
53.
In meiosis, the separated sister chromatids move to opposite poles of the cell during:
A. Metaphase
one
B. Metaphase
two
C. Anaphase
one
D. Anaphase
two
E. Telophase
one
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #34
Question Type: Comprehension
17
54.
In meiosis two, cytokinesis results in the production of:
A. Four haploid daughter
cells
B. Two haploid daughter
cells
C. Four diploid daughter
cells
D. Two diploid daughter
cells
E. One daughter cell identical to the parent cell that underwent
meiosis
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #35
Question Type: Comprehension
55.
Sexual reproduction and meiosis generates genetic variety by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Random
fertilization
Independent
assortment
Crossing
over
All of the above are
correct
None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #36
Question Type: Comprehension
56.
Alternate forms of the same gene:
A. Do not
exist
B. Are
homologs
C. Are
alleles
D. Are sister
chromatids
E. Do not occur in the same
individual
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09 #38
Question Type: Knowledge
18
57.
A healthy young couple are both carriers of cystic fibrosis, a simple recessive trait, the chance that each of
their future children will inherit this serious illness is:
A.
No chance, because cystic fibrosis is not an inherited
illness
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
E.
100%
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #3
Question Type: Knowledge
58.
An allele that exerts its effects whenever it is present is:
A. Dominan
t
B. Recessiv
e
C. Homologou
s
D. Homozygou
s
E. Heterozygou
s
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #14
Question Type: Knowledge
59.
When Mendel crossed short pea plants with short pea plants the offspring:
A. Were all
tall
B. Were all
short
C. Were a mix of tall and
short
D. Were
nonexistent
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #15
Question Type: Knowledge
19
60.
When Mendel crossed tall plants with tall plants the offspring:
A. Were always
short
B. Were always
tall
C. Were always a mix of short and
tall
D. Were sometimes tall, but sometimes a mix of tall and
short
E. Did not grow and
reproduce
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #16
Question Type: Knowledge
61.
If the two alleles for a particular gene are identical the gene pair is:
A. Homologou
s
B. Heterozygou
s
C. Homozygou
s
D. Dominan
t
E. Recessiv
e
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #17
Question Type: Knowledge
62.
If the two alleles for a particular gene are different the gene pair is:
A. Homologou
s
B. Heterozygou
s
C. Homozygou
s
D. Dominan
t
E. Recessiv
e
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #18
Question Type: Knowledge
20
63.
If an individual is heterozygous for a particular trait:
A. Each parent contributed a different gene for that
trait
B. The alleles for that trait are the
same
C. Each parent contributed the same gene for
that trait
D. Both B and C are
correct
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #19
Question Type: Comprehension
64.
Phenotype means:
A. The number of gametes in an
individual
B. The number of chromosomes in an
individual
C. The observable expression of the genes in an
individual
D. The combination of alleles in an
individual
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #24
Question Type: Knowledge
65.
A monohybrid cross is a mating between two individuals that are both:
A. Heterozygous for one
gene
B. Homozygous for one
gene
C. Heterozygous for two
genes
D. Homozygous for two
genes
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #31
Question Type: Comprehension
21
66.
Mendel's monohybrid cross of "Tt" parents resulted in a tall to short ratio of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1:1
1:2
2:1
3:1
1:3
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #33
Question Type: Knowledge
67.
A dihybrid cross is a mating between two individuals that are each ______________ for ___________ gene
(genes).
A. Homozygous,
one
B. Homozygous,
two
C. Homologous,
two
D. Heterozygous,
one
E. Heterozygous,
two
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #38
Question Type: Comprehension
68.
In the ABO blood type system the IA and IB alleles:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Are
recessive
Are
codominant
Only one is expressed when both are
present
All the above are
correct
None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #41
Question Type: Comprehension
22
69.
If the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between those of the two different homozygotes, this is called:
A. Codominanc
e
B. Incomplete
dominance
C. Independent
assortment
D. Epistasi
s
E. Polygeni
c
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #42
Question Type: Knowledge
70.
Traits that depend on more than one gene are:
A. Pleiotropi
c
B. Polygeni
c
C. Codominan
t
D. Recessiv
e
E. Incomplete dominant
traits
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10 #44
Question Type: Knowledge
71.
