Download 1) CS Genotype includes:

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1) CS Genotype includes:
a) only nuclear DNA
b) only mitochondrial DNA
c) nuclear genes
d) all mitochondrial genes
e) nuclear and mitochondrial genes
2) CS Which of the following is not a part of genetic
apparatus?
a) nucleus
b) centrioles
c) mitochondria
d) lysosomes
e) ribosomes
3) CS Which of the following describes human
genome?
a) the total complement of nuclear genes
b) the total complement of genes contained in a cell
c) fragments of DNA which encode proteins
d) a complete set of the genes of a human population
e) the genetic constitution of an organism
4) CS Which of the following provides the equal
separation of genetic material?
a) ribosomes
b) chromosomes
c) centrioles
d) mitochondria
e) endoplasmic reticulum
5) CS Which of the following refers to total
complement of nuclear genes?
a) phenotype
b) gene pool
c) linkage group
d) caryotype
e) genotype
6) CS The following are synthesized in G2-phase:
a) RNA and proteins of mitotic spindle
b) DNA and proteins
c) RNA, DNA and proteins
d) DNA, RNA and histones
e) none of the above
7) CS In which of the interphase stages does human
cell contain 92 molecules of DNA?
a) in S-phase only
b) in G1-phase
c) in both G1 phase - and S -phase
d) in G2-phase
e) during whole interphase
8) CS DNA replication takes place:
a) in interphase (during all phases)
b) at the beginning of S-phase
c) during S phase
d) during mitosis
e) during G0 phase
9) CS Which of the following stages is the most
important from genetical point of view?
a) G1 and G2
b) G1
c) S
d) G0
e) G2
10) CS
Cell DNA is located in:
a) nucleus
b) euchromatin
c) mitochondria
d) chromosomes only
e) both nucleus and mitochondria
11) CM Human genetics studies:
a) phenomena of inheritance and variability in human
populations
b) laws of transmission of normal and pathological
traits
c) structure of cell organelles
d) common human diseases
e) role of genetic predisposition and environmental
factors in appearance of diseases
12) CM
Non repetitive sequence:
a) are dispersed and repeated a small number of times
b) are very short
c) are unique and represented in a single copy
d) can make up gene families
e) consist of exons and intron
13) CM Moderately repetitive sequences:
a) are short and usually repeated as a tandem array
b) make up the families of genes
c) participate in regulation of gene expression
d) form transposons
e) have structural function
14) CM Highly repetitive sequences:
a) are short and usually repeated as a tandem array
b) are represented by structural genes
c) make up gene families
d) may be used as a molecular markers
e) have structural role
15) CM Which of the following describe
transposons?
a) are segments of DNA that can't move in genome
b) they are sometimes called "jumping genes"
c) they may be of two types: DNA transposons and
retrotransposons
d) they may cause mutations
e) they may change the amount of DNA in the genome
16) CM
Which of the following are shared by
mitochondrial genome?
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a) it is a double-stranded circular molecule of DNA
b) it is a double stranded linear molecule of DNA
c) its replication takes place from two discrete origins
d) it is very compact
e) it has introns
17) CS Nuclear genome is represented by:
a) 4000 genes
b) 46 molecules of DNA
c) mobile elements
d) viral DNA
e) pseudogenes
18) CS Which of the following refers to total
complement of genes in population?
a) phenotype
b) gene pool
c) linkage group
d) karyotype
e) genotype
19) CS Normal human gamete contains:
a) 2n=23
b) n=23
c) n=46
d) 22 autosomes
e) 44 autosomes
20) CS What do contain normal human eggs?
a) 44 + X
b) 44 + Y
c) 22 + XY
d) 22 + Y
e) 22 + X
21) CS Cell center is a part of genetic apparatus
because:
a) consists of two centrioles
b) is surrounded by centrosphere
c) is represented by a single body
d) assures exact segregation of genetic information
during cell division
e) contains membranes
22) CS Which of the following don't characterize
euchromatin?
a) early replication
b) it's diffuse chromatin
c) is transcribed
d) contains active genes
e) contains highly repetitive sequence
23) CS Which of the following don't characterize
heterochromatin?
a) late replication
b) it's condense
c) contains non-active genes
d) is transcribed
e) contains highly repetitive sequence
24) CM Human genetics studies:
a) the structure of genes, chromosomes, karyotype
b) heredity and variability
c) steps of gene expression
d) human diseases prophylaxis
e) molecular mechanisms of evolution
25) CM Which of the following are components of
genetic apparatus?
a) nucleus
b) ribosomes
c) cell center
d) mitochondria
e) lysosomes
26) CM Heredity:
a) is assured by property of DNA to replicate
b) is determined by stability of genetic program
c) is universal property to keep traits
d) assures adaptation in new life condition
e) explains "family" traits
27) CM Heredity represents:
a) the property of organisms to transmit traits to
offspring
b) the property of organisms to keep traits along
generations
c) the property assured by DNA replication
d) the property assured by random segregation of
chromosomes in meiosis
e) the property assured by crossing-over
28) CS Chemical composition of chromosomes:
a) DNA and RNA
b) DNA, RNA, histones and non-histones
c) DNA and histones
d) DNA, RNA and non-histones
e) RNA and histones
29) CS Normal human somatic cells contain:
a) a haploid number of chromosome (2n=23)
b) a diploid number of chromosomes (2n=46)
c) 46 pairs of autosomes
d) 44 autosomes and 2 pairs of sex chromosomes
e) 22 autosomes and sex chromosome
30) CS Which of the following is not shared by
homologous chromosomes?
a) they are similar in morphology
b) they form pairs during meiosis
c) they have maternal and paternal origin
d) they are present in diploid cells
e) they are present in haploid cells
31) CS Which of the following is true concerning
autosomes?
a) there are 23 pairs in each human cell
b) all of them are identical
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c) they are present only in somatic cells
d) they pair during meiosis and form 22 bivalents
e) they are different in men and women
32) CS The chromosomes represent:
a) the most condensed, genetically active chromatin
b) genetic information during interphase
c) genetic material during cell division
d) the total complement of DNA molecules from a cell
e) structures which consists of RNAs and proteins
33) CS What do contain normal sperm cells?
a) 44+X
b) 44+Y
c) 22+XY
d) 22+X
e) 22+XX
34) CS Which of the following is not a
morphological criterion of metaphase chromosomes?
a) number of chromosomes
b) presence of centromere
c) presence of telomeres
d) chromosomal length
e) position of the centromere
35) CS What the term "karyotype" does mean?
a) nuclear genetic material
b) genetic information from a haploid cell
c) type of chromosomes
d) display of the metaphase chromosome of a somatic
cell
e) entire genetic information of cell
36) CS Which of the following is used to block
mitosis at metaphase?
a) phytohaemagglutinin
b) colchicine
c) histones
d) CARR
e) quinacrin.
37) CS Which of the following is not a step of
chromosome analysis?
a) collecting of blood in aseptic condition
b) treatment of cell by restriction enzymes
c) blocking of mitosis in metaphase
d) adding of fixative
e) examination, using a microscope
38) CS Which of the following is not necessary for
chromosome analysis?
a) fixative solution
b) orcein
c) quinacrin
d) CARR
e) endonuclease
39) CS
Which of the following groups includes X
chromosome?
a) group A
b) group B
c) group C
d) group E
e) none of the above
40) CS Which of the listed groups includes Ychromosome?
a) group A
b) group C
c) group G
d) group D
e) none of the above
41) CS Exact identification of chromosomes may be
done using the following criterion:
a) length of chromosome
b) position of the centromere
c) presence of secondary constriction
d) different patterns of banding
e) presence of satellites
42) CS Which of the following is false for metaphase
chromosome?
a) they are attached to the spindle fibers
b) they move to the apposite poles
c) they are located in cytoplasm
d) they consist of 2 chromatids
e) they are strongly condensed
43) CS Which of the following is the main genetic
difference between interphase chromatin and
metaphase chromosomes?
a) chemical composition
b) level of condensation
c) genetic activity
d) intensity of staining
e) quantity of genetic information
44) CM Which of the following chromosomes have
satellites or arm p?
a) 1, 9, 16, 19
b) 14, 15, 16, 17, 18
c) 13, 14, 15
d) 21, 22
e) 21, 22, Y
45) CM Which of the following chromosomes have
no secondary constrictions on p arm?
