Download 0101BWhat characterizes a prokaryotic cell

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__1) The _________________ is the smallest unit that retains most of the characteristics of life.
a) molecule
b) liposome
c) cell
d) tissue
e) virus
__2) The following statements are true about ALL living things EXCEPT
a) They are made of cells or cell products.
c) They undergo growth and development.
b) They are the products of evolution.
d) They have a cell wall as an outer boundary.
e) They are composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen.
__3) Which of the following levels in the hierarchy of biological organization include all of the other
levels in the list?
a) organ system
b) organism
c) population
d) ecosystem
e) community
__4) The study of tissues is called:
a) cytology
b) molecular biology c) histology
d) parasitology
e) pathology
__5) Concluded that all living things consist of cells.
a) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
c) Schleiden and Schwann
e) Charles Manson
b) Robert Hooke
d) Barbara McClintock
f) Charles Darwin
__6) The cell theory is an example of a conclusion based on:
a) vitalistic inspiration.
b) inductive reasoning.
c) controlled experimentation.
d) microscopic study of all organisms.
e) application of evolutionary theory.
__7) The ability to maintain an approximately constant internal environment is called:
a) metabolism
b) homeostasis
c) development
d) physiology
e) thermoregulation
__8) Which of these is composed of two or more tissue types that come together to perform a function?
a) organs
b) organ systems
c) organisms
d) cells
e) macromolecules
__9) All members of one species form a:
a) biosphere
b) ecosystem
c) population
d) community
e) country
__10) All populations in one area plus their physical (abiotic) environment constitutes a(n):
a) biosphere
b) ecosystem
c) population
d) community
e) country
__11) A characteristic of life is:
a) chemical bonds
b) the production of CO2 c) the use of oxygen
d) evolution
__12) Which of the following can an experiment NOT do?
a) prove a hypothesis
c) lead to a modification of a hypothesis
b) disprove a hypothesis
d) none of the above
__13) Which of the following represents the highest degree of certainty?
a) hypothesis
b) conclusion
c) principle
d) theory
e) law
__14) The validity of scientific discoveries should be based on:
a) morality
b) aesthetics
c) philosophy
d) economics
e) none of these
__15) A tentative explanation based on observation and past knowledge is a:
a) hypothesis
b) phenomenon
c) law
d) variable
e) theory
__16) Scientific method includes all of these except:
a) observation
c) testing
b) hypothesis making
d) the application of knowledge gained
__17) The smallest unit of mater is called a(n):
a) isotope
b) molecule
c) atom
d) element
e) proton
__18) Water is an example of a(n):
a) atom
b) ion
c) compound
d) mixture
e) element
__19) Which of the following includes the other three?
a) an atom
b) a molecule
c) a compound
d) an element
__20) What determines the chemical properties of an atom?
a) the atomic mass of the atom
d) the number of isotopes of the atom
b) the number of electrons in the outermost shell
e) none of the above is correct
c) the number of neutrons in the nucleus
__21) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. 15N is heavier than 14N because 15N has:
a) eight protons
b) eight neutrons
c) seven protons
d) seven neutrons
e) 14 electrons
__22) The negative subatomic particle is the:
a) neutron
b) proton
c) electron
d) both A and B
e) none of these
__23) The positive subatomic particle is the:
a) neutron
b) proton
c) electron
d) both A and B
e) none of these
__24) The atomic number of the atoms are given. Which forms the same number of bonds as carbon?
a) 7 nitrogen
b) 9 fluorine
c) 10 neon
d) 12 magnesium
e) 14 silicon
__25) Atoms whose outer electron shells contain eight electrons tend to:
a) form ionic bonds in aqueous solutions.
c) be particularly stable and nonreactive.
b) form covalent bonds in aqueous solutions.
d) be particularly unstable and very reactive.
e) be biologically important since they are present in organic molecules.
__26) Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of:
a) functional groups.
c) carbon compounds.
b) vital forces interacting with matter.
d) the properties of oxygen.
e) water and its interaction with other kinds of molecules.
