Download Proposed the "selective theory" to explain the origin of serum antibody

-1Bio 347
Final Comprehensive Examination
December 15, 2006
Name________Key________________________________
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I. Multiple Choice (2 pts each, 100 pts total). Please circle the best answer.
1. _______demonstrated that antibodies have a capacity for an almost unlimited range of reactivity.
A. Elie Metchnikoff
D. Edward Jenner
B. Louis Pasteur
E. Karl Landsteiner
C. Paul Ehrlich
2. ________ demonstrated that phagocytic cells contribute to the immune state of an animal
A. Elie Metchnikoff
B. Louis Pasteur
D. Edward Jenner
C. Paul Ehrlich
E. Ray Owen
3. Which cell type(s) expresses both MHC class I and II?
A. Macrophages
B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. T helper cells
D. Dendritic cells
E. A and D
4. Which cell type(s) present processed peptides to T helper cells?
A. B cells
B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. T helper cells
D. Dendritic cells
E. A and D
5. T helper cells
A. express CD4 membrane protein
B. express CD8 membrane protein
C. express T cell receptor (TCR)
D. express CTLA-4
E. A. C and D are correct
6. Cytotoxic T cells
A. express CD4 membrane protein
B. express CD8 membrane protein
C. express T cell receptor (TCR)
D. express CTLA-4
E. B,C and D are correct
7. The hematopoietic pluripotent stem cell
A. gives rise to lymphoid progenitor cells
B. gives rise to myeloid progenitor cells
C. is present in small numbers
D. is self renewing
E. A, B, C, and D are correct
-28. All immunoglobulins on the surface of a single antibody secreting B (plasma cell) cell
A. have the same idiotype
B. have the same isotype
C. have the same light chain type
D. A, B, and C are correct
E. None of the above are correct
9. An immunocompetent B cell will have productive rearrangements in the following order
A. Rearrangement of heavy chain allele first
B. Rearrangement of kappa light chain allele second
C. Rearrangement of lambda light chain allele second
D. A and B are correct
E. A and C are correct
10. An antigen presenting cell from a human will express___ MHC class I C,B,A membrane proteins
A. three
D. six
B. four
E. twelve
C. five
11. Class II MHC proteins are expressed on
A. all nucleated cells in the body
B. primarily on antigen-presenting cells
C. primarily on T helper cells
D. primarily on cytotoxic T cells
E. primarily on NK cells
12. MHC class I proteins
A. are composed of an alpha-chain and non-covalently associated with beta-2 microglobulin protein
B. are heterodimers composed of a 33 Kd alpha chain and a 28 Kd beta chain
C. can display peptides of 8-10 amino acids in size
D. can display peptides of 13-18 amino acids in size
E. A and C are correct
F. B and D are correct
13. MHC class II proteins
A. composed of an alpha-chain and non-covalently associated with beta-2 microglobulin protein
B. heterodimer composed of a 33 Kd alpha chain and a 28 Kd beta chain
C. can display peptides of 8-10 amino acids in size
D. can display peptides of 13-18 amino acids in size
E. A and D are correct
14. Cytotoxic T cells will interact with peptides from antigen presenting cells (APCs)
A. expressing MHC class I
B. expressing MHC class II
C. presenting peptides of 8-10 amino acids in size
D. presenting peptides of 13-18 amino acids in size
E. A and C are correct
15. Regulation of antibody responses (low versus high responders) in humans resides in the
A. DP, DQ, and DR region of the MHC
B. C, B, and A region of the MHC
C. C4, C2, TNF-alpha, TNF-beta region of the MHC
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
-316. "Nude" mice
A. lack or have greatly impaired cell-mediated immune responses
B. are unable to make antibodies to most antigens
C. can tolerate allografts and xenografts
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B, and C are correct
17. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) cause immunodeficiency by infecting and destroying
A. CD 8+ cytoxic T cells
D. NK cells
B. CD4+ T helper cells
E. A, B, C, and D are correct
C. B cells
18. Which of the following does not represent a mechanism by which tumors evade the immune
response?