a) 1, 9, 16, 19
b) 1, 9, 16, Y
c) 1, 9, 6, 19
d) 21, 22
e) 1, 19, 21
46) CM Metacentric chromosomes:
a) have p/q ratio =1/1
b) all of them contain satellites in long arm
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c) have centromere index equal with 46-49
d) are chromosomes 1,3,17,Y
e) are he chromosomes 1,3,19,20,16
c) positive bands - heterochromatin
d) positive bands - euchromatin
e) negative bands - heterochromatin
47) CM Submetacentric chromosomes:
a) have p/q ratio = 1/5
b) have p/q ratio =1/3
c) are chromosomes of group C
d) are chromosomes of group F
e) are chromosomes of group B
55) CM What are the practical role of C - banding?
a) exact identification of chromosomes
b) identification of structural abnormalities
c) exact identification of number of chromosomes
d) exact identification of centromere region
e) exact identification of telomeres
48) CM Acrocentric chromosomes:
a) have p/q ratio = 1/5
b) have p/q ratio =1/3
c) the chromosomes of group G
d) the chromosomes of group F
e) the chromosomes of group B
56) CM What are the practical role of T - banding?
a) determination of sex chromatin
b) exact identification of chromosomes
c) exact identification of centromere region
d) exact identification of telomeres
e) exact identification of nucleolus
49) CM The chromosome 16:
a) it is a medium chromosome
b) may contain a secondary constriction
c) it is a metacentric chromosome
d) it is from F group
e) it is an acrocentric chromosome
57) CM Which of the following are not used for Qbanding?
a) CARR
b) Giemsa dye
c) quinacrin
d) fluorescent dye
e) orcein
50) CS Telomeres are necessary for:
a) cell division
b) DNA replication
c) nucleolus formation
d) maintaining of entire chromosome structure
e) transcription
51) CM Chromosome pairs differ by:
a) size
b) shape
c) number of genes
d) presence of DNA molecules
e) presence of secondary constriction
52) CM
Which of the following are shared by Gbanding?
a) Giemsa dye is used for staining
b) Giemsa or fluorescent dyes are used for staining
c) positive bands - euchromatin
d) negative bands - heterochromatin
e) positive bands - heterochromatin
53) CM Which of the following are right for Qbanding?
a) Giemsa or fluorescent dyes are used for staining
b) quinacrin is used for staining
c) positive bands - heterochromatin
d) negative bauds - euchromatin
e) CARR is used for staining
54) CM Which of the following are shared by Rbanding?
a) Giemsa or fluorescent dyes are used for staining
b) CARR is used for staining
58) CM Choose the common elements of metaphase
chromosome:
a) two chromatids;
b) satellites
c) centromere
d) telomere
e) secondary constriction in q-arm
59) CM Which of the following describe female
caryotype?
a) all chromosomes are shorter than in men
b) it contains 22 pairs of autosomes and 2 sex
chromosomes
c) it includes 7 groups of chromosomes
d) it contains chromosomes of different length
e) sex chromosomes are different
60) CM Which of the following describe male
gamete karyotype?
a) it contains X and Y chromosomes
b) it contains either X or Y chromosomes
c) it contains 22 pairs of autosomes
d) it contains 22 autosomes
e) it contains haploid number of chromosomes
61) CM Karyotype of somatic male cells contains:
a) identical sex chromosomes
b) X and Y chromosomes
c) 22 pairs of autosomes
d) haploid number of chromosomes
e) 22 autosomes
62) CM
Karyotype of somatic female cells contains:
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a) identical sex chromosomes
b) X and Y chromosomes
c) 22 pairs of autosomes
d) haploid number of chromosomes
e) 22 autosomes
63) CM Which of the following groups include
metacentric chromosomes?
a) A
b) B
c) G
d) F
e) C
64) CM Which of the following groups include
acrocentric chromosomes?
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) A
e) G
65) CM Sex chromosomes:
a) are the same in men
b) are the same in women
c) determine gender of child
d) are presents in sexual cells only
e) contain only genes, that determine sex
66) CM Chose the karyotypes of persons with
normal phenotype:
a) 46,XY
b) 46,XY,9qh+
c) 45,XY,-9
d) 44,XY,5pe) 46,XY,inv (4)(p15q13)
67) CM Chose the karyotypes of persons with normal
phenotype:
a) 46,XY
b) 46,XX,1q+
c) 46,XX,9qd) 46,XX 16qh+
e) 45,XY,rob (14;21)
68) CM Which of the following karyotypes don't
correspond to normal phenotype?
a) 47,XX,+21
b) 46, iso(Xp)Y
c) 46,XY,1q-,9qh+
d) 46,XY,16qhe) 46,X, r(X)
69) CM Which of the following karyotypes don't
correspond to normal phenotype?
a) 47,XX,+13
b) 45,XY, rob (14;21)
c) 46, XX, rob (13;21),+21
d) 46,XY,16qh+
e) 46,XX,9qh
70) CS The chromosomes represent:
a) non-active euchromatin
b) genetic material during interphase
c) genetic material during cell division
d) bodies which appear during mitochondrial division
e) bodies which consist of RNA and proteins
71) CS Which of the following is false concerning 21 st
chromosome?
a) is an acrocentric chromosome
b) is a small chromosome
c) is included in G group
d) contains satellites on short arms
e) there are tree chromosomes in Turner syndrome
72) CS Which of the following karyotypes don't
correspond to normal phenotype?
a) 46,X,Yq+
b) 46,XY,9qh+
c) satellites in chromosomes from D group
d) 46,XY,inv(4)(p15q13)
e) 46,XY,5p73) CS What method uses obligatory fluorescent
microscope?
a) T banding
b) C banding
c) Q banding
d) G banding
e) R banding
74) CM X chromosome:
a) contains only genes for female development
b) always has maternal origin
c) X-linked diseases often affect males
d) X polysomies in men are always lethal
e) X trisomy in women are viable
75) CM All the chromosomes contain:
a) two chromatids
b) satellites
c) centromere
d) secondary constriction on long arm
e) telomeres
76) CM Which of the following characterize male
karyotype?
a) sex chromosomes have the same length
b) there are 5 acrocentric chromosomes
c) contains 46 chromosomes
d) contains chromosomes with different length
e) contains metacentric, acrocentric and submetacentric
chromosomes
77) CM Which of the following characterize female
karyotype?
a) sex chromosomes have the same length
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b) here are 5 acrocentric chromosomes
c) the chromosomes are distributed in 7 groups
d) consists of 22 pairs of autosomes and two sexual
chromosomes
e) all the chromosomes are shorter than in males
78) CM The karyotype:
a) changes in karyotype always lead to abnormal
phenotype
b) males and females have the same number of
chromosomes
c) is characterized by a constant number of
chromosomes
d) is represented by chromosomes from a gamete
e) is represented by chromosomes from a diploid cell
79) CM Which of the following errors are always
lethal?
a) triploidy
b) trisomy
c) nullisomy
d) deletions
e) autosomal monosomy
80) CS Which of the following is false for Xchromosome?
a) it is present in females only
b) it is present in males and females
c) it contains many genes
d) it may be inactivated
e) half of the sperms contain an X chromosome
81) CS What is common for X and Y chromosomes?
a) they have the same length
b) they both are sex chromosomes
c) they have the same number of genes
d) they are inactive
e) they both produce Barr bodies
82) CS What is number of Barr bodies in normal
karyotype of women?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 0
e) none of the above
83) CS The number of Barr bodies:
a) is equal with the number of X chromosomes
b) is equal with the number of Y chromosomes
c) is one less than the number of X chromosomes
d) is one more than the number of chromosomes
e) none of the above
84) CS Examination of Barr bodies is not useful to:
a) determine the number of autosomes
b) determine the sex in prenatal stage
c) determine the sex of a person with ambiguous
genitalia
d) determine the number of X chromosomes
e) detect abnormal karyotype
85) CS Which of the following corresponds to the
karyotype 47,XX iso(Xp)?
a) two fluorescent bodies
b) one 0,5 µm Barr body
c) two Barr bodies: 1 µm and 0,5 µm respectively
d) one 0,5 µm F body
e) always - two normal Barr bodies
86) CS Which of the following is observed in cells of
person with karyotype 47,XYY?