__27) Nitrogen (atomic number 7) has ___ electrons in its inner shell and ___ electrons in its outer shell.
a) 7, 0
b) 5, 2
c) 2, 5
d) 3, 4
e) 3 1/2, 3 1/2
__28) The nucleus of an atom contains:
a) neutrons and protons
c) protons and electrons
e) positrons and neutrons
b) neutrons and electrons
d) neutrons only
f) none of the above
__29) A compound contains hydroxyl groups as its predominate functional group. Which of the following
statements is true concerning this compound?
a) It is probably a lipid.
d) It won't form hydrogen bonds with water.
b) It should dissolve in water.
e) It is hydrophobic
c) It should dissolve in a non-polar solvent.
f) B, C, and E
__30) Formation of large molecules from small repeating units is accomplished by a(n) _____ reaction.
a) oxidation
b) reduction
c) dehydration
d) hydrolysis
e) decarboxylation
__31) The breakdown of large molecules into their subunits is called a(n) ____________ reaction.
a) oxidation
b) reduction
c) condensation
d) hydrolysis
e) decarboxylation
__32) What is the reason why hydrocarbons are not soluble in water?
a) They are hydrophilic.
c) They do not ionize.
e) They are lighter than water.
b) The C-H bond is nonpolar.
d) They are large molecules.
__33) Which of the following contains nitrogen in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen?
a) an alcohol such as ethanol
d) an amino acid such as glycine
b) a compound of fats such as glycerol
e) a hydrocarbon such as benzene
c) a steroid such as testosterone
__34) Proteins may function as:
a) structural units
c) storage molecules
e) enzymes
b) hormones
d) transport molecules
f) all of the above
__35) Which is the best description of a carbonyl group?
a) a carbon and hydrogen atom
b) an oxygen double bonded to a carbon and a hydroxyl group
c) a nitrogen and a hydrogen bonded to a carbon atom
d) a sulfur and a hydrogen bonded to a carbon atom
e) a carbon atom joined to an oxygen atom by a double bond
__36) Which group does an amine possess?
a) -OH
b) -CO
c) -COOH
d) -NH2
e) -SH
__37) A macromolecule is composed of smaller units called:
a) polymers
b) cells
c) isomers
d) monomers
e) isotopes
__38) Which of the following is not a macromolecule?
a) protein
b) starch
c) nucleotide
d) lipid
e) DNA
__39) A(n) ____________ is a basic unit of a carbohydrate.
a) monosaccharide b) starch
c) nucleotide
d) glycerol
e) amino acids
__40) Which of the following includes all the others?
a) sucrose
b) glucose
c) cellulose
d) glycogen
e) carbohydrate
__41) Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
a) glucose
b) fructose
c) deoxyribose
d) sucrose
e) ribose
__42) Nucleotides are composed of a(an): A. amino acid, B. nitrogen-containing base, C. fatty acid, D.
pentose sugar, E. phosphate molecule.
a) B, D, C
b) A, D, E
c) C, D, E
d) B, D, E
e) A, B, C
__43) Monosaccharides are characterized by all but which of the following?
a) a carbonyl group
d) possession of one or more hydroxyl group
b) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio
e) the presence of glycerol and three fatty acids
c) a molecule of three to seven carbon atoms
__44) The polysaccharide that makes up the plant cell wall is:
a) sucrose
b) glycogen
c) starch
d) cellulose
e) nucleotides
__45) In a lipid bilayer ___________ tails point inward and form a region that excludes water.
a) acidic
b) basic
c) hydrophilic
d) hydrophobic
e) none of these
__46) The element commonly responsible for making an organic molecule POLAR is:
a) oxygen
b) carbon
c) hydrogen
d) chlorine
e) sulfur
__47) A carbohydrate (polysaccharide) that is formed by plants and used later by the plant as a reserve
food supply and made up of only glucose molecules covalently bonded together is:
a) cellulose
b) starch
c) glycogen
d) triglycerides
e) sucrose
__48) All amino acids have 4 common features. Which one of the following is not one of those?
a) amino group
b) hydrogen atom
c) carboxylic acid group d) sulfhydryl group
e) some distinct atom or cluster of atoms called an R-group or side chain
__49) Nucleotides are the building blocks for:
a) proteins
b) steroids
c) lipids
d) RNA
e) carbohydrates
__50) Which of the following is not found in every nucleic acid molecule?
a) ribose
b) phosphate
c) purine
d) pyrimidine
e) all of these are found in every nucleic acid
__51) An abbreviation for a nucleotide that accepts and stores energy in the form of high-energy
phosphate bonds is:
a) NAD+
b) FAD+
c) NADP+
d) ATP
e) AMP
__52) Amino acids are the building blocks for:
a) proteins
b) steroids
c) lipids
d) nucleic acids
e) carbohydrates
__53) The linkage between two amino acids is called a(n) ___________ bond.
a) peptide
b) ionic
c) hydrogen
d) double
e) amino
__54) Which of these statements best summarizes structural differences between DNA and RNA?
a) RNA is a protein while DNA is a nucleic acid.
