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FINAL EXAM--Bio 111 INSTRUCTIONS: Choose the single best response for each question. DO NOT WRITE IN THIS BOOKLET 1. The rules for base pairing in DNA are: a. A = C and G = T in amount b. A with C, and G with T c. A with G, and C with T d. A with T, and G with C e. A = G and C = T in amount 2. The genetic makeup of an individual is its: a. Phenotype b. Sex cells c. Mutation d. Gene pool e. Genotype 3. We use the scientific method every day. Imagine your car doesn't start one morning before school. Which of these is a reasonable HYPOTHESIS regarding the problem? a. I'm going to be late. b. I'm out of gas. c. Check if your lights were left on. d. Kick the tires. e. Add a quart of oil. 4. A change in the genetic makeup of a population is: a. Natural selection b. Uniformitarianism c. Artificial selection d. Evolution e. Genetic drift 5. The "backbone" of a nucleic acid molecule is made of a. nitrogenous bases. b. alternating sugar and phosphate groups. c. purines. d. pyrimidines. e. nucleosides. 6. Diploid cells of the fruit fly Drosophila have 10 chromosomes. How many chromosomes does a Drosophila gamete have? a. one b. two c. five d. ten e. twenty -27. Biological molecules primarily are joined by: a. Peptide bonds b. Ionic bonds c. Hydrogen bonds d. Disulfide bonds e. Covalent bonds 8. A recessive allele on the X chromosome causes colorblindness. A non-colorblind woman (whose father is colorblind) marries a colorblind man. What is the chance their son will be colorblind? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100% 9. An atom's nucleus is composed of: a. protons b. neutrons c. protons and electrons d. protons and neutrons e. neutrons and electrons 10. If red blood cells are taken from the body and placed in a hypertonic solution, what happens to the cells? a. The cells swell and burst because water moves into the cells. b. The cells shrivel up because water leaves the cells. c. The cells remain unchanged due to equal solute concentration inside and outside the cells. d. The cells remain unchanged due to equal water concentrations inside and outside the cells. e. They become white blood cells. 11. If a substance measures 7 on the pH scale, that substance: a. Has equal concentration of H+ and OH- ions b. May be lemon juice c. Has greater concentration of OH- than H+ ions d. Probably lacks OH- ions e. Is basic 12. Which of the following molecules functions to transfer information from one generation to the next? a. DNA b. mRNA c. tRNA d. Proteins e. Lipids -313. In DNA, phosphate groups bond to: a. Adenine b. Ribose c. Pyrimidine bases d. Other phosphate groups e. Deoxyribose 14. Which of these is best considered the raw material of evolution? a. Non-random mating b. Natural selection c. Small populations with massive migrations d. Mutation e. Genetic drift 15. Oxygen is necessary for cellular respiration because oxygen: a. Accepts electrons from the electron transport chain b. Combines with carbon to form carbon dioxide c. Combines with carbon dioxide and water to form glucose d. Reduces glucose to form carbon dioxide and water e. Combines with electrons to form CO2 16. Which of the following structures is not homologous to the others? a. Alligator forelimb b. Bird wing c. Human arm d. Insect wing e. Bat wing 17. Restriction enzymes are useful in recombinant DNA studies because they: a. Cut DNA at specific locations b. Join the cut ends of small DNA molecules c. Can reproduce in bacteria d. Give plasmids antibiotic properties e. Can separate pieces of DNA and RNA from each other 18. What is the ratio of phenotypes in the offspring produced by the cross Aa X Aa? Assume complete dominance for the trait. a. 100% dominance b. 100% recessive c. 75% dominant: 25% recessive d. 50% dominant: 50% recessive e. 25% dominant: 75% recessive -419. What does a cell use exocytosis for? a. To move away from danger. b. To release substances from the cell. c. To incorporate nutrients. d. To pump hydrogen molecules across the membrane. e. To create new cells. 20. The net movement of molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration is described by which of the following? a. diffusion b. active transport c. osmosis d. facilitated diffusion e. exocytosis 21. Small circular accessory chromosomes found in bacteria and useful in recombinant DNA procedures are called: a. Plasmids b. Palindromes c. Centrioles d. Bacteriophage e. Viruses 22. What prevents your immune system from attacking your own cells? a. inadequate enzymes b. fever c. cholesterol d. recognition proteins e. receptor proteins 23. The most common energy carrier molecule of living organisms is: a. ATP b. Inorganic phosphate c. DNA d. Glucose e. NADPH 24. All of the following combinations are possible in the gametes of an organism that is AaBb except: a. AB b. aB c. aa d. ab e. Ab -525. What is the relationship among DNA, a gene and a chromosome? a. A chromosome contains hundreds of genes which are composed of protein. b. A chromosome contains hundreds of genes which are composed of DNA. c. A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes which are composed of protein. d. A gene is composed of DNA, but there is no relationship to a chromosome. e. A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes which are composed of DNA. 26. DNA carries genetic information in its a. helical form. b. sequence of bases. c. tertiary structure. d. phosphate groups. e. sugar groups. 27. The longest period of a cell's life cycle is: a. Prophase b. Telophase c. Interphase d. Anaphase e. Metaphase 28. Which organelle extracts energy from food molecules and stores it in the high-energy bonds of ATP? a. Mitochondrion b. Chloroplast c. Ribosome d. Centriole e. ER 29. A scientific theory a. is a general explanation, supported by evidence, for a natural phenomena. b. is an educated guess. c. is less reliable than a hypothesis. d. will never be changed. e. none of the above. 