A. Reduced expression of MHC:peptide complexes
B. Production of immunosuppressive cytokines
C. Enhanced expression of co-stimulatory molecules
D. Development of antigen loss variants or escape mutants
19. Severe combined immunodefiency (SCID) can be caused by knockout of:
A. RAG 1 and RAG2 genes
B. MHC class I genes
C. MHC class II genes
D. gamma heavy chains
E. lambda light chains
20. The processes that generate combining site diversity in Igs and TcRs:
A. occur only after antigen stimulation.
B. are identical to those used to create diversity among MHC gene products.
C. never result in autoreactive specificities.
D. exploit imprecise joining of multiple gene segments to afford diversity.
21. In designing a monoclonal blocking antibody to IgE (anti-IgE) to be used in treating or preventing
allergic reactions, one would target the monoclonal antibody to which structure of the IgE molecule?
A. variable region of heavy chain
B. CH1-CH2 domain
C. Fc portion
D. hinge region
E. constant region of light chain
22. Primary humoral responses:
A. display more rapid onset and longer duration than secondary responses.
B. generally begin with IgM, followed by other isotypes.
C. contain antibodies of higher average affinity than secondary responses.
D. give a robust immune response to vaccines
E. none of the above
23. The ability to discriminate between self and non-self is a hallmark of the adaptive immune response.
The ability to discriminate between transformed or infected cells and normal cells is also displayed by a
cell of the innate immune system. Which of these cells is it?
A. neutrophils
D. basophils
B. NK cells.
E. eosinophils
C. macrophages
-424. A loss of function mutation of the gene encoding which of the following proteins would prevent
development of IgE-mediated anaphylaxis?
A. FcRIIb
B. CD86
D. IL-12
C. CD40L
E. T-bet
25. Which of the following is a result of an aberrant T helper response with a shift toward Th2
differentiation?
A. allergic asthma
B. SCID
C. hyper IgM syndrome
D. graft vs. host disease
26. Which of the following statements is true?
A. CTLA-4 and CD28 both bind B7 molecules
B. The majority of activated T cells become memory cells after an antigenic stimulus
C. CD28 costimulation causes T cell anergy
D. Rearranging gene segments leads to diversity of CD3 chains
27. Standard long-term treatment for women with estrogen responsive (ER positive) breast cancer is
A. monoclonal antibody called herceptin
B. tamoxifen
C. vaccine containing mixture of tumor associated antigens
D. x-irradiation
E. none of the above
28. Which is a characteristic of a T-independent antigen B cell response?
A. primarily IgM
B. somatic hypermutation
C. affinity maturation
D. secondary/memory response
29. Immunological tolerance to self can be characterized as:
A. A state of the immune system encoded in the germline
B. A consequence of interactions between lymphocytes and self-antigens during development
C. A mechanism for immune surveillance
D. A function of the innate immune system
30. Which cell is a major source of IL-4, IL-5 and IL-10?
A. Th1 cells
C. cytotoxic T cells
B. Th2 cells
D. macrophages
31. Baby Jane was immunized for all childhood diseases, including polio virus. At the age of
5 she became ill and was diagnosed as having polio. Immune assays showed that she was
immunized against all the childhood diseases in which she had received immunizations;
with the exception that there were no antibodies to polio virus (the lot number showed
that the immunizations contained immunogenic form of the polio virus). How would you
explain the absence of antibodies to the immunizing polio virus?
A. The patient may have multiple myeloma
B. The patient may have an inability to induce class switching
C. The patient may have defects in MHC II
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B and C are correct
-532. Studies in chickens by Bishop and Varmus showed that a non-transforming virus could become a
transforming virus when expressed in chickens. The virus picked up an oncogene called Erb-B from a
chicken protooncogene called
A. insulin growth factor receptor
B. transforming growth factor receptor
C. Fas receptor
D. epidermal growth factor receptor
E. nuclear hormone receptor
33. Her-2/Neu oncogene is frequently amplified in
A. colon cancer
B. prostate cancer
C. liver cancer
D. breast cancer
E. lung cancer
34. A cell in the G1 cell cycle phase containing Rb in a non-phosphorylated state would be expected to:
A. remain in the G1 cell cycle phase
B. advance to the S cell cycle phase
C. undergo apoptosis
D. undergo cellular differentiation
E. skip S and G2 cell cycle phases and go directly into M cell cycle phase
35. MHC genes are referred to as being highly ________________________ in that MHC proteins in
the population exhibit high levels of allelic variations.