c) DNA contains a different sugar than RNA.
b) DNA is not a polymer, but RNA is.
d) DNA has different purine bases than RNA.
e) Both DNA and RNA are usually found as double helices in nature.
__55) The sequence of amino acids is the ___________ structure of proteins.
a) primary
b) secondary
c) tertiary
d) quaternary
e) stereo
__56) The element nitrogen is present in all of the following except:
a) proteins
b) nucleic acids
c) amino acids
d) DNA
e) lipids
__57) Which of the following is true of an amino acid and starch?
a) both contain nitrogen
c) both are polymers
e) both found in DNA
b) both contain oxygen
d) both are hydrophobic
f) both are found in proteins
__58) The major purpose of RNA is to:
a) transmit genetic information to offspring
c) act as a pattern to form DNA
b) function in the synthesis of proteins
d) form the genes of an organism
__59) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'-ATTGCA-3', the other strand would
have the sequence:
a) 3'-TAACGT-5'
b) 3'-TCCCGT-5'
c) 3'-TUUCGU-5'
d) 3'-TAAGCT-5'
e) 3'-TUUGCU-5'
__60) All of the following molecules are proteins except:
a) hemoglobin
b) antibodies
c) collagen
d) enzymes
e) DNA
__61) All of the following bases are found in DNA except:
a) thymine
b) adenine
c) uracil
d) guanine
e) cytosine
__62) Which type of interaction stabilizes the alpha helix structure of proteins?
a) hydrophobic interactions
c) ionic interactions
e) polar covalent bonds
b) non-polar covalent bonds
d) hydrogen bonds
__63) At which level of protein structure are interactions between R-groups most important?
a) primary
b) secondary
c) tertiary
d) quaternary
__64) The alpha helix and the beta pleated sheet are both common forms found in which level of
structure of proteins?