a) two fluorescent bodies
b) two normal Barr bodies
c) one 0,5 µm Barr body
d) two Barr bodies: 1 µm and 0,5 µm respectively
e) one 0,5 µm F body
87) CS Chose the number of Barr bodies, which
corresponds to the following karyotype 47,XXY?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
e) 4
88) CS Chose the number of Barr bodies, which
corresponds to the following karyotype 47,XXX?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
e) 4
89) CS Chose the number of Barr bodies, which
corresponds to the following karyotype 47,XX,+21?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
e) 21
90) CS Chose the number of Barr bodies, which
corresponds to the following karyotype 47,XY,+13?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
e) 13
91) CS Chose the number of Barr bodies, which
corresponds to the following karyotype 45,X?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
e) 4
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92) CS Which of the following corresponds to the
karyotype 47,XYY?
a) a man with Klinefelter syndrome
b) one 0,5 µm Barr body
c) one 0,5 µm F body
d) two normal F bodies
e) two Barr bodies
93) CS Which of the following corresponds to the
karyotype 47,XY iso(Xp)?
a) absence of F body
b) 0,25 µm F body
c) 0,5 µm F body
d) two 0,25 µm F bodies
e) two F bodies: 0,25 µm and 0,50 µm respectively
94) CS For which of karyotypes is true the following
list of Barr bodies: 0,1,0,1?
a) 45,X; 46,XX; 47,XYY; 48,XXYY
b) 46,XX; 46,XY; 45,X; 47,XXX
c) 47,XYY; 46,XX; 46,XY; 48,XXXX
d) 46,XY; 45,X; 47,XXY; 47,XYY
e) 47,XXX; 46,XY; 48,XXYY; 47,XYY
95) CS. Which of the following contains more than
one Barr body in the cells?
a) a woman with normal phenotype
b) a man with Klinefelter syndrome
c) a woman 46,X,i(Xq)
d) a woman with Turner syndrome
e) a woman with trisomy X
96) CS. Which of the following is false concerning Xchromatin?
a) represents a heterochromatin body in multilobed
nuclei of neutrophils
b) in mucosa cells is attached to the inner nuclear
membrane
c) it is colored with quinacrine
d) it is darkly colored
e) represents an inactivated X chromosome
99) CS. Which of the following sequence of numbers
represents the right number of Barr bodies observed in:
a man with trisomy 21; a woman with trisomy X; a
woman with Turner syndrome; a man with Klinefelter
syndrome?
a) 0, 1, 2, 1
b) 1, 1, 0, 1
c) 0, 2, 0, 1
d) 2, 0, 1, 1
e) 1, 1, 0, 2
100) CS What F body represents?
a) a X chromosome
b) a Y chromosome
c) 2/3 of Y chromosome
d) 2/3 of short arm of Y chromosome
e) 2/3 of long arm of Y chromosome
101) CM. For which of karyotypes is true the
following list of F bodies: 0, 1, 2, 0?
a) 45,X; 46,XY; 47,XYY; 48, XXXX
b) 46,XX; 47,XXX; 47,XXY; 45,X
c) 47,XXX; 47,XXY; 48,XXYY; 46,XX
d) 46,XY; 47,XXY; 47,XYY; 47,XXX
e) 45,X; 46,XX; 48,XXXY; 46,XY
102) CM Which of the following describe Barr body?
a) normally one X chromosome is inactivated in
interphase
b) their number is equal with the number of X
chromosomes
c) it is a facultative heterochromatin
d) it corresponds to the number of Y chromosomes
e) it is about 1 µm in diameter
103) CM Which of the following corresponds to the
karyotype 47,XX, iso(Xp)?
a) woman with trisomy
b) woman with monosomy
c) two Barr bodies: 1 µm and 0,5 µm respectively
d) two fluorescent bodies
e) two normal Barr bodies
97) CS. The F body:
a) represents a X-chromatin body
b) represents an entirely inactivated Y chromosome
c) it is present in two copies in persons with Klinefelter
syndrome
d) it is present in all persons without Barr body
e) the number of F bodies and Y-chromosomes is the
same
104) CM Examination of Barr bodies is useful to:
a) determine the gender in prenatal stage
b) determine the gender of a person with ambiguous
genitalia
c) defect gonosomal polisomies
d) determine the number of Y chromosomes
e) determine the number of X chromosomes
98) CS. Which of the following persons may contain
47 chromosomes and a single Barr body?
a) a man with trisomy 21
b) a woman with trisomy 13
c) a woman containing an additional X chromosome
d) a person with karyotype 47,XYY
e) a woman with Turner syndrome
105) CM. A person with a normal phenotype and one
Barr body has the following karyotype:
a) 46,XX
b) 47,XXY
c) 45,XX, rob(14,21)
d) 46,XX, del 8q
e) 45,X
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106) CM. Which of the following are true concerning
Y chromatin?
a) it is absent in females
b) it is present in person with Klinefelter syndrome
c) it is present in all males
d) the persons with karyotype 47,XYY contain a single
F body
e) the number of Y-chromosomes is identical with
number of Barr body
107) CM. Which of the following announcements
concerning X chromatin are true?
a) represents a heterochromatin body in sperm cells
b) in mucosa cells is attached to the inner nuclear
membrane
c) it is intensely colored with quinacrine
d) it is present only in persons containing more then
one X chromosome
e) in all cells is inactivated the same X chromosome
113) CS Which of the following is not a
characteristic of mitosis?
a) it is a equational division
b) transmission of genetic information takes place
exactly
c) daughter cells receive the same number of
chromosomes
d) it consists of prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
telophase
e) it begins with monochromatidian chromosomes
114) CS Which of the following is not a phase of
mitosis?
a) diakinesis
b) anaphase
c) prophase
d) metaphase
e) telophase
108) CM. Analysis of X-chromatin assures:
a) identification of persons with Down syndrome
b) identification of gender
c) identification of karyotype
d) identification of the genetic gender in children with
ambiguous genitalia
e) identification of persons with Klinefelter syndrome
115) CS Which of the following combinations
correctly describes the sequence of mitosis phases?
a) prophase-telophase-metaphase-anaphase
b) anaphase-prophase-telophase-metaphase
c) metaphase-prophase-anaphase-telophase
d) prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase
e) prophase-anaphase-metaphase-telophase
109) CM. Which of the following are true concerning
F chromatin?
a) it is intensely stained with fluorescent dyes
b) may be identified during cell division
c) it is present in all male peoples
d) it is present in egg cells
e) may be identified in all sperm cells
116) CS Which of the following is not an importance
of mitosis?
a) it ensures stability of the tissues
b) it provides embriogenesis
c) it ensures the substitution of dead cells
d) it provides growth and development
e) it links parents with their offspring
110) CM Which of the following correspond to
trisomy X?
a) one Barr body
b) three Barr bodies
c) two 1 m Barr bodies
d) 0,5 m Barr body
e) absence of F body
117) CS Which of the following formula corresponds
to the anaphase of mitosis?
a) 2n=1c
b) 2n=4c
c) 4n=4c
d) 2n=2c
e) 4n=2c
111) CM Which of the following persons may contain
47 chromosomes and a single F body?
a) a man with XYY syndrome
b) a normal man
c) a man with Down syndrome
d) a woman with trisomy X
e) a man with Klinefelter syndrome
118) CS Which of the following formula corresponds
to the prophase of mitosis?
a) 2n=2c
b) 4n=4c
c) 2n=4c
d) 4n=2c
e) 2n=1c
112) CM Which of the following correspond to the
karyotype 46,Xi(Xp)?
a) one Barr body
b) two Barr bodies
c) a normal woman
d) a woman with Turner syndrome
e) a woman with partial trisomy
119) CS Which of the following is not a characteristic
of meiosis?
a) it contains a reductional division
b) it provides growth and development
c) it links parents with their offspring
d) it ensures the constant number of chromosomes in
generations of organisms
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e) it increases genetic variability
120) CS In which of the following stages of meiosis
does take place crossing-over?
a) anaphase I
b) prophase I
c) anaphase II
d) metaphase I
e) metaphase II
121) CS Bivalent is:
a) a pair of homologous chromosomes
b) a result of crossing over
c) a set of four chromosomes
d) a characteristic of mitosis
e) formed during prophase II
122) CS When does occur inter-chromosomal
recombination?
