* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
Download Term 3 Review Packet
Neocentromere wikipedia , lookup
Cre-Lox recombination wikipedia , lookup
Epitranscriptome wikipedia , lookup
Site-specific recombinase technology wikipedia , lookup
Nucleic acid analogue wikipedia , lookup
Extrachromosomal DNA wikipedia , lookup
Genetic engineering wikipedia , lookup
Genome (book) wikipedia , lookup
Epigenetics of human development wikipedia , lookup
Deoxyribozyme wikipedia , lookup
Polycomb Group Proteins and Cancer wikipedia , lookup
Therapeutic gene modulation wikipedia , lookup
Mir-92 microRNA precursor family wikipedia , lookup
X-inactivation wikipedia , lookup
Point mutation wikipedia , lookup
Designer baby wikipedia , lookup
History of genetic engineering wikipedia , lookup
Primary transcript wikipedia , lookup
Artificial gene synthesis wikipedia , lookup
Microevolution wikipedia , lookup
Name: _________________________ Intro to Genetics Matching _____1. Chromosome _____2. Dominant _____3. Recessive _____4. Homozygous _____5. Heterozygous _____6. Allele _____7. Genotype _____8. Phenotype _____9. P1 _____10. F1 _____11. Autosome a. Two of the same genes b. The original homozygous parents c. Any chromosome but the sex chromosomes d. How the genes are expressed in an individual’s physical characteristics. e. Always appears in the phenotype if it is found in the genotype f. Structure found in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell; contains genes g. The first generation of offspring h. A form of the gene i. Does not appear in the phenotype if paired with a dominant gene j. Two different genes k. Two letters that indicate an individual’s inherited trait. True/False If the answer is false, change crucial information in the statement to make it true. _____11. Rosalind Franklin discovered jumping genes. _____12. Sex influenced traits are usually autosomal. _____13. Height is both a polygenic and a complex character. _____14. A somatic cell mutation is passed on to offspring. _____15. A substitution mutation almost always leads to a frameshift. _____16. Hemophilia is more common in boys because it is carried on the X chromosome. Fill in the blank Germ cells give rise to ________________________. Which genetic trait provides protection against malaria when the individual is heterozygous? _________________________ Which genetic disorder (that we studied) was caused by a dominant gene? _____________________________ Which genetic disorder arises from XXY? _______________________________ Trisomy 21 is better known as _________________________________ When the environment affects the phenotype (how the genes are expressed), it is called a ___________________________________. Short Answer Explain what trisomies are and how they occur. Why are frameshift mutations potentially devastating? How are polygenic traits and multiple alleles different? List two examples of Sex Influenced traits. How do sex-influenced traits differ from sex-linked traits? Mendel and Punnett Squares MULTIPLE CHOICE Circle the most correct answer. 1. In order to produce a male offspring, an egg must be fertilized by a sperm carrying a(n) a. Y chromosome. c. X chromosome. b. X and a Y chromosome. d. None of the above 2. If the parents of a child have the ABO blood group genotypes AB and oo, what are the possible blood types of the child? a. A or B b. A only c. O d. AB 3. Which of the following genotypes is possible for a person whose ABO blood type is B? a. BB c. AB b. oo d. None of the above 4. Describe the following conditions as: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, sex-linked dominant or sex-linked recessive. Huntington’s: ____________________________ Sickle Cell Anemia: _________________________ Hemophilia: ______________________________ Cystic Fibrosis: ___________________________ Red-Green Colorblindness: _________________________ DRAWING CONCLUSIONS 5. For this sex-linked pedigree, give the genotypes of the following individuals: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. TRUE-FALSE _____6 . Codominance occurs when both alleles for a gene blend in a heterozygous offspring, such as would be seen in pink four o’clock flowers. MULTIPLE CHOICE Circle the most correct answer. 7. In a monohybrid cross between a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, one would predict the offspring to be a. 3:4 homozygous dominant. c. 1:4 homozygous recessive. b. 2:4 heterozygous. d. all heterozygous. 