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AP Biology Diagnostic Test II – 50 Multiple Choice Questions Please make note of which questions required you to look back at previous course content. 1. Hydrolysis of lipid molecules yields: A. amino acids and water B. amino acids and glucose C. fatty acids and glycerol D. glucose and glycerol E. glycerol and water 2. 3. The Mendelian law that describes the behavior of two or more gene pairs is the law of: A. codominance B. dominance C. independent assortment D. segregation of genes E. recombination 4. Neuronal summation involves A. a short, individual contraction and relaxation B. a sustained maximal response C. an accumulation of an abundance of lactic acid D. the merging of separate axons into a single neuron, creating a single output Questions 5 - 8 refer to the organelles of a cell and their function(s). 5. centriole A. site of mRNA translation B. contains microtubules that are source of spindle fibers C. contains a circular DNA D. site of rRNA synthesis 6. smooth endoplasmic reticulum A. site of mRNA translation B. protein synthesis C. detoxification D. site of rRNA synthesis 7. nucleolus A. site of mRNA translation B. contains circular DNA C. site of DNA synthesis D. site of rRNA synthesis 8. ribosome A. site of mRNA translation B. contains 2 subunits of rRNA C. contains E, P, and A sites D. all of the above 9. The intracellular environment is best described as____________________relative to distilled water: A. hypertonic B. hypotonic C. isotonic D. osmotic E. permeable 10. The cell in question 9 would _________________. A. gain water B. gain solute C. lose water D. lose solute E. remain unchanged 10. Over time a cell with 10% solute and 90% water, when placed in pure water will: A. become more hypertonic intra-cellularly B. enlarge and experience lysis C. experience crenation D. lose motility E. lose solute Questions 11 – 13 refer to the diagram below. 11) The lagging strand is indicated on the diagram by which letter? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E 12) A base pair is indicated on the diagram by which letter? A. A B. B C. C D. D 4 E. E 13) The replication fork is indicated on the diagram by which letter? A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E 14) In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is: a) NAD+ b) O2 c) H2O d) NADP+ e) H2 15) All of the following statements are correct regarding alleles EXCEPT: a) A gene can have more than one allele. b) Two identical alleles are said to be heterozygous with respect to that gene. c) Alleles are found on corresponding loci of homologous chromosomes. d) Alleles are alternative forms of the same gene. e) One allele can be dominant and the other can be recessive. 16) The Krebs cycle in humans occurs in the a) intermembrane phase b) inner mitochondrial membrane c) outer mitochondrial membrane d) cytoplasm e) mitochondrial matrix 17) A researcher performs a cross between 2 mice, both having black fur. Black fur is dominant over white fur. 75% of the offspring have black coats and 25% have white coats. The researcher can assume that the parents genotypes were most likely: a) BB x BB b) BB x Bb c) BB x bb d) Bb x Bb e) bb x bb 18) A feature of amino acids not found in carbohydrates is the presence of a) phosphorous b) nitrogen c) hydrogen d) oxygen e) carbon 19) Crossing over occurs during which of the following phases in sexual reproduction? a) Metaphase I b) Metaphase II c) Prophase I d) Prophase II e) Anaphase I 20) The macromolecule pictured below is a segment of a) Glycogen b) Cellulose c) Protein d) Triglyceride e) Nucleic Acid 21) The stored form of sugar in humans. a) Glycogen b) Cellulose c) Protein d) Triglyceride e) Nucleic Acid 22) The majority of biomass (dry weight) of a cell is due to this molecule: a) Glycogen b) Cellulose c) Protein d) Triglyceride e) Nucleic acid 23) A substance that cannot be broken down by cows or humans a) Glycogen b) Cellulose c) Protein d) Triglyceride e) Nucleic acid 24) The spine of a sea urchin and the quill of a porcupine are a) Analogous structures b) Homologous structures c) Divergent evolution d) Convergent evolution e) Vestigial Structures 25) Net primary productivity in most ecosystems, is important because it represents the a) surplus energy generated by producers. b) total solar energy converted to chemical energy by producers. c) energy used in respiration by heterotrophs. d) energy available to producers. e) biomass of all producers. 26) All of the following are stimulated by adrenalin in the “fight or flight” response of the parasympathetic nervous system EXCEPT: a) increased heart rate. b) increase secretion of the sweat glands. c) dilation of the pupil. d) constriction of blood vessels e) increased activity in the gastrointestinal tract. 27) Vitamins are essential to the human diet because they act as a) neurotransmitters b) enzymes c) cofactors d) hormones e) coenzymes 28) The majority of ATP molecules derived from nutrient metabolism are generated by (the): A. anaerobic fermentation and glycolysis B. fermentation and electron transport chain C. glycolysis and substrate phosphorylation D. Krebs cycle and electron transport chain E. substrate phosphorylation 29) The Mendelian law that describes the behavior of homologous pairs of chromosomes is the law of: A. codominance B. dominance C. independent assortment D. segregation of genes 30 – 31: 30) Which arrow in the above diagram represents the deltaH (enthalpy or heat energy change) of the reaction? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 31) Which arrow would be affected by the addition of a catalyst? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 32) The cooling effect of perspiring helps organisms maintain a stable body temperature. Which of the following best explains this phenomenon? a. water has a high heat of vaporization b. strong hydrophobic interactions exist between molecules c. little kinetic energy is required to break hydrogen bond between molecules d. water is less dense as it increases in temperature e. the oxygen-hydrogen bonds within molecules are difficult to break 33 – 34: Refer to figure below 33) If citric acid has 6 carbon atoms, how many carbon atoms does succinic acid have? a. 1 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 12 34) If one acetyl CoA molecule is fed into the cycle, how many ATP molecules are made in total by substrate-level phosphorylation and chemiosmosis? a. 1 b. 2 c. 11 d. 12 e. more than 20 35-38: You and your lab partner are given a culture of phenotypically wild, identical Drosophila (parents and offspring pictured above). You are informed that these flies are heterozygous and you have been asked been asked to determine what the "hidden" trait(s) are and to determine how they are inherited using only Drosphila in the culture. When you cross the parent Drosophilia, you obtain the following numbers of F1 offspring. There are approximately equal numbers of males and females of each phenotype. 