30. What is the role of water in photosynthesis? a. to maintain turgor pressure b. to provide electrons c. to provide oxygen d. to provide H2 e. all of these -631. Life is carbon-based because carbon is such a versatile atom and many different kinds of molecules can be made with it. What is it about carbon (Atomic number: 6; Atomic mass: 12) that makes it so versatile? a. It has 12 covalent bonds in molecules b. It has 12 protons c. It has 4 covalent bonds in molecules d. It is unreactive 32. Phospholipids consist of a a. Hydrophilic phosphate head group and hydrophobic protein tails b. Hydrophilic fatty acid tails and hydrophobic protein tails c. Hydrophilic protein tails and hydrophobic nucleic acids d. Hydrophilic phosphate head group and hydrophobic fatty acid tails 33. The subunits or building blocks of ____________________ are amino acids. a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Proteins d. DNA e. RNA 34. Genetic recombination between homologous maternal and paternal chromosomes occurs during a. S phase of mitosis b. Telophase of mitosis c. Prophase I of meiosis d. Metaphase II of meiosis e. Binary fission 35. Genetic drift results in a change in gene frequencies because: a. gene flow within the population is less than gene flow between populations. b. reproduction is non-random within the population. c. the population size is so small that chance occurrences can alter gene frequencies. d. the population has not yet stabilized. e. the population is so large that natural selection has little noticeable affect. -736. The cellular organelle of eukaryotic organisms which is responsible for photosynthetic activity is the: a. Nucleus b. Mitochondrion c. Chloroplast d. Endoplasmic reticulum e. Ribosome 37. In many species of fireflies males flash to attract females. Each species has a different flashing pattern. This is an example of: a. allopatric speciation b. geographical isolation c. temporal isolation d. natural selection e. behavioral isolation 38. The process of converting the "message" of mRNA into a sequence of amino acids is called: a. Translation b. Transcription c. Activation d. Replication e. Repression 39. Boa constrictors have tiny pelvic girdles and leg bones within their bodies. Since these structures are nonfunctional, they are called: a. Extra b. Analogous c. Maladaptive d. Homologous e. Vestigial 40. Which of the following would stop evolution by natural selection from occurring? a. if humans become extinct because of a disease epidemic. b. if a thermonuclear war killed most living organisms and changed the environment drastically c. if ozone depletion led to increased ultraviolet radiation which caused many new mutations d. if genetic recombination, sexual reproduction, and mutation stopped and organisms could only reproduce asexually e. all of these -841. The theory of natural selection states that: a. Some live and some die in each generation. b. Only the largest and strongest survive. c. Random assortment of genes results in better characteristics in the following generations. d. The best adapted individuals survive and reproduce, contributing the most genes to the next generation. e. Individuals that mutate in response to their environment will survive. 42. Earliest hominids were in a group called _________. a. Australopithecines b. Cro-magnons c. Neanderthals d. Homo erectus e. Homo sapiens 43. Which of the following consists of a single strand of nucleotides? a. carbohydrates b. lipids c. proteins d. DNA e. RNA 44. Which of the following is true of a cell’s plasma membrane? a. It contains only phospholipids b. Diffusion across the membrane only occurs from low concentration to high concentration c. Only certain molecules can pass through. d. Sometimes water passes through, and sometimes it can't. 45. Blood typing is often used as evidence in paternity cases in court. In one case, the mother had blood type B and the child had blood type O. Which of the following blood types could the father not have? a. A b. B c. AB d. O e. Both choices c and d are correct 46. In green plants, the primary function of the Calvin cycle, or Dark Reactions, is to a. use ATP to release carbon dioxide. b. use NADPH to release carbon dioxide. c. split water and release oxygen. d. transport glucose out of the chloroplast. e. construct simple sugars from carbon dioxide. -947. Mitosis results in a. two identical, diploid daughter cells b. two identical, haploid daughter cells c. two genetically different, diploid daughter cells d. four genetically different, diploid daughter cells e. four genetically different, haploid daughter cells 48. What is the significance of the conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid during fermentation? a. Pyruvic acid becomes available to enter matrix reactions. b. The citric acid cycle is initiated. c. NAD+ is regenerated for use in glycolysis. d. The oxidation of pyruvic acid becomes possible. e. ATP is produced. 49. Why are enzymes important? a. because they're proteins b. because they can evade the laws of thermodynamics c. because they bind to substrates d. because they increase the rate at which reactions occur e. because they increase body temperature 50. Which type of mutation destroys protein function by changing all the codons following the site of the mutation? a. insertion mutation b. point mutation c. deletion mutation d. both a and c 51. The number of consecutive mRNA bases needed to specify an amino acid is: a. 3 b. 4 c. 20 d. 64 e. A variable number 52. Two species of squirrels live on either side of the Grand Canyon. They are an example of: a. Temporal isolation b. Behavioral isolation c. Mechanical isolation d. Hybrid inviability e. Allopatric speciation -1053. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive trait, while normal color vision is the dominant trait. What are the chances that 2 normal-visioned parents will have a colorblind daughter? a. 0% b. 1% c. 25% d. 50% e. 100% 54. Why is a helium atom (Atomic #2) more stable than a hydrogen atom (Atomic #1)? a. Two electrons completely fill its outermost electron shell. b. Eight electrons completely fill its outermost electron shell. c. The outermost electron shell is half-empty. d. Helium atoms react readily with oxygen. e. Hydrogen atoms react to form helium. 55. Which of the following is capable of converting light energy to chemical energy? a. Chloroplasts b. Mitochondria c. Amyloplasts d. Vacuoles e. Golgi bodies Test Version: FINAL EXAM BOOKLET—BIO 111 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS BOOKLET Answer Sheet for Bio 111 Final Exam (6/01) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. d e b d b c e c d b a a e d a d a c b a a d a c b b c a a b c d c c c c e a e d d a e c c e a c d d a e a a a