a) in anaphase II
b) in metaphase II
c) in prophase II
d) in prophase I
e) in anaphase I
123) CS When does occur intra-chromosomal
recombination?
a) in anaphase II
b) in anaphase I
c) in prophase I
d) in prophase II
e) in metaphase I
124) CS Which of the following errors leads to the
mosaic 46,Xi(Xp) / 46,Xi(Xq)?
a) non-disjunction of chromatids in X chromosome
b) anaphase lag in mitosis
c) transversal cleavage of centromere during first
zygotic division
d) anaphase lag in meiosis
e) transversal cleavage of centromere during
blastomere's division
125) CS Crossing-over takes place during:
a) anaphase I
b) prophase II
c) anaphase II
d) prophase I
e) telophase I
126) CS What zygotes will result after fertilization of
an normal gamete with a gamete produced after nondisjunction during meiosis I in father?
a) 45,X; 47,XXY
b) 45,X; 46,YY; 47, XYY
c) 45,X; 47,XXY; 47, XYY
d) 45,X; 46,XY; 47,XXX
e) 46,XY; 47,XXX; 47, XYY
127) CS What zygotes will result after fertilization of
an normal gamete with a gamete produced after nondisjunction during meiosis II in father?
a) 45,X; 46,XXX; 47,XYY
b) 45,X; 47,XXX; 47,XXY
c) 45,X; 47,XXX; 47,XYY
d) 45,X; 47,XXX; 46,XYY
e) 45,X; 47,XXY; 47,XYY
128) CM What zygotes will result after fertilization if
in both gametes a non-disjunction will occur during
meiosis II?
a) 47,XYY
b) 47,XXX
c) 48,XXXX
d) 48,XXYY
e) 48,XXXY
129) CM What zygotes will result after fertilization of
an normal gamete with a gamete produced after nondisjunction during meiosis I and meiosis II in mother?
a) 48,XXYY
b) 48,XXXY
c) 49,XXXXY
d) 49,XXXXX
e) 47,XXY
130) CS Which of the following errors leads to mosaic
46,Xi(Xp)/46,XX/46,Xi(Xq)?
a) transversal cleavage during second zygotic division
b) anaphase lag during mitosis
c) transversal cleavage during first zygotic division
d) non-disjunction of X chromosomes during mitosis
e) non-disjunction of X chromosomes during meiosis
131) CS Which of the following is not a characteristic
of meiosis?
a) meiosis assures variability
b) first prophase is the longest stage
c) both divisions consist of four stages: prophase,
metaphase, anaphase and telophase
d) distribution errors may occur in both divisions
e) consists of two divisions: the first equational and the
second - reductional
132) CS The mosaic 47/46/45 can be produced via:
a) anaphase lag during mitosis
b) nondisjunction during mitosis and meiosis II
c) nondisjunction during mitosis
d) nondisjunction during meiosis II
e) nondisjunction during meiosis I
133) CS New gene combinations are produced during:
a) telophase I and anaphase II
b) anaphase II
c) metaphase II
d) prophase I and prophase II
e) prophase I and anaphase I
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e) A2B
134) CS which of the following is not a characteristic
of mitosis?
a) resulted cells are diploid
b) result two cells
c) at first stage of mitosis the cell contains
monochromatidian chromosomes
d) may occur in testis
e) is an equational division
135) CM Choose the possible mechanisms of tetrasomy
48,XXYY:
a) non-disjunction of X chromosome during meiosis I
and II
b) gonosomal non-disjunction in ovogenesis and
spermatogenesis in meiosis I
c) double gonosomal non-disjunction in ovogenesis
d) gonosomal non-disjunction in spermatogenesis
during meiosis I and non-disjunction of Y chromosome
during meiosis II
e) non-disjunction in gametes during meiosis II
136) CM Gonosomal trisomies are viable because:
a) both gonosomes contain only genes involved in
sexual development
b) there are few genes in X chromosome
c) Y chromosome contains a few active genes
d) whole chromosomes may be inactivated
e) both gonosomes contain a small number of genes
137) CS In case of codominance in heterozygous:
a) both allele genes are manifested
b) only recessive gene is manifested
c) only dominant gene is manifested
d) two non-allele genes are manifested
e) a intermediate trait is formed
138) CS What of the following is an example of allele
interaction?
a) epistasis
b) gene complementarity
c) poligeny
d) complete dominance
e) pleiotropy
141) CS A woman has Hp1-1 and his brother is Hp2-2.
What genotypes may have parents?
a) Hp 1-1 / Hp 1-1
b) Hp 1-2 / Hp 1-2
c) Hp 1-2 / Hp 2-2
d) Hp 1-1 / Hp 1-2
e) Hp 2-2 / Hp 2-2
142) CS In which of the following combinations
couples cannot have children with A2 blood group?
a) A1 + B
b) A1B + B
c) A2B + O
d) A2 + A2B
e) A2B + A1
143) CS In which of the following combinations
couples may have children with O blood group?
a) A1+ B
b) B + A2B
c) A1B + O
d) A1B + A2B
e) A + A1B
144) CS In which of the following combinations
couples cannot have children with B blood group?
a) A1 + B
b) B + O
c) A2 + A2B
d) A2 + O
e) A2B + A1B
145) CS Mother has A1 blood group and her son has
A2. Which of the following cannot be father of child?
a) A1
b) A2B
c) A2
d) A1B
e) there are no true answers
139) CS What of the following is an example of nonallele interaction?
a) complete dominancy
b) pleiotropy
c) gene complementarity
d) incomplete dominancy
e) poliallelism
146) CS Which of the following is not a child of this
couple:
Mother: A1, MN, Rh+, Hp1-1, G
Father: A2B, N, Rh+, Hp1-2, g
Children:
a) A2B, MN, Rh-, Hp1-2, g
b) A1B, N, Rh+, Hp1-1, G
c) A2, MN, Rh+, Hp1-2, G
d) A1, N, Rh+, Hp1-1, g
e) B, N, Rh+, Hp2-2, G
140) CS Mother has A1 blood group and her son has
A2. Which of the following cannot be father of child?
a) A2
b) B
c) A1
d) A1B
147) CS Which of the following is not a child of this
couple:
Mother: A1, MN, G
Father: B, N, g
Children:
a) O, MN, G
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b) A2B, N, g
c) A2 , MN, G
d) A1B, M, g
e) A1, N, g
148) CS Which of the following can be father of
child:
Mother: A1, N, Rh+, g
Child: A1, MN, Rh+, G
Father:
a) A1, M, Rh-, g
b) O, M, Rh+, G
c) O, M, Rh+, g
d) A1, MN, Rh+, g
e) A2B, N, Rh+, G
149) CS Which of the following cannot be father of
child:
Mother: B, M , Rh+, Hp1-1
Child: A1B, MN, Rh-, Hp1-2
Father:
a) A1, N, Rh-, Hp 1-2
b) A1B, MN, Rh+, Hp 1-2
c) A1B, M, Rh+, Hp 2-2
d) A1, N, Rh-, Hp 2-2
e) A1, N, Rh+, Hp 1-2
150) CS Which of the following can be father of
child:
Mother: B, N, Rh+, Se, Hp1-1
Child: O, MN, Rh-, se, Hp1-2
Father:
a) B, N, Rh+, Se, Hp1-1
b) O, N, Rh+, Se, Hp1-2
c) A2, M, Rh-, se, Hp1-1
d) A1, M, Rh-, se, Hp2-2
e) A1B, MN, Rh+, Se, Hp2-2
151) CM Which of the following can be father of
child:
Mother: A1B, MN, Rh-, Hp 1-2
Child: B, N, Rh+, Hp 2-2
Father:
a) A1, N, Rh-, Hp 1-2
b) A1B, MN, Rh+, Hp 1-2
c) A1, N, Rh-, Hp 2-2
d) A1, N, Rh+, Hp 1-2
e) A1B, M, Rh+, Hp 2-2
152) CS Which of the following can be father of
child:
Mother: A1B, Rh+, M, Hp 1-2
Child: A1, Rh-, MN, Hp 2-2
Father:
a) A1, Rh+, MN, Hp 1-1
b) O, Rh-, MN, Hp 1-2
c) A2B, Rh-, M, Hp 1-2
d) A2, Rh+, N, Hp 2-2
e) B, Rh+, M, Hp 1-2
153) CM Allele genes:
a) may be present in many forms
b) determine the formation of different traits
c) have the same position in a homologous
chromosomes
d) determine the formation of one trait
e) segregate during meiosis in different gametes
154) CM. Which of the following are not a type of
non-allele interactions?