In a karyotype, the major characteristic (characteristics) that uniquely identify each chromosome is (are):
A. Banding
pattern
B. Size
C. Centromere
position
D. All of the above are
correct
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 11 #7
Question Type: Comprehension
23
72.
Linked genes, by definition, are genes that:
A. Have no
alleles
B. Are found in the same
species
C. Are found on the same
chromosome
D. Have more alleles than
usual
E. Are alleles that are found in different daughter
cells
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 11 #11
Question Type: Knowledge
73.
If any of the traits that Mendel worked with had been due to linked genes, his dihybrid crosses:
A. Would have had different
results
B. Would have produced more
offspring
C. Would have produced less
offspring
D. Would have exhibited a typical phenotypic ratio of
9:3:3:1
E. Would have produced sterile
offspring
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 11 #12
Question Type: Comprehension
74.
A dihybrid cross of linked genes theoretically gives a phenotypic ratio:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Of
9:3:3:1
Of 2:1
That is the same as that for genes that are not
linked
Of 3:1
None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 11 #13
Question Type: Comprehension
24
75.
Crossing over is more likely to separate genes on a chromosome if they are:
A. Close
together
B. Recessive
genes
C. Far
apart
D. Dominant
genes
E. Mutated
genes
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 11 #15
Question Type: Comprehension
76.
To inherit an autosomal dominant disorder a person could receive the disease causing allele from:
A. The father only, not the
mother
B. The mother only, not the
father
C. The parent who does not exhibit the
disease
D. The mother or the
father
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 11 #18
Question Type: Comprehension
77.
To inherit an autosomal recessive disorder requires a person to receive the disease causing allele from:
A. The father
only
B. The mother
only
C. Only the parent having the
disease
D. Only one parent who is homozygous recessive for the
disease
E. Both
parents
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 11 #19
Question Type: Comprehension
25
78.
Diagrams depicting family relationships and phenotypes for a genetic disorder are:
A. Linkage
maps
B. Pedigree
charts
C. Karyotype
s
D. Punnett
squares
E. Bell-shaped
curves
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 11 #30
Question Type: Knowledge
79.
The chromosome that plays the largest role in human sex determination is:
A. The "X"
chromosome
B. Chromosome number
21
C. The "Y"
chromosome
D. The group of autosomes known as the SRY
group
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 11 #36
Question Type: Knowledge
80.
A male expresses:
A. Only the dominant alleles on his "X"
chromosome
B. Only the homozygous recessive alleles on his "X"
chromosome
C. Both the dominant and recessive alleles on his "X"
chromosome
D. None of the alleles on his "X"
chromosome
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 11 #38
Question Type: Comprehension
26
81.
In a molecule of DNA:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Adenine pairs with
thymine
Cytosine pairs with
adenine
Thymine pairs with
uracil
Adenine pairs with
uracil
All the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #5
Question Type: Knowledge
82.
The "Central Dogma" refers:
A. To the flow of genetic information in
cells
B. Genetic information passing from DNA to RNA by
transcription
C. Genetic information passing from RNA to protein by
translation
D. All of the above are
correct
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #6
Question Type: Comprehension
83.
DNA differs from RNA in that:
A. DNA contains
uracil
B. DNA can catalyze chemical
reactions
C. DNA contains
thymine
D. DNA is usually single
stranded
E. DNA contains
ribose
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #9
Question Type: Knowledge
27
84.
The type of RNA that carries the information that specifies a protein is:
A. Messenger
RNA
B. Transfer
RNA
C. Ribosomal
RNA
D. All of the above are
correct
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #10
Question Type: Knowledge
85.
The type of RNA that helps align the ribosome and mRNA and catalyzes the reaction that creates the peptide
bond is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Messenger
RNA
Transfer
RNA
Ribosomal
RNA
A
codon
None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #11
Question Type: Knowledge
86.
The type of RNA that carries each amino acid to the ribosome is:
A. Messenger
RNA
B. Transfer
RNA
C. Ribosomal
RNA
D. All of the above are
correct
E. None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #12
Question Type: Knowledge
28
87.