a) primary
b) secondary
c) tertiary
d) quaternary
__65) Contains hydrolytic enzymes.
a) lysosome
b) tonoplast
c) mitochondrion
d) Golgi apparatus e) peroxisome
__66) Site of aerobic respiration.
a) lysosome
b) tonoplast
c) mitochondrion
d) Golgi apparatus e) peroxisome
__67) Detoxifies alcohol in the liver.
a) lysosome
b) tonoplast
c) mitochondrion
d) Golgi apparatus
e) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
__68) Involved in cell-to-cell communication.
a) plasmodesmata
c) tight junction
e) communication junctions
b) intermediate filaments
d) desmosomes
f) gap junctions
__69) Place where ribosomal precursors are assembled.
a) centriole
b) lysosome
c) nucleolus
d) peroxisome
e) ribosome
__70) Makes steroid hormones in the gonads.
a) mitochondria
c) rough endoplasmic reticulum
e) plasma membrane
b) Golgi complex
d) lysosomes
f) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
__71) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a) nucleolus : ribosomes
c) lysosome : protein synthesis
e) nuclear membrane : lamins
b) nucleus : DNA replication
d) cell membrane : lipid bilayer
f) cytoskeleton : microtubules
__72) Cells would be unable to form cilia or flagella if they did not have which cell structures?
a) ribosomes
b) chloroplasts
c) microtubules
d) plastids
e) microfilaments
__73) Which of the following is capable of converting light energy to chemical bond energy?
a) chloroplasts
b) mitochondria
c) leucoplasts
d) peroxisomes
e) Golgi bodies
__74) One of the functions of cholesterol in plasma membranes is to:
a) facilitate transport of ions
c) maintain membrane fluidity
e) prevent osmosis
b) store energy
d) speed diffusion
f) phosphorylate ADP
__75) White blood cells engulf yeast through what process?
a) exocytosis
b) phagocytosis
c) pinocytosis
d) osmosis
__76) __________ contain enzymes for digestion of bacteria and viruses.
a) Golgi bodies
b) ribosomes
c) mitochondria
d) lysosomes
e) rER
__77) ___________ are sometimes referred to as rough or smooth depending upon its structure.
a) Golgi bodies
c) mitochondria
e) plasma membrane
b) ribosomes
d) lysosomes
f) endoplasmic reticulum
__78) Each is composed of two parts or subunits made of proteins and RNA.
a) Golgi bodies
c) mitochondria
e) nuclear membrane
b) ribosomes
d) lysosomes
f) endoplasmic reticulum
__79) Which of the following statements about bacteria, plant, and animal cell structure is correct?
a) Bacteria and plants are prokaryotic, but animal cells are eukaryotic
b) Plant and animal cells are prokaryotic, but bacteria are eukaryotic
c) Animal cells and bacteria are eukaryotic, but plant cells are prokaryotic
d) Bacteria are prokaryotic, but animal and plant cells are eukaryotic
e) Bacteria lack cell structure, but plants and animals have cell structure
__80) The diameter of a typical prokaryotic cell is about:
a) 1 millimeter
b) 1 meter
c) 1 micrometer
d) 1 nanometer
e) 1 megameter
__81) You are shown one picture taken with a transmission electron microscope that shows a thinsection of a eukaryotic cell. Of the following, which structure will allow you to say that this is most likely
a mature plant cell?
a) large vacuole
b) mitochondria
c) nucleus
d) rER
e) Golgi
__82) Which of the following bonds is the strongest?
a) ionic
b) covalent
c) polar
d) hydrogen
e) elemental
__83) The phospholipid molecules of most membranes have:
a) a hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail
d) a hydrophobic head and two hydrophilic tails
b) a hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail
e) a hydrophilic head and two hydrophobic tails
c) a hydrophobic head and two hydrophobic tails
f) none of the above
__84) Which of these can passively diffuse across the cell's plasma membrane? A. glucose, B. proteins,
C. oxygen, D. amino acids, E. carbon dioxide.
a) A, D
b) C, D
c) A, E
d) C, E
e) A, B
__85) __________is the compound acted upon by an enzyme.
a) accessory
b) allosteric group
c) coenzyme
d) substrate
e) activator
__86) The method of movement that requires the expenditure of ATP molecules is:
a) simple diffusion
c) osmosis
e) reverse osmosis
b) facilitated diffusion
d) active transport
f) bulk flow
__87) How does an enzyme catalyze a reaction?
a) supply the energy to speed up a reaction
c) lowering the G of a reaction
b) lower the energy of activation of a reaction
d) increase the amount of free energy of a reaction
e) changing the equilibrium of a spontaneous reaction
__88) Vesicles are developed from the membranes of the ____________ and move to the cell
membrane where they fuse during exocytosis.
a) mitochondria
b) Golgi
c) ribosomes
d) plastids
e) nucleoli
__89) Which of the statements regarding enzymes is false?
a) Enzymes are proteins that function as catalysts.
b) Enzymes display specificity for certain molecules to which they attach.
c) Enzymes provide activation energy for the reactions they catalyze.
d) The activity of enzymes can be regulated.
e) An enzyme may be used many times.
__90) Water is a polar solvent having both partial positively charged and negatively charged regions.
This polarity is caused by more _____________ on one end of the molecule than the other ends.
a) neutrons
b) protons
c) ions
d) electrons
e) atoms
__91) Which of the following is capable of being reduced during glycolysis and the Kreb’s cycle?
a) NAD+
b) ATP
c) ADP
d) lactic acid
e) FAD
__92) Which of the following is an exergonic reaction?
a) break down of glucose
c) synthesis of starch
e) synthesis of amino acids
b) synthesis of glucose
d) movement
f) active transport
__93) A molecule that gives up an electron is said to be:
a) ionized
b) oxidized
c) reduced
d) hydrolyzed
+
__94) When NADH is converted to NAD , NADH was:
a) oxidized
b) reduced
c) phosphorylated
d) denatured
e) hydrolyzed
__95) All of the following statements regarding enzymes are true except:
a) Enzymes allow molecules to react in metabolism by lowering activation energies.
b) Each type of enzyme has a uniquely shaped active site, that gives it specificity.
c) Enzymes are carbohydrates that function as agents that change the rate of reaction without being
consumed in the reaction.
d) Enzymes are very sensitive to environmental conditions that influence the weak chemical bonds
responsible for their three-dimensional structure.
e) Some enzymes change shape when regulator molecules, either activators or inhibitors, bind to specific
allosteric receptor sites.