a) complementarity
b) epistasis
c) multiple allelism
d) pleiotropy
e) incomplete dominance
155) CM. Epistasis:
a) is a type of non-allele interaction
b) may be in two forms: dominant and recessive
c) one non-allele gene masks the expression of another
non-allele gene
d) Bombay's phenotype is a example of this interaction
e) one allele gene masks the expression of another
allele gene
156) CM. Genomic imprinting:
a) is a different expression of gene depending on of
parental origin
b) it appears in result of errors in meiosis
c) it has a monoallelic expression
d) is a functional gene modification
e) is a structural gene modification
157) CM. Penetrance:
a) it refers to dominant traits
b) it refers to severity of traits
c) it may be complete and incomplete
d) it is only complete
e) it represents the frequency of gene manifestation into
the heterozygous genotype
158) CM Genotype may be:
a) dominant
b) homozygous
c) recessive
d) hemizygous
e) heterozygous
159) CM. Phenocopy:
a) is the result of genomic imprinting;
b) is the result of locus heterogeneity
c) it appears on influence of environment factors
d) is a non-hereditary phenotypic modification
e) it mimics an abnormal hereditary trait in normal
phenotype
160) CM Mother has O blood group and her child A1. What groups may have father?
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a) A2
b) A1B
c) O
d) A2B
e) A1
161) CM Which of the following cannot be father of
child:
Mother: A1, M, Rh-, se
Child: B, MN, Rh-, se
Father:
a) A2, M, Rh+, Se
b) A1B, N, Rh-, Se
c) A1, M, Rh+, se
d) B, N, Rh+, Se
e) A2B, N, Rh-, se
162) CM Which of the following cannot be father of
child:
Mother: A1, M, Rh-, se
Child: B, MN, Rh+, se
Father:
a) A2, M, Rh+, Se
b) A1B, N, Rh-, Se
c) A1, M, Rh-, se
d) A2B, M, Rh-, se
e) B, N, Rh+, Se
163) CM Which of the following cannot be father of
child:
Mother: B, M, Rh+, Hp 1-1
Child: O, MN, Rh-, Hp 1-2
Father:
a) A1, N, Rh-, Hp 1-2
b) A1B, M , Rh+, Hp 2-2
c) A1, N, Rh-, Hp 2-2
d) A1B, MN, Rh+, Hp 1-2
e) A2B, N, Rh-, Hp 1-1
164) CM. Which of the following are human
monogenic traits?
a) height
b) skin colors
c) ABO blood typing system
d) Rh factor
e) tissue antigens (HLA)
165) CM Polygenic traits:
a) have a continuous distribution in human population
b) are determined by series of allelic genes
c) are determined by non-allelic genes form different
chromosomes
d) genes have a cumulative (additive) effect
e) are multifactorial
166) CM Which of the following are polygenic human
traits?
a) blood type system ABO
b) Rh-factor
c) eye color
d) arterial tension
e) weight
167) CM The melanin quantity in skin:
a) is a monogenic trait
b) is determined by allelic genes
c) is determined by 2 or more genes located in the same
chromosome
d) is determined by 2-6 non-allelic genes
e) is distributed continuously in human population
168) CM Which of the following are not polygenic
human traits?
a) blood type system ABO
b) Rh-factor
c) eye color
d) arterial tension
e) weight
169) CS Which of the following characterize multiple
action of gene?
a) panmixia
b) pleiotropy
c) polymorphism
d) polyallelism
e) polygeny
170) CS Which of the following is not a characteristic
of allele genes?
a) may be identical in homologous chromosomes
b) may interact with other genes
c) have a specific place in chromosome
d) always determine a single trait
e) a gene may contain multiple alleles
171) CS What is a characteristic of gene linkage?
a) usually is complete
b) takes place when genes are located on different
chromosomes
c) takes place when genes are located on the same
chromosomes
d) takes place between codominant genes
e) takes place only between dominant alleles
172) CS What is not a characteristic of chromosome
map?
a) one may contain genes from different chromosomes
b) closed genes are inherited together
c) unit of distance is centimorgan
d) the number of maps is the same as number of
linkage groups
e) represents location of genes in chromosome
173) CS Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
proposed by:
a) Hardy
b) T. Morgan
c) Weinberg
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d) N. Vavilov
e) G. Mendel
174) CM Which of the following correspond to
chromosomal theory of inheritance?
a) all the genes from a linkage group are inherited
separately
b) between homologous chromosomes crossing-over
may occur
c) genes from a linkage group are inherited together
d) genes located in one molecule of DNA represent a
linkage group
e) genes are located in chromosomes
175) CM Which of the following characterize both
ABO and HLA systems?
a) are determined by a pair of alleles
b) are 100% hereditary traits
c) have a multigenic determination
d) assure human genetic polymorphism
e) poliallelism
176) CM Monogenic traits have the following
characteristics:
a) always are 100% hereditary traits
b) mostly a determined by environment factors
c) are mendelian traits
d) are determined by allelic genes
e) are determined by expression of two alleles
177) CM Characteristics of Bombay phenotype:
a) the phenotype is similar to O blood group
b) always is associated with genotype Sese
c) represents an example of epistasy between Se and
ABO genes
d) absence of ABO antigens on surface of erythrocytes
e) presence of anti-A and anti-B in blood serum
178) CM Imprinting is characterized by:
a) only paternal allele is inactivated
b) both alleles are inactivated
c) uniparenatl disomy leads to abnormal development
d) is determined by gene inactivation during
gametogenesis
e) monoallelic gene expression
179) CM Monogenic traits have the following
characteristics:
a) may be 100% hereditary traits
b) may be determined by multiple alleles
c) are determined by non-allelic genes located in
homologous loci
d) are determined by allele genes located in different
loci
e) are mendelian
180) CM Which of the following are characteristics of
genomic imprinting?
a) imprinted allele depends on maternal or paternal
origin
b) is assured by methilation of some DNA sequences
c) monoallelic gene expression
d) selective inactivation of some genes
e) selective activation of some genes
181) CM Non-allele gene interactions are represented
by:
a) co-domination
b) gene complementarity
c) epistasy
d) intermediate dominancy
e) polyallelism
182) CM Characteristics of dominant alleles:
a) dominant alleles cannot produce diseases
b) is always expressed
c) expression is not depending on the second allele
d) are expressed only in presence of an identical allele
e) are expressed in both homo- and heterozygous
183) CM Genes:
a) may be allele or non-allele
b) always are present in pairs
c) may be homologous or non-homologous
d) may be dominant or recessive
e) determine traits
184) CM The genotype may be:
a) heterozygous
b) homozygous
c) recessive
d) hemizygous
e) dominant
185) CM Which of the following traits have polygenic
determinism?
a) secretor status
b) Rh blood group
c) height
d) blood pressure
e) skin color
186) CS Gene mutations may be:
a) numeric
b) only recessive
c) lethal
d) only somatic
e) phenotypic
187) CS Mutation cannot be:
a) chromosomal
b) gene
c) phenotypic
d) point
e) genomic
188) CS Which mutation can be inherited?
a) somatic spontaneous
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b) somatic induced
c) lethal
d) generative
e) all of them
189) CS Which of the following does not change the
quantity of genetic material?
a) duplication
b) deletion
c) substitution
d) trisomy
e) polyploidy
190) CS Which formula represents polyploidy?
a) 2n+2
b) 2n
c) 2n+1
d) 3n
e) 2n-1
191) CS Which of the following is not a structural
chromosomal aberration?
a) deletion
b) duplication
c) monosomy
d) translocation
e) inversion
192) CS Which of the following kariotype cannot be
in Turner syndrome?
a) 46,X,i(Xq)
b) 45,X
c) 47,XXX
d) 46,XX/45,X
e) 46,X,Xp193) CS Which of the following mutations cannot be
in newborns?