8. In a cross between two heterozygous parents, one would expect the offspring to be a. 1 pp : 3 PP. b. 3 Pp : 1 pp. c. 1 PP : 2 Pp : 1 pp. d. all Pp. 9. In guinea pigs, black fur is dominant. A black guinea pig is crossed with a white guinea pig. If the litter contains a white offspring, the genotype of the black-haired parent is probably a. homozygous dominant. c. homozygous recessive. b. heterozygous. d. None of the above. 10. If two parents with dominant phenotypes produce an offspring with a recessive phenotype, then probably a. both parents are heterozygous. c. both parents are homozygous. b. one parent is heterozygous. d. one parent is homozygous. 11. Suppose you have found a new species of plant. Some of the plants have yellow flowers, and some have red flowers. You cross a red-flowering plant with a yellow-flowering plant. All of the offspring have orange flowers. Suggest a possible genotype for the offspring. a. RR b. Rr c. RY d. rr SHORT ANSWER 12. Distinguish between codominance and incomplete dominance. Give an example of each type of inheritance. CELL DIVISION MATCHING Write the correct letter in the blank space before each numbered term. _____1. spindle fibers _____2. prophase a. the phase of mitosis during which chromosomes move to opposite poles b. the formation of gametes _____3. asexual reproduction c. pulls chromatids to opposite sides of a cell _____4. interphase d. the division of an animal cell into two offspring cells _____5. cytokinesis e. the division of the nucleus _____6. anaphase f. the production of offspring from one parent _____7. mitosis g. the first phase of mitosis _____8. meiosis h. the time between cell divisions; normal cell activities TRUE-FALSE If it is false, change crucial information in the statement to make it true. _____7. Each offspring cell that is produced by mitosis has half as many chromosomes as the original cell had. _____8. Chromatids form while DNA copies itself before cell division. _____9. Binary fission is the division of a prokaryotic cell into two offspring cells. _____10. Two of the 46 human chromosomes are autosomes. MULTIPLE CHOICE 11. If an organism has 12 chromosomes in each body cell, how many chromosomes would you expect to find in the organism’s gametes? a. 4 b. 6 c. 10 d. 12 12. During which phase of meiosis do homologous chromosomes line up side by side? a. prophase b. telophase I c. metaphase II d. anaphase II 13. The division of the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell is called a. mitosis. b. binary fission. c. cytokinesis. d. cytoplasmic streaming. 14. Spermatogenesis (the formation of sperm) results in a. four haploid cells. c. four diploid cells. b. one haploid cell. d. two sperm cells and two polar bodies. 15. Each offspring cell produced by binary fission (mitosis) contains a. half the chromosomes of the original cell. b. twice as many chromosomes as the original cell had. c. an identical copy of the original cell’s chromosome. d. an independent assortment of the original cell’s chromosomes. 16. Crossing-over results in genetic recombination by a. reducing the original cell’s chromosome number by half. b. randomly separating the maternal and paternal chromosomes. c. mixing half the maternal chromosomes with half the paternal chromosomes. d. permitting the exchange of genetic material between maternal and paternal chromosomes. 17. What structure not found in animal cells forms along the midline of a dividing plant cell? a. cleavage furrow b. chloroplast c. cell plate d. kinetochore SHORT ANSWER 18.a. List two ways that meiosis differs from mitosis. 18.b. Compare the products of mitosis with those of meiosis II. 19. How can sexual reproduction (as opposed to asexual reproduction) be advantageous to the evolution of a species? DRAWING CONCLUSIONS Follow the directions given below. 20. The diagrams below depict stages of cell reproduction. Identify the stages by writing the correct term in each blank. Indicate the correct sequence of the phases by writing a number next to the name of the phase. Then answer the question. g. What type of cell division is depicted here? Explain. Cancer, Etc. 21.T/F Viruses can cause cancer. 22.T/F Benign tumors are harmless. 23.Substances in the environment that may cause cancer by mutating DNA are called ____________________. 24. A gene that causes cancer is called an _______________________ 25. p53 is a _______________________________________________. 26. p53 is also known as the _________________ ___________________ gene. 27. Cancer cells do not have contact ________________________. 28. Cancer cells can break away, also called ___________________________. 29.Explain the role of telomeres in the Hayflick limit and apoptosis. 