35) Based on the counts supplied in the problem, which of the following would you hypothesize from your data before doing the chi square test? a. the genes for gray and vestigal are both dominant b. the genes for wing length and body color are linked c. the genes for body color and wing length are inherited independently d. the gene for wing length is sex-linked e. the gene for vestigal wing may be a lethal gene 36) In order to use the chi square test of significance, you must assume a "null hypothesis." Which of the following is the best statement about what the "null hypothesis" predicts? a. there is no relationship between the observed and expected results b. there is no difference between the observed and expected results c. the data will fall within acceptable limits d. there is a small but insignificant difference between the observed and expected results e. there is a difference between the observed and expected results 37) The data from the chi-square test you and your lab partner performed are listed above. Using the chi square table below, identify which number would be used to determine if your null hypothesis would be supported or rejected. a. b. c. d. 3.841 5.991 7.815 9.488 38) If the maximum probability for rejecting the null hypothesis is a confidence level of 0.05, what can you conclude about your data? a. repeat the experiment, the results are inconclusive b. the null hypothesis must be rejected, the genes for body color and wing length are linked c. the null hypothesis must be rejected, the genes for body color and wing length are independently inherited d. the null hypothesis is accepted, the genes for body color and wing length are linked e. the null hypothesis is accepted, the genes for body color and wing length are independently inherited. 39) In the Meselson-Stahl experiment above, bacteria were grown in a medium containing 15N and were then transferred to a medium containing 14N. Which pattern in the above diagram would be expected after two DNA replications of 14N? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 40-42: The pedigree below illustrates the inheritance pattern of albinism, a skin condition which results from a mutation in the gene for producing pigment (n). The condition is autosomal recessive. 40) The probable genotypes of P1-1 and P1-2 are a. NN and NN b. Nn and Nn c. NN and Nn d. nn and nn e. NN and nn 41) The probable genotype of individual F1-10 is a. NN b. nn or Nn c. NN or Nn d. nn 42) The probability that the next child of F1-8 and F1-9 will be a male with albinism is a. 1/8 b. 1/4 c. 1/2 d. 1/16 e. 1/64 43) The emergence of 13 species of Darwin's finches on the Galapagos Islands is an example of a. convergent evolution b. adaptive radiation c. the bottleneck effect d. artificial selection 44) The solutions in the arms of the U-tube are separated at the bottom by a selectively permeable membrane. The membrane is permeable to sodium chloride but not to glucose. Side A is filled with a solution of 0.4 molar glucose and 0.56 molar NaCl. Side B is filled with a solution containing 0.8 molar glucose and 0.4 molar NaCl. Initially the volume in both arms is the same. If you examine side A after 3 days, you should find (if you sketch this it may be helpful): a. a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level b. a decrease in the concentration of NaCl, and increase in water level, and no change in the concentration of glucose c. not net change in the system d. a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and a decrease in the water level e. no change in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level 45) What is the measure of Darwinian fitness in a population? a. longevity in a species b. survival under adverse conditions c. number of fertile offspring d. strength, in a predator e. fleetness, in a prey 46) Steroid hormones take longer than other hormones to produce their effect. This is because a. their target cells must formulate new proteins before an effect can take place b. second messengers act slowly c. they are large molecules and move slowly through the blood d. because they are large polar molecules, they do not enter cells easily e. they are synthesized in very small quantities by their glands 47) The clonal selection theory implies that a. related people have similar immune response b. antigens activate specific lymphocytes to become unique plasma cells c. the body selects which antigens it will respond to d. memory cells are present at birth 48) Which of the following results in long-term immunity? a. the passage of maternal antibodies to her developing fetus b. the inflammatory response to a splinter c. the administration of serum obtained from people immune to rabies d. the administration of the chickenpox vaccine e. the passage of maternal antibodies to her nursing infant Questions 49–50 refer to the graph below, which indicates the interaction between a predator (solid) and prey (dotted) population over the years 1976 to 1980. Their population sizes are indicated on either side of the graph. 49) The oscillations in the predator/prey population A. occur because an increase in prey population will increase predator population indefinitely. B. occur because an increase in prey population will allow an increase in predator population until the predators eat too many prey. C. occur because an increase in predator population causes a direct and immediate increase in prey population. D. occur because of seasonal changes. E. are unique in this case and not seen in most predator/prey interactions. 50) The drop in predator population during the winter months is probably due to A. cold. B. snow. C. drop in prey population. D. hibernation. E. coincidence.