a) 47,XY,+1
b) 45,XO
c) 47,XYY
d) 45,XX,-21
e) 47,ХХХ
194) CS Which of the following is an equilibrated
chromosomal mutation?
a) 46,X,i(Yq)
b) 45,XY,rob(13;21)
c) 46,XX,9qd) 46,XX,16qh+
e) 47,XY,+18
195) CS Which of the following is a non-equilibrated
chromosomal mutation?
a) 45,XX,rob(21;21)
b) 46,XY,1qh+
c) 46,XY,inv(4)(q13q23)
d) 46,XY,t(2;8),(q13;q12)
e) 46,XX,r(5),(q15q35)
196) CS Which karyotype is associated with Edward's
syndrome?
a) 47, XY,+21
b) 47, XXY
c) 47, XX,+13
d) 47, XY,+18
e) 45,XX, rob(13;21)
197) CS Which karyotype is associated with Patau
syndrome?
a) 47, XX,+18
b) 47, XYY
c) 47, XY,+13
d) 46, XX, 5pe) 47, XXX
198) CS Which of the following rearrangements is
not a mutation?
a) combinative
b) chromosomal
c) gene
d) genomic
e) somatic
199) CS Which of the following karyotypes does
correspond to the Kleinfelter syndrome?
a) 47,XXY
b) 47, XYY
c) 46, XXY
d) 47, XXX
e) 45,X
200) CS Which of the following is viable monosomy
in human?
a) monosomy 13
b) monosomy 21
c) monosomy X
d) monosomy Y
e) monosomy 3
201) CS Which of the following karyotypes does
correspond to the Turner syndrome?
a) 47,XXY
b) 47, XYY
c) 46, XXY
d) 47, XXX
e) 45,X
202) CS A man with Klinefelter syndrome has
genotype Xg(a+). His mother is Xg(a-) and his father is
Xg(a+). Determine, when and where did occur
gonosome non-disjunction in meiosis:
a) non-disjunction in meiosis I, paternal
b) non-disjunction in meiosis II, paternal
c) non-disjunction in meiosis I, maternal
d) non-disjunction in meiosis II, maternal
e) post-zygotic non-disjunction
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203) CS Choose the most frequent clinical trait in case
of Klinefelter syndrome:
a) high stature
b) gynecomasty
c) poor beard growth;
d) testicular atrophy
e) mental retardation
204) CM Mutations may be:
a) hypermorphic
b) hypomorphic
c) gene
d) amorphic
e) only somatic
205) CM Which of the following are gene mutations?
a) translocation
b) substitution
c) monosomy
d) insertion
e) transversion
206) CM Substitution in one gene may induce:
a) missens mutation
b) nonsense mutation
c) frame-shift mutation
d) deletion
e) amesens mutation
207) CM Which of the following mutations may be
found in newborns?
a) 92, XXXX
b) 45, XY,-12
c) 47, XY,+8
d) 46, X, (Xq-)
e) 45, X
208) CM Which of the following are non-equilibrated
chromosomal errors?
a) 46,XY, r(10)(p15q22)
b) 45,XX, rob(14;21)
c) 46,XY, inv(9)(p14q23)
d) 46,X,i(X)
e) 46,XX,del(4)(P15pter)
209) CM Which of the following errors are lethal?
a) 69,XXX
b) 45,Y
c) 45,XY,-2
d) 46,XX, 9qh+
e) 47,XXY
210) CM Gene mutations may be:
a) X-linked
b) dominant
c) induced
d) phenotypic
e) dynamic
211) CM Gene mutations may be:
a) induced
b) spontaneous
c) equilibrated
d) non-equilibrated
e) somatic
212) CM Spontaneous mutations:
a) appear under influence of physical, chemical and
biological factors
b) may be errors during replication
c) may determine the lethal genes appearance
d) have a constant frequency
e) aren't predictable
213) CM Substitutions:
a) modify only one amino acid
b) modify the group of amino acids
c) may annul another mutation
d) may block synthesis of one polypeptide chain
e) may modify structure of promoter, exons, introns or
termination sequences
214) CM Dynamic mutations:
a) are characterized by instability
b) depend on the cell division
c) depend on the trinucleotide repeats number
d) determine differences in phenotypic manifestation in
parents and offspring
e) occur only during oogenesis
215) CM Gene mutations:
a) modify the structure and functions of gene
b) may be in introns
c) may be only in exons
d) change the reading frame
e) mutant protein is always inactive
216) CM Phenotypic variability:
a) modifications of traits in reaction norm limits
b) modifications of traits out the limits of reaction norm
c) has an adaptive role
d) may be produced only during the prenatal period of
development
e) appears during entire life
217) CS Which from the following may lead to
structural gene transcription block?
a) non-sense mutation
b) deletion of one codon
c) frame-shift mutation
d) deletion in TATA box
e) deletion of one exon
218) CM Which of the following characterize Turner
syndrome?
a) short stature
b) primary amenorhea
c) neck of sphinx
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d) testicular atrophy
e) mental retardation
219) CM Man with Kleinfelter syndrome has
genotype Xg(a+). His mother is Xg(a+) and his father
is Xg(a-). Determine, when and where did occur
gonosome non-disjunction in meiosis:
a) non-disjunction in meiosis I, paternal
b) non-disjunction in meiosis II, paternal
c) non-disjunction in meiosis I, maternal
d) non-disjunction in meiosis II, maternal
e) post-zygotic non-disjunction
220) CM Choose the clinical trait in case of Patau
syndrome:
a) reduced fertility
b) high stature
c) non-development of eyes
d) neck of sphinx
e) polydactily
221) CM Which of the following does occur in newborn with Edward's syndrome?
a) high stature
b) short fingers
c) non-development of eyes
d) microcephaly
e) big low-set ears
222) CM Which of the following are viable genome
mutation in human?
a) triploidy
b) monosomy 21
c) monosomy X
d) trisomy X
e) trisomy 21
223) CS Which of the following is not a gene
mutation?
a) lethal
b) dynamic
c) aneuploidy
d) amorphic
e) isomorphic
224) CS Which of the following is not a characteristic
of gene mutations?
a) may be aneupoidy
b) may be produced in promoter
c) may appear as result of non-equal crossing-over
d) the sequence of nucleotides is changed
e) may be point
225) CS Which of the following is not a characteristic
of modifications?
a) modifications have adaptive role
b) changes are produced in genetic material
c) changes are determined by norm of reaction
d) changes induced by environment factors
e) changes in phenotype
226) CS Which mutation may be inherited?
a) mutations cannot be inherited
b) lethal
c) generative
d) somatic induce
e) spontaneous somatic
227) CS Which of the following is not a characteristic
of human chromosomal mutations?
a) usually have an adaptive role
b) appear in somatic cells
c) are induced by mutagens
d) may be structural
e) may be numeric
228) CS Which mutation does not exist?
a) phenotypic
b) somatic
c) that are inherited
d) recessive
e) lethal
229) CS Structural chromosomal mutations do not
include:
a) duplication
b) monosomy
c) deletion
d) translocation
e) inversion
230) CS Frame-shift mutations are produced by:
a) insertion of two nucleotides
b) duplication of three nucleotides
c) substitution
d) inversion
e) loss of six consecutive nucleotides
231) CS Splicing mutations are caused by:
a) mutation at 3' end of gene
b) mutation is leader sequence
c) mutations at limit between exon and intron
d) mutations in exon
e) mutations in promoter
232) CS which of the following may stop
transcription?
a) deletion of leader sequence
b) deletion of TATA-box
c) frame-shift mutation
d) deletion of a codon
e) nonsense mutation
233) CS What mutation may provoke loss of one
amino acid?
a) three nucleotide expansion
b) deletion of three adjacent nucleotides
c) insertion of one codon
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d) deletion of one nucleotide
e) substitution
234) CS Polyploidy represents:
a) a modification
b) a structural chromosomal mutation
c) a genomic mutation
d) an example of combinative variability
e) a gene mutation
242) CM Which of the following are examples of
modifications?