30.Cancer cells are immortal. Explain what this means and how “immortality” occurs. 31.Explain how mosaicism occurs. 32.Explain how a chimera occurs. DNA AND PROTEIN SYNTHESIS MATCHING Write the correct letter in the blank before each numbered term. _____1. anticodon _____2. codon _____3. deoxyribose _____4. double helix _____5. nucleotides _____6. peptide bond _____7. ribosome _____8. uracil a. site of translation (protein synthesis) b. repeating subunits that make up DNA or RNA molecules c. group of three sequential bases of mRNA d. substitutes for thymine in RNA e. links together amino acids in a protein f. identifies the specific amino acid for tRNA g. sugar found in DNA h. spiral shape of DNA MULTIPLE CHOICE Circle the most correct answer. 9. A large region of DNA that directs the formation of a protein is called a a. promoter. b. nucleotide. c. monomer. d. gene. 10. Which of the following bonds to one specific type of amino acid? a. mRNA b. tRNA c. rRNA d. DNA 11. New mRNA is made through the process of a. duplication. b. transcription. c. translation. d. crystallography. 12. Complementary base pairing links a. amino acids. c. phosphate groups. b. nitrogen-containing bases. d. proteins. 13. A section of one DNA strand has the sequence ACCGAGGTT. What is the sequence of an mRNA transcribed from this section of DNA? a. ACCGAGGUU b. ACCGAGGTT c. TGGCTCCAA d. UGGCUCCAA 14. In the nucleic acid shown at right, the structure labeled X represents a(n) a. nitrogen-containing base. b. deoxyribose molecule. c. amino acid. d. phosphate group. 15. Which type bond will form at the point labeled Yin the figure shown at right? a. peptide bond c. hydrogen bond b. covalent bond d. nitrogen bond 16. Which type of molecule is shown in the diagram at right? a. tRNA b. mRNA c. stop codon d. methionine 17. Name of the enzyme that attaches nucleotides to the complementary sides of a DNA molecule during replication. a. helicase b. DNA polymerase c. RNA polymerase d. ligase 18. How are replication and transcription similar? a. They both use a polymerase to attach free nucleotides. b. Nucleotides are attached to both sides. c. Both processes create an mRNA strand. d. All of the above. 19. codon::mRNA as a. translation::protein synthesis c. anticodon:tRNA b. transcription::tRNA d. ribosome::rRNA 20. The start codon for DNA is ____ ____ ____. SHORT ANSWER 21. Compare the structure of DNA with the structure of RNA. 23. Describe the structure and function of three different types of RNA. 24. What impact does the antiparallel nature of DNA have on replication? Use the terms DNA polymerase, lagging strand and Okasaki fragment 25. Name three scientists attributed with the discovery of the shape of the DNA double helix. 26. Why are genes like the Lac Operon controlled? 24. How does a primary RNA transcript differ from a mature RNA transcript? Use intron and exon in your explanation. EVOLUTION 1. You are determining the age of an organic object using the carbon-14 dating technique and you know that the half-life of carbon-14 is 5,730 years. If only 25 percent of the original amount of carbon-14 is left in the object, approximately how old is the object? a. 57,300 years b. 11,460 years c. 5,730 years d. 1,432 years MATCHING Write the correct letter in the blank before each numbered term. _____1. natural selection a. the lowest stratum in a cross section is the oldest _____2. acquired trait b. body structure that may have been useful to ancestors, but is no longer needed by current organisms _____3. vestigial structures c. when very different organisms evolve to look alike _____4. artificial selection d. process in which many related species evolved from a single ancestral species _____5. law of superposition e. is not determined by genes _____6. convergent evolution f. when some reproduce more than others, usually due to favorable traits _____7. divergent evolution g. manipulation of characteristics by intentional breeding TRUE-FALSE 8. _____ The relative age, but not the absolute age, of a fossil can be inferred using the law of superposition. 9. _____ Homologous structures in living organisms are a clue to common ancestry. MULTIPLE CHOICE 10. Analogous features a. look different and have dissimilar embryological origins. b. look similar but don’t indicate close ancestry (like shark and dolphin fins). c. may look different or similar but have similar embryological origins. d. None of the above 11. The pattern of evolution that is usually a response to different habitats is a. artificial selection. c. divergent evolution. b. coevolution. d. convergent evolution. 