__96) NAD+ is:
a) an inorganic molecule
c) a reducing agent
e) a product of glycolysis
b) an electron carrier
d) highly phosphorylized
f) a metabolic waste product
__97) Plants need __________ and __________ to perform photosynthesis.
a) oxygen and water
c) carbon dioxide and water
e) light and oxygen
b) oxygen and carbon dioxide
d) sugar and water
f) none of the above
__98) Glycolysis:
a) takes place in the mitochondria
d) results in the formation of two pyruvates
b) requires oxygen
e) all of these (a-d)
c) is the first step in the breakdown of glucose
f) both C and D, but not A or B
__99) How many ATPs are first used in glycolysis before any ATP is yielded?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
e) 4
__100) Glycolysis would stop if the process ran out of ______, which serves as the electron acceptor.
a) NADP+
b) AMP
c) NAD+
d) water
e) none of these
__101) The net yield per molecule of glucose used during glycolysis is:
a) one ATP
b) two ATP
c) four ATP
d) thirty-six ATP
e) thirty-eight ATP
__102) Pyruvate can be regarded as the end product of:
a) glycolysis
c) fermentation
e) Calvin cycle
b) acetyl CoA formation
d) the Kreb’s cycle
f) none of these
__103) The Kreb’s cycle takes place in the:
a) ribosomes
b) centromeres
c) cytoplasm
d) mitochondria
e) plastids
__104) Under anaerobic conditions muscle cells produce:
a) ethanol
b) acetaldehyde
c) pyruvate
d) lactic acid
e) citric acid
__105) The mitochondria uses ____ as its terminal electron acceptor.
a) hydrogen
b) carbon
c) water
d) oxygen
e) NAD+
f) NADH
__106) During electron transport, _____ accumulate in the outside of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
a) calcium
b) electrons
c) oxygen
d) protons
e) sodium
__107) The beta-oxidation pathway is involved in the breakdown of:
a) carbohydrates
b) glycogen
c) amino acids
d) nucleic acids
e) fatty acids
__108) The greatest number of ATP molecules are produced by _____ in animals.
a) glycolysis
c) fermentation
e) photophosphorylation
b) substrate level phosphorylation d) Kreb’s cycle
f) oxidative phosphorylation
__109) What is the general process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones called?
a) catalysis
b) metabolism
c) anabolism
d) dehydration
e) catabolism
__110) In what cell organelle does photosynthesis occur?
a) tonoplast
b) Golgi bodies
c) chloroplast
d) lysosome
e) chlorophyll
__111) _______ and _________ are products of the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis that are
used as chemical forms of energy to drive the energy requiring light independent reactions.
a) oxygen and ATP
b) NADPH and ATP
c) PEP and NADPH
d) sugar phosphates and inorganic phosphates
e) photosystem I and photosystem II
__112) In photosynthesis, the chemical energy formed by the light-dependent reactions is used to drive the
light-independent reactions. The name of the pathway used for the light independent pathway is:
a) Kreb’s cycle
c) photosystem I and II
e) PPP cycle
b) TCA cycle
d) Harley-Davidson cycle
f) Calvin cycle
__113) The carbons in the carbohydrates produced during photosynthesis originate as:
a) phosphate
b) carbon dioxide
c) ATP
d) NADPH
e) starch
__114) Reduction of CO2.
a) respiration only
c) both respiration and photosynthesis
b) photosynthesis only
d) neither respiration nor photosynthesis
__115) Oxidation of water.
a) respiration only
c) both respiration and photosynthesis
b) photosynthesis only
d) neither respiration nor photosynthesis
__116) Electron transport chain.
a) respiration only
c) both respiration and photosynthesis
b) photosynthesis only
d) neither respiration nor photosynthesis
__117) Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interiors of the thylakoids are no longer
separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following?