a) albinism
b) polydactylism
c) development of music talent
d) skin color changes under UV light
e) the concentration of hemoglobin increases at low
concentrations of oxygen in atmosphere
235) CM Somatic mutations:
a) may change cell activity
b) may induce a tumor
c) may induce apoptosis
d) are not inherited
e) are inherited
243) CM Hereditary variations:
a) represent the main sours of variations for selection
b) change only phenotype
c) represent the result of mutations and recombination
d) are inherited through generations
e) are determined by changes in genetic apparatus
236) CM Variability:
a) assure selection
b) may have an adaptive role
c) may be determined by independent segregation of
chromosomes in meiosis
d) represent the propriety to obtain new traits
e) is determined by exact replication of DNA
244) CM Norm of reaction:
a) determines the range of recombination
b) determines the range of mutations
c) determines the range of modifications
d) is genetically determined
e) represents changes of genetic apparatus under
environment
237) CM Mechanisms of gene mutations are:
a) error during replication
b) inversion of a sequence of nucleotide
c) deletion of a chromosomal arm
d) substitution of nucleotides
e) deletion or addition of nucleotides
245) CM Individuality of each person is determined
by:
a) recombination during gametogenesis in both parents
b) mutations that appear during the life
c) exact replication of DNA during gametogenesis
d) conditions of realization of genetic information
e) new gene combination in zygote
238) CM Characteristics of gene mutations:
a) assure formation of multiple alleles
b) may produce chromosomal mutations
c) appear under action of mutagens
d) may be numeric
e) may produce metabolic diseases
239) CM Characteristics of point mutations:
a) may produce a shorter polypeptide
b) may produce a synonym codon
c) may be seen under microscope
d) may produce a STOP codon
e) change only phenotype
240) CM Substitution of one nucleotide induces:
a) changes at level of one amino acid only
b) a frame-shift mutation
c) a missense mutation
d) formation of a synonym codon
e) formation of a nonsense codon
241) CM Characteristics of phenotypic variability:
a) changes may occur in promoter
b) new traits are inherited
c) phenocopy is an example
d) ontogenetic changes
e) changes in limits of norm of reaction
246) CM Variability:
a) always is determined by changes in genetic material
b) explains family traits
c) assures adaptation in new conditions
d) is represented by different traits expressed in
different members of a population
e) represents the universal propriety of organisms to
obtain new traits
247) CM Genomic mutations may be:
a) point
b) equilibrated
c) generative
d) autosomal
e) somatic
248) CS Which type of inheritance is characterized by
expressivity and penetrance?
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) gonosomal dominant
d) gonosomal recessive
e) codominant
249) CS Which of the following criteria do not
characterize dominant inheritance?
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a) high frequency in the family
b) expression in each generation
c) if both parents are healthy they can have affected
children
d) if both parents are affected they can have healthy
children
e) if both parents are healthy they can have healthy
children
250) CS Which of the flowing represents a criterion for
recognition of gonosomal recessive inheritance?
a) the continuity of the inheritance in each generation
b) if both parents are affected, they may have healthy
children
c) an affected father may have both affected and
healthy sons
d) healthy mother always has healthy sons
e) if both parents are healthy, only sons can be affected
251) CS In which type of inheritance the frequency of
affected children significantly increases in case of
consanguineous marriages?
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) gonosomal dominant
d) gonosomal recessive
e) cytoplasmatic (mitochondrial)
252) CS Which of the following represents a criterion
of recognition for gonosomal dominant diseases?
a) affected father may have affected and healthy
daughters
b) affected father always have affected daughters
c) affected father have affected sons
d) affected parents may have healthy children: both
boys and girls
e) two healthy parents may have affected children
253) CS Which of the following represents a criterion
of recognition for recessive diseases?
a) high frequency in the family
b) the continuity of the inheritance
c) affected parents may have healthy children
d) two healthy parents may have affected children
e) affected father always has affected daughters
254) CS Which of the following represents a criterion
of recognition for dominant diseases?
a) low frequency in the family
b) affected persons are not present in each generation
c) affected parents have always affected children
d) two healthy parents may have affected children
e) high frequency in the family
255) CS Which of the following affirmations
concerning abnormal monofactorial traits is wrong?
a) they represent results of mutations in gene
b) the phenotype depends on a single gene
c) the phenotype depends on many genetic and
environment factors
d) they are pure hereditary traits
e) are inherited according to Mendel lows
256) CS Which of the following affirmations
concerning criteria for autosomal dominant inheritance
is wrong?
a) continuity in inheritance from one generation to
another one
b) high frequency in the family
c) two healthy parents may have affected children
d) two affected parents may have healthy children
e) the frequency of affected children is not influenced if
parents are relatives
257) CS Multifactoiral diseases:
a) have a monogenic determination
b) are independent on environment factors
c) have a discontinuous distribution
d) are produced by a mutation in a single gene
e) are produced by mutations in a different non-allelic
genes
258) CS Genealogical inheritance of abnormal
monogenic traits:
a) is produced according to Mendel lows
b) is produced through somatic cells
c) is produced exclusively by autosomal genes
d) is produced exclusively by X-linked genes
e) depends on environment factors
259) CS Which of the following affirmations
concerning criteria for X-dominant inheritance is
wrong?
a) two affected parents may have healthy sons
b) disease may be inherited from father to son
c) if mother is healthy and father is affected only sons
will be healthy
d) heterozygous affected mother may have healthy
children
e) affected father affected has only affected daughters
and healthy sons
260) CM What of the following can be identified using
analyses of family trees?
a) type of inheritance
b) chromosomal abnormalities
c) polygenic diseases
d) congenital abnormalities
e) the type of chromosome involved in disease
261) CM Variations in phenotypic manifestation of the
autosomal dominant genes are determined by:
a) non-complete penetrance
b) chromosomal mutations
c) variable expressivity
d) mitochondrial mutations
e) dynamic mutations
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262) CM Select the traits determined by the human
genes with non-complete penetrance:
a) Rh factor
b) hemophilia
c) sindactilia
d) albinism
e) polydactilia
263) CM Penetrance:
a) represents the frequency of manifestation in
phenotype of an autosomal recessive gene
b) represents the frequency of manifestation of in
phenotype a X-linked gene
c) represents the frequency of manifestation of in
phenotype an autosomal dominant gene
d) may be complete and non-complete
e) is characterized by variable phenotypic manifestation
of the gene
264) CM Select correct affirmations concerning
consanguinity:
a) represents the marriage between two relatives
b) increases the risk for recessive diseases
c) increases the risk for dominant diseases
d) risk for disease increases in case of X-linked
dominant inheritance
e) risk for disease increases in case of autosomal
recessive inheritance
265) CM Monogeneic inheritance:
a) corresponds to Mendel pattern of inheritance
b) can be dominant or recessive
c) an example is skin color
d) may be multifactorial
e) characterizes some diseases
266) CM Select genetic diseases with gonosomal
recessive inheritance:
a) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b) hemophilia
c) albinism
d) phenylketonuria
e) Becker muscular dystrophy
267) CM Select genetic diseases with autosomal
recessive inheritance:
a) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
b) phenylketonuria
c) albinism
d) Becker muscular dystrophy
e) hemophilia
268) CM Select genetic diseases with autosomal
dominant inheritance:
a) achondroplasia
b) hemophilia
c) arahnodactilia
d) albinism
e) color blindness
269) CM Select wrong affirmations concerning
dominant inheritance:
a) low frequency in the family
b) high frequency of consanguine marriages
c) heterozygous persons are healthy
d) heterozygous persons are affected
e) two healthy parents may have affected children
270) CM Which of the following are criteria of
recognition for dominant diseases?
a) low frequency in the family
b) healthy parents have always healthy children
c) affected parents may have healthy children
d) affected parents have always affected children
e) the continuity of inheritance in the generation's
succession
271) CM Which of the following are criteria of
recognition for autosomal dominant diseases?
a) affected father may have just affected daughters
b) low frequency of disease in the family
c) affected father may have affected and healthy
daughters
d) two healthy parents may have affected children
e) two affected parents may have healthy children of
both genders
272) CM Which of the following are criteria of
recognition for autosomal recessive diseases?
a) affected mother has all the sons affected
b) two healthy parents may have affected children of
both genders
c) healthy parents have only healthy sons
d) the continuity of the disease's inheritance in the
generation's succession
e) an healthy father may have affected daughters and
sons
273) CM Which of the following are criteria of
recognition for recessive diseases?