12. Which of the following is an acquired human characteristic? a. colorblindness in females c. the presence of a tailbone in humans b. sickle cell anemia d. large muscles from weight lifting 13. The similarity in the body shape of a shark and of a dolphin is an example of a. divergent evolution. c. vestigial structures b. convergent evolution. d. conserved genotype 14. What does the presence of a vestigial structure in a modern organism indicate? a. Natural selection prepares the anatomy of organisms so that in the future the vestigial structure can be used. b. The vestigial structure was not used by the modern organism, so it became nonfunctional within the organism’s lifetime. c. A limited number of genes are expressed during the lifetime of an organism. d. The structure probably was functional in some ancestor of the modern organism. 15. In order to be considered an evolutionarily favorable trait for an organism, a trait must increase the individual’s a. reproductive success b. health. c. lifespan. d. environmental range. SHORT ANSWER 16. Explain Lamarck’s theory of evolution, and tell what he was right about and what he was wrong about. 17. Briefly explain Darwin’s theory of evolution. Be sure to use natural selection in your description by using the four steps we learned in class. 18. Write everything you know about sickle cell anemia. (What happens if you’re heterozygous? What people are more likely to carry the trait? What kind of selection does it show?) Biochemistry Matching: 1. _____ Atom 2. _____ Molecule 3. _____ Atomic Number 4. _____ Mass Number 5. _____ Ion 6. _____ Proton 7. _____ Electron 8. _____ Neutron a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. Positively charged; found in nucleus Protons plus neutrons Almost no mass; shared or traded in chemical reactions Smallest particle of an element More than one atom Number of Protons Neutral charge; mass of 1 amu An atom with a + or - charge True or False. Change false answers to make them true. 9. _____ The number of electrons can change, but the number of protons never does. 10._____ Protons are shared in a covalent bond. 11._____ Water is a polar covalent molecule. 12._____ Hydrogen is more electronegative than oxygen. 13._____ HONC includes: hydrogen, oxygen, chlorine, and nitrogen. 14._____ Carbon needs four covalent bonds to be stable. 15._____ Since the sodium atom has 11 protons, it is stable. 16._____ Since the chlorine atom has 17 protons, it needs to gain one electron to become stable. 17._____ Carbon-14 (mass of 14) has 6 protons. It must have 8 neutrons and 6 electrons. 18._____ Hydrogen bonds are very strong. 19._____ Cohesion is the attraction of water to itself (because it is a polar molecule). 20._____ A change in pH from 2 to 4 indicates a 20-fold change in [H+] (hydrogen ion conc.). H2O2 ----> H2O + O2 21. _____ What are the reactant(s) in this equation? a. Hydrogen peroxide b Water c. Oxygen 22. _____ Catalase (made in your cells) speeds up this reaction. Catalase is a a. Catalyst b. enzyme c. protein d. both b and c e. all of the above 23. _____ Within our cells, this reaction would occur _____________if a person were experiencing hypothermia (cold body temp). a. faster b. slower c. It would not occur at all 24. What will happen to a reaction when a person has a fever over 108 degrees? 25. Draw a graph showing the activation energy needed for the reaction to occur without catalase. Then, on the same graph, include a line that shows the activation energy when catalase is present. 26. _____ The formation of a polysaccharide is a _______________ reaction. a. hydrolysis b. pH c. dehydration synthesis 27. _____ The reverse process is called a. hydrolysis b. pH c. dehydration synthesis 28. If you are looking at pictures of the biological molecules from class (carbs, lipids, etc.) and you noticed the following detail, which molecule would you be looking at? (There may be more than one appropriate answer for some…) a. One ring:________________________________________ b. Several rings:_______________________________________ c. Nitrogen:_____________________________________________ d. Long hydrocarbon chain;_________________________________________ e. R-group:_______________________________________________ f. Several amino acids:_________________________________________________ g. Long hydrocarbon chain with only one double bond between a Carbon and an Oxygen: h. ________________________________________________ i. Peptide bonds:______________________________________________