a) the splitting of water
b) the synthesis of ATP
c) the reduction of NADP
d) the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
e) the flow of electrons from photosystem II to I
__118) Although in a cycle we can start at any point, which of the below is in correct order?
a) S--M--G1--G2
b) S--M--G2--G1
c) S--G1--G1--M
d) S--G2--M--G1
e) S--G1--M--G2
__119) Crossing-over occurs during:
a) metaphase I
b) metaphase II
c) prophase I
d) prophase II
e) anaphase I
__120) Synthesis of DNA:
a) occurs during prophase
c) occurs during interphase
b) occurs during anaphase
d) occurs during all stages of meiosis
e) is necessary for mitosis but not meiosis
__121) In humans there are 48 pairs of chromosomes.
a) True
b) False
__122) The nuclear membrane reappears in mitosis during:
a) interphase
b) prophase
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
e) telophase
__123) G1, S, and G2 phases are of a larger process called:
a) prophase
b) metaphase
c) anaphase
d) telophase
e) interphase
__124) Which of these events takes place during cytokinesis?
a) doubling of cell size
c) replication of DNA
b) division of the cell into two daughter cells
d) breakdown of the nuclear envelope
e) migration of the chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell
__125) The function of mitosis is to ensure that each daughter cell:
a) receives half of the organelles of the parent cell
b) gets a full complement of chromosomes
c) is exactly half the size of the parent cell
d) receives half of the microtubules from the disassembled spindle
e) retains the capacity to go through another cell cycle
__126) After the S phase, each chromosome consists of two replicas called sister:
a) chromatids
b) kinetochores
c) centrioles
d) centromeres
e) spindles
__127) Which of these events marks the beginning of anaphase?
a) movement of centromeres toward the cell’s poles
b) completion of centriole replication
c) breakdown and dispersal of the nuclear envelope
d) arrangement of sister chromatids at the cell’s midpoint
e) separation of sister chromatids at the centromere
__128) Pairs of chromosomes which encode genetic information for the same traits are called:
a) heterologous
b) homozygous
c) homologous
d) complimentary
e) identical
__129) The phases of meiosis that cause the most variation in the four resulting daughter cells are
a) prophase I and telophase II
c) metaphase I and telophase II
e) prophase I and metaphase I
b) prophase II and anaphase II
d) anaphase I and prophase II
f) prophase I and anaphase II
__130) At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?
a) prophase
b) metaphase
c) anaphase
d) telophase
__131) Which of the following is false in comparing prophase I of meiosis and prophase of mitosis?
a) The chromosomes
b) Crossing over occurs
c) A spindle apparatus forms
d) The nuclear envelope disassembles
e) chromosomes have two chromatids
__132) After fertilization of an egg, the resulting zygote forms a new multicellular individual by the process
called _______. Another process, called ______ is used only to produce gametes.