A. conserved
B. Polymorphic
C. Mutated
D None of the above
36. ______________________ mice are mice that are genetically identical except they differ at a single
genetic locus or region.
A. SCID
B. Nude
C. lpr
D. Congenic
E . Syngenic
37. The destruction of immune cells during T cell selection by apoptosis is mediated by the
_________________ signaling pathway.
A. Bax
B. Fas.
C. Bcl-2
D. EGFR
E. Caspase 8
38. The consequences of Type I hypersensitivity reactions are:
A. allergic responses
B. antibody/complement mediated cell lysis
C. antibody/complement/neutrophil/monocyte/macrophage complex resulting in tissue destruction
D. T cell response
E. NK responses
-639. The consequences of Type III hypersensitivity reactions are:
A. allergic responses
B. antibody/complement mediated cell lysis
C. antibody/complement/neutrophil/monocyte/macrophage complex resulting in tissue destruction
D. T cell response
E. NK responses
40. Presence of the _______intracellular protein (biomarker) would identify a CD4 T Regulatory cell.
A. Rb
B c-myc
C. cyclin D1
D. FOXO3
E. CTLA-4
41. Deficiency in T Regulatory cells most likely would result in
A. B and T cell deficiency disorder
B. loss of tolerance to self
C. autoimmunity
D. T cell leukemia
E. B and C are correct
42. Presence of T17 cells in a specific tissue or organ would suggest the following disorder
A. AIDS
B. multiple myeloma
C. autoimmunity
D. B cell deficiency
E. T cell leukemia
43. A tumor mass in the colon contains the following cell types: T helper 1 cells, T helper 2 cells,
Cytotoxic T cells, T regulatory, B cells, NK cells macrophages, neutrophils, and dendritic cells. One
would expect:
A. immune destruction of tumor cells
B. APC cells would be blocked from presenting to T effector cells
C. cytotoxic T cells would be blocked from killing tumor cells
D. T helper cells would be blocked from helping cytotoxic T cells or B cells
E. B, C and D are correct
44. A monoclonal blocking antibody to B7 receptor on APC would result in
A. increased proliferation of APC's
B. clonal expansion of T helper cells
D. anergy
C. clonal expansion of cytotoxic T cells
E. A, B, and C are correct
45. Which autoimmune disease is characterized by fever, weakness, arthritis, skin rashes, pleurisy,
kidney dysfunction, and presence of antibodies to single and double stranded DNA?
A. multiple sclerosis
D. Myasthenia gravis
B. systemic lupus erythematosus
E. insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
C. Grave's disease
46. Which autoimmune disease is characterized by progressive weakening of the skeletal muscles
leading to drooping eyelids and inability to retract the corners of the mouth?
A. multiple sclerosis
D. myasthenia gravis
B. systemic lupus erythematosus
E. insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
C. Grave's disease
-747. An individual with blood type B can accept transfusions of red blood cells only from individuals
with blood type
A. A
D. 0
B. B
E. B and D are correct
C. AB
48. A woman who is blood type B, Rh negative (Rh -/-) is anemic and has received several transfusions
of red blood cells only from blood type B Rh positive individuals. The woman's husband is blood type
A Rh positive. The couple would like to start a family. What advice would one give them regarding the
possibility of hemolytic anemia in their children?
A. Minimal to no possibility of having a child with hemolytic anemia.
B. If the child is blood type A, mother's anti-A antibodies would most likely cross the placenta and
cause hemolytic anemia in the developing fetus.
C. If the child is blood type B Rh positive, Rh antibodies in the mother would most likely cross the
placenta and cause hemolytic anemia in the developing fetus.
D. B and C are correct
49. Using antibodies that detect antigenic differences in IgG from a subset of individuals reveal that
the antigenic differences are inherited in a Mendelian fashion. These antigenic differences are
appropriately referred to as
A. isotypes
D. haplotypes
B. idiotypes
E. none of the above
C. allotypes
50. Breast cancer cells in an individual are referred to as being heterogenous since data show the
different cancer cells to
A. express different chromosome numbers
D. A and B are correct
B. express different mutations
E. A, B, and C are correct
C. express chromosome abnormalities such as deletions