A DNA sequence that signals a gene's start is:
A. A codon
B. An
anticodon
C. A
terminator
D. An amino acid attachment
site
E. A
promoter
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #15
Question Type: Knowledge
88.
The process used by cells to convert the mRNA "message" into a sequence of amino acids is:
A. Transcriptio
n
B. Translatio
n
C. Replicatio
n
D. Mitosis
E. Amino acid
synthesis
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #17
Question Type: Knowledge
89.
A three base sequence (loop) in tRNA that is complementary to a sequence of three bases in mRNA is:
A. An
anticodon
B. A codon
C. A
promoter
D. A
terminator
E. An amino acid attachment
site
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #19
Question Type: Knowledge
29
90.
A tRNA molecule is "bilingual" because it binds to:
A. Amino acids and
DNA
B. DNA and mRNA
codons
C. Codons of mRNA and amino
acids
D. Promoters and amino
acids
E. Promoters and
terminators
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #20
Question Type: Comprehension
91.
The step of translation in which an mRNA, a small ribosomal subunit and the initiator tRNA are aligned
together is:
A. Mitosis
B. Initiation
C. Elongatio
n
D. Terminatio
n
E. Transcriptio
n
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #21
Question Type: Comprehension
92.
The step of translation in which amino acids are added one at a time to the growing polypeptide is:
A. Mitosis
B. Initiation
C. Elongatio
n
D. Terminatio
n
E. Transcriptio
n
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #22
Question Type: Comprehension
30
93.
The step of translation in which release factors bind to a stop codon is:
A. Mitosis
B. Initiation
C. Elongatio
n
D. Terminatio
n
E. Transcriptio
n
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #23
Question Type: Comprehension
94.
A group of genes and other segments of DNA in Bacteria that are controlled together is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A
proteome
A
chromosome
A
ribosome
An
operon
A replication
fork
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #28
Question Type: Knowledge
95.
In the Lac operon, the protein that binds to the operator to prevent transcription is:
A. RNA
polymerase
B. DNA
polymerase
C. The
repressor
D. The
promoter
E. Lactos
e
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #30
Question Type: Comprehension
31
96.
Proteins that initiate transcription in eukaryotes by recognizing sequences within the promoter region of a gene
and attracting RNA polymerase are:
A. Represso
rs
B. Transcription
factors
C. Inducer
s
D. TATA
boxes
E. Poly A Tails
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #33
Question Type: Knowledge
97.
A change in a cell's DNA sequence is:
A. Replicatio
n
B. Transcriptio
n
C. Translatio
n
D. An
operon
E. A mutation
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #34
Question Type: Knowledge
98.
In a "missense" (nonsynonymous) mutation in an exon:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The codon that mutates does not cause a change in the amino acid
specified
The codon that mutates causes a change in the amino acid
specified
The codon that mutates causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an
amino acid
All of the above are correct
answers
None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #36
Question Type: Application
32
99.
In a "silent" (synonymous) mutation that occurs in an exon:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The codon that mutates does not cause a change in the amino acid
specified
The codon that mutates causes a change in the amino acid
specified
The codon that mutates causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an
amino acid
All of the above are
correct
None of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #37
Question Type: Application
100.
A "frameshift" mutation:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
May be caused by an addition of any number of nucleotides (bases) not in multiples
of three
May be caused by a deletion of any number of nucleotides (bases) not in multiples
of three
Disrupts the reading frame of a
gene
Usually destroys a protein's ability to
function
All of the above are
correct
Difficulty Level: Low
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12 #38
Question Type: Comprehension
33
Organismal Biology Section Two Exam Summary
Category
# of Questio
ns
Difficulty Level: Low
40
Difficulty Level: Moderate
60
Hoefnagels - Chapter 07
15
Hoefnagels - Chapter 08
22
Hoefnagels - Chapter 09
19
Hoefnagels - Chapter 10
14
Hoefnagels - Chapter 11
10
Hoefnagels - Chapter 12
20
Question Type: Applicatio
n
6
Question Type: Compreh
ension
41
Question Type: Knowledg
e
53
1