a) meiosis -- mitosis
b) mitosis -- meiosis
c) binary fission -- monary fission
d) asexual reproduction -- sexual reproduction
e) sexual reproduction -- asexual reproduction
__133) Meiosis occurs in the:
a) ovaries
b) vagina
c) testes
d) penis
e) B and D
f) A and C
__134) Homologous chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs.
a) mitosis only
c) meiosis II only
e) mitosis and meiosis II
b) meiosis I only
d) mitosis and meiosis I
__135) This occurs when a cell divides to form two cells that are genetically identical.
a) mitosis only
c) meiosis II only
e) mitosis and meiosis II
b) meiosis I only
d) mitosis and meiosis I
__136) Centromeres uncouple and chromatids are separated from each other.
a) mitosis only
c) meiosis II only
e) mitosis and meiosis II
b) meiosis I only
d) mitosis and meiosis I
__137) Nerve and muscle cells are in this phase.
a) G0
b) G1
c) S
d) G2
e) M
__138) Kinetochore microtubules attach to the:
a) centromere
b) nucleus
c) DNA polymerase d) chromatin
e) nuclear envelope
__139) Meiosis is used to form:
a) sperm
b) eggs
c) gametes
d) sex cells
e) all of the above
__140) How many chromosomes are found in an egg?
a) 46
b) 23
c) 12
d) 3
e) 1
__141) What is the primer that is required to initiate the synthesis of a new DNA strand?
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) protein
d) ligase
e) primase
__142) Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' 3' direction?
a) primase
b) DNA ligase
c) DNA polymerase d) topoisomerase
e) helicase
__143) It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule
could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in its:
a) sequence of bases
c) charge of the chromosome
e) different five-carbon sugars
b) phosphate-sugar backbones
d) charge of the phosphate
__144)
DNA ligase
a. Adds nucleotides to primer and growing DNA strand
__145)
DNA polymerase
b. unwinds the DNA double helix
__146)
DNA helicase
c. relieves stress caused by helicases
__147)
Primase
d. Lays down RNA primer
__148)
Single-stranded binding proteins
e. seals the ends of newly created DNA pieces
f. keeps complimentary strands of DNA from reannealing
__149) The problem of replicating the lagging strand, that is, adding bases in the 3' 5' direction, is solved
by DNA through the use of:
a) base-pairing
b) replication forks
c) Okazaki fragments
d) topoisomerases
__150) Where is the attachment site for RNA polymerase?
a) structural gene region
c) promoter region
e) intron
b) initiation region
d) operator region
f) regulator region
__151) What kind of chemical bonds are found between paired bases of the DNA double helix?
a) hydrogen
b) ionic
c) covalent
d) sulfhydryl
e) phosphate
__152) What is an anticodon part of?
a) DNA
c) mRNA
e) activating
b) tRNA
d) ribosome
enzyme
__153) Once transcribed, eukaryotic RNA typically undergoes alteration that includes:
a) excision of introns.
c) addition of 5’ cap.
e) None of these.
b) addition of poly A tail.
d) All of these.
__154) The minimum number of nucleotides that could code for a 300 amino acid long protein is:
a) 3
b) 100
c) 300
d) 900
e) 1800
__155) If in a DNA template there is an AGT, the corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed from the
gene is:
a) AGT
b) UCA
c) TCA
d) AGU
__156) The anticodon on the tRNA that binds this mRNA codon from the above question is:
a) AGT
b) UCA
c) TCA
d) AGU
__157) What are the coding segments of a gene called?
a) introns
b) exons
c) codons
d) replicons
e) transposons
__158) All of the following are directly involved in translation except:
a) mRNA
b) tRNA
c) ribosomes
d) rRNA
e) DNA
__159) Water freezes at __________C and boils at __________ C.
a) 32 . . . 98.6
b) 0 . . . 212
c) 0 . . . 37
d) 37 . . . 100
e) 0 . . . 100
__160) 47,XXY
a. Down syndrome
__161) Trisomy 21
b. Edwards syndrome
__162) Trisomy 18
c. Metafemale
__163) Trisomy 13
d. Klinefelter syndrome
__164) 47,XYY
e. Jacobs syndrome
__165) 45,X
f. Patua syndrome
__166) 47,XXX
g. Turner syndrome
__167) Which of the following is responsible for about 15% of spontaneous abortions in humans?
a) monosomy
b) trisomy
c) polyploidy
d) cytokinesis
e) introns
__168) Body temperature is ___ C.
a) 98.6
b) 212
c) 37
d) 100
e) 0
__169) Which of these is responsible for carrying amino acids to the ribosome?
a) DNA
b) rRNA
c) tRNA
d) mRNA
e) ribosomes
__170) Which of the following contains a coded message of how to construct a protein?
a) rRNA
b) tRNA
c) mRNA
d) rER
e) ribosomes
__171) A codon contains ____ nucleotides.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 20
__172) DNA contains information directly governing which level of protein organization.
a) primary
b) secondary
c) tertiary
d) quaternary
__173) What segments of RNA are removed in the final preparation of mRNA?
a) introns
b) promoters
c) exons
d) terminators
e) anticodon
__174) The average size of a virus is:
a) 10 nm
b) 100 nm
c) 1 μm
d) 10 μm
e) 200 μm
__175) The average size of a eukaryotic cell is:
a) 10 nm
b) 100 nm
c) 1 μm
__176) What is the resolution of the human eye?
a) 10 nm
b) 100 nm
c) 1 μm
__177) The cell theory states state
a) all cells have a nucleus
b) all cells divide by mitosis
c) all living organisms are made up of cells
__178)
__179)
__180)
__181)
__182)
__183)
__184)
__185)
__186)
__187)
__188)
__189)
__190)
alleles
codominant
dihybrid cross
diploid
polymorphic allele
fixed allele
phenotype
genotype
heterozygous
sex-linked trait
homozygous
pedigree analysis
locus
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)
h)
i)
j)
k)
l)
m)
n)
o)
p)
q)
r)
d) 10 μm
e) 200 μm
d) 10 μm
e) 200 μm
d) cells arise through spontaneous generation.
e) growth is solely the result of cell division
an allelic relationship when both alleles are expressed in heterozygotes
regions of DNA that code for protein
a condition when a person has two different alleles for a particular gene
chromosomes that contain the same gene
the region on a chromosome where a particular gene is located
looking at one’s ancestors to determine one’ genotype
an allelic relationship where one allele completely masks the other allele
where two or more genes determines a particular characteristic
a gene that has two or more forms in a population
a person’s genetic makeup (e.g., TT, Tt, or tt)
producing many offspring with a homozygous recessive individual
nuclei containing two sets of chromosomes
different forms of a particular gene
a situation where there is only one allele for a gene in a population
genes located on the X chromosome
a condition when a person has two of the same alleles for a particular gene
crosses that are examining two traits at a time
an individual’s physical characteristics
__191) A woman who was a carrier for sex-linked hemophilia married a man with hemophilia. What would
be the chance their daughter would have hemophilia?
a) 0
b) 1/16
c) ¼
d) ½
e) 1
__192) A woman who was a carrier for sex-linked hemophilia married a man with hemophilia. What would
be the chance their son would have hemophilia?
a) 0
b) 1/16
c) ¼
d) ½
e) 1
__193) A woman who was a carrier for sex-linked color blindness married a man with normal vision. What
would be the chance their daughter would have hemophilia?
a) 0
b) 1/16
c) ¼
d) ½
e) 1
__194) A woman who was a carrier for sex-linked color blindness married a man with normal vision. What
would be the chance their son would have hemophilia?
a) 0
b) 1/16
c) ¼
d) ½
e) 1
__195) If the allele for inflated pea pods (I) is dominant to the allele for constricted (i), the cross Ii  ii is
expected to produce:
a) All with inflated pods
d) 3/4 with inflated and 1/4 with constricted pods
b) All with constricted pods
e) 3/4 with constricted and 1/4 with inflated pods
c) Half with inflated and half with constricted pods
__196) All cells contain the same kinds of proteins in the same relative locations.
a) True
b) False
__197) What is the ratio of phenotypes in the offspring produced by the cross Aa  Aa? Assume complete
dominance for the trait.
a) 100% dominance
c) 75% dominant: 25% recessive e) 25% dominant: 75% recessive
b) 100% recessive
d) 50% dominant: 50% recessive
__198) Prokaryotic cells:
a) have a well defined nucleus
b) have organelles with membranes that separate them from the cytoplasm
c) usually have a rigid cell wall
d) are multicellular
e) both A and B, but not C or D
__199) Due to faulty salt transport, abnormally thick mucus accumulates, usually resulting in death due to
lung infection.
a) cystic fibrosis
c) Tay Sachs disease
e) hemophilia
b) Huntingdon’s disease
d) phenylketonuria
__200) The inability of breaking down certain membrane lipids (sphingolipids), leads to their accumulation
in lysosomes. Results in mental retardation and death.
a) cystic fibrosis
c) Tay Sachs disease
e) hemophilia
b) Huntingdon’s disease
d) phenylketonuria
__201) The inability to break down a particular amino acid can result in this disease.
a) cystic fibrosis
c) Tay Sachs disease
e) hemophilia
b) Huntingdon’s disease
d) phenylketonuria
__202) The current theory of the structure of the plasma membrane is best described by the____ model.
a) sandwich
c) unit membrane
e) unipermeable
b) fluid-mosaic
d) electrochemical
__203) Unsaturated tails of lipids:
a) are hydrophilic
d) will create phosphate
b) are unstable and tend to break apart
e) all of the above
c) tend to make the membrane more fluid
__204) phospholipids
a. used for waterproofing
__205) triacylglycerols
b. major component of cell membranes
__206) waxes
c. used to stabilize cell membranes
__207) cholesterol
d. a steroid hormone associated with secondary female characteristics
__208) estrogen
e. stored in fat cells
__209) testosterone
f. a steroid hormone associated with secondary male characteristics
__210) Biology is fun!
a) true
b) false
HAVE A GREAT SPRING BREAK!!!