a) affected parents may have healthy children
b) healthy mother may have affected and healthy sons
c) high frequency in the family
d) affected parents have all affected children
e) healthy parents may have affected children
274) CM In dominant inheritance an affected mother:
a) may have affected sons
b) may have healthy sons
c) may have affected daughters
d) may have healthy daughters
e) all the children should be affected
275) CM Which of the following are criteria of
recognition for X-recessive diseases?
a) all the sons of affected mother should be affected
b) all the daughters of affected mother should be
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affected
c) an affected mother cannot transmit the disease to her
daughters
d) healthy father has only healthy daughters
e) two healthy parents may have just affected sons
276) CM The recognition of the hereditary disease is
possible when the disease:
a) has a higher frequency in particular family than in
the population
b) has a higher frequency in consanguineous marriages
c) is present in all or almost members of the studied
family
d) is produced by somatic mutations
e) follow the mendelian inheritance
282) CS The disease determinate by mutation in one
gene is called:
a) congenital
b) monogenic
c) autosomal
d) dominant
e) recessive
283) CS What diseases are produced as a result of
interaction of genetic and environmental factors?
a) chromosomal diseases
b) multifactorial diseases
c) monogenic diseases
d) enzymopathies
e) X-linked diseases
277) CM Family tree analysis is used for:
a) identification if the trait is hereditary or
environmental
b) identification of distribution of genotypes in
population
c) identification of chromosomal aberrations
d) identification type of inheritance
e) prenatal diagnosis
284) CS In which type of inheritance the gene has
phenotypic expression only if two identical alleles are
present?
a) autosomal recessive
b) autosomal dominant
c) X-linked
d) multifactorial
e) Y-linked
278) CM Dominant traits are determinate by:
a) phenotypic expression of one allele in heterozygous
b) for phenotypic expression identical alleles are
required
c) homozygous and heterozygous persons have the
same traits
d) environment factors only
e) pairs of dominate non-allele genes
285) CS Diseases expressed in newborn are called:
a) congenital
b) monogenic
c) autosomal
d) dominant
e) recessive
279) CM Which from the following traits are
polygenic?
a) the stature
b) iris pigmentation
c) haptoglobins
d) MN blood system
e) physical abilities
280) CM Which of the following are criteria of
recognition for polygenic traits?
a) correspond to the mendelian pattern of inheritance
b) display a wide phenotypic variation
c) the diseases are more frequent in consanguineous
marriages
d) have a familial aggregation
e) are produced in males only
281) CM In which type of diseases environmental
factors have a high importance?
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) gonosomal
d) polygenic
e) multifactorial
286) CS In a family both parents are healthy and the
first child has phenilcetonuria (autosomal recessive
disease). What is the risk for disease for the next child?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 25%
d) 50%
e) 75%
287) CS In a family both parents are healthy the first
child has mucoviscidosis (autosomal recessive disease)
and the second child is healthy. What is the risk for
disease for the next child?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 25%
d) 0%
e) 50%
288) CS In a family the mother is a carrier of
Duchenne muscular dystrophy gene (X-liked disease),
and the father is healthy. What is the risk for disease for
the next child?
a) 5%
b) 10% for both sexes
c) 25% just for daughters
d) 0%
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e) 50% just for sons
e) Robertson's translocation
289) CS The frequency of what diseases will increase
if mother is older than 35?
a) multifactorial
b) X-recessive
c) autosomal recessive
d) autosomal dominant
e) chromosomal
296) CS The cause of monogenic hereditary diseases
can be?
a) structural chromosomal abnormalities
b) number chromosomal abnormalities
c) Robertson's translocation
d) gene's mutation
e) the influence of environment's factors
290) CS In a family mother has phenylketonuria
(autosomal recessive disease), and father is
homozygous by normal allele. What is the risk for
disease for the next child?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 25%
d) 0%
e) 50%
297) CS The cause chromosomal disease is:
a) gene mutation
b) somatic mutation
c) mitochondrial mutation
d) genome mutation
e) "frame shift" mutation
291) CS For what type of inheritance consanguinity
increases the risk for diseases?
a) multifactorial
b) autosomal recessive
c) autosomal dominant
d) cytoplasmic (mitochondrial)
e) X-dominant
292) CS Marfan syndrome is inherited as:
a) autosomal dominant
b) autosomal recessive
c) X-recessive
d) X-dominant
e) polygenic
293) CS In a family the father has Marfan syndrome
(autosomal dominant disease) and mother is healthy.
What is the risk for disease in this family?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 25%
d) 50%
e) 75%
294) CS In a family the mother is healthy (her parents
are healthy too), and the father has hemophilia (Xlinked recessive disease). What is the risk for disease in
this family?
a) 50% for daughters only
b) 50% for both genders
c) 25% for sons
d) 0% for both genders
e) 50% for sons only
295) CS Genic diseases are determinate by:
a) chromosomal deletion
b) increased number of chromosomes
c) a reciprocal translocation
d) a gene mutation
298) CS Which of the following cannot be used for
prenatal diagnosis?
a) ultrasonography
b) amniocentesis
c) dermatoglyphics analysis
d) phetoscopy
e) alpha fetoprotein
299) CS Which of the following measures is not
reported to the hereditary diseases prophylaxis?
a) identification of some recessive alleles' carriers
b) identification of some dominant alleles carriers
c) identification of poised (equilibrated) translocation's
carriers
d) reduction of the parent's age of reproduction
e) avoidance of consanguineous marriages
300) CM Which of the following are the characteristics
of dominant genes?
a) powerful genes
b) weak genes
c) express in homozygotes and heterozygotes
d) express in homozygotes only
e) may be only normal
301) CM Which of the following are the characteristics
of recessive genes?
a) powerful genes
b) weak genes
c) express in homozygotes and heterozygotes
d) express in homozygotes only
e) may be only abnormal
302) CM Choose the types of allele interactions:
a) dominancy
b) epistasis
c) codominancy
d) additive polygeny
e) multiple alleles
303) CM Choose the types of non-allele interactions:
a) codominancy
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b) epistasis
c) gene complementarity
d) additive polygeny
e) multiple alleles
b) 47,XY,+21
c) 45,XX,rob (21;21)
d) 46,XX/47,XX,+21
e) 46,XY/47,XY,+21
304) CS Which of the following is not a characteristic
of genetic disorders?
a) inheritance
b) familial aggregation
c) prenatal determination
d) congenital manifestation
e) always is present in newborn
311) CS Phenocopy is an example of:
a) recombination
b) mutation
c) modification
d) ontogenetic variability
e) translocation
305) CS Roberts's translocation:
a) is the most common translocation found in man
b) represents the fusion of short arms of metacentric
chromosomes
c) represents the fusion of long arms of submetacentric
chromosomes
d) represents the fusion of short arms of acrocentric
chromosomes
e) represents the fusion of long arms of acrocentric
chromosomes
306) CM Which of the following lead to partial
trisomy?
a) duplication
b) isochromosome
c) deletion
d) inversion
e) translocation
307) CM Which of the following is the partial
monosomy?
a) duplication
b) isochromosome
c) deletion
d) inversion
e) translocation
308) CS Which of the following karyotypes doesn't
refer to Turner syndrome?
a) 45,X
b) 45,X/46,XX
c) 46,XXq+
d) 46,XXqe) 46,XXp-
312) CS Genocopy is an example of:
a) recombination of allele genes
b) mutation of non-allele genes
c) mutation of allele genes
d) ontogenetic variability
e) modification
313) CM Genetic disorders may be:
a) ecological
b) monogenic
c) polygenic
d) multifactorial
e) chromosomal
314) CS Which of the following is not a chromosome
disease?
a) Patay syndrome
b) Marfan syndrome
c) Down syndrome
d) Edward's syndrome
e) Turner syndrome
315) CS Which of the following is a monogenic
disease?
a) Patay syndrome
b) Marfan syndrome
c) Down syndrome
d) Edward's syndrome
e) Turner syndrome
316) CM Chromosome diseases may be:
a) numerical
b) multifactorial
c) monofactorial
d) structural
e) gonosomal
309) CS Which of the following karyotypes doesn't
refer to Klinefelter syndrome?
a) 47,XXY
b) 47,XYY
c) 48,XXXY
d) 48,XXYY
e) 49,XXXXY
317) CM Gene diseases may be:
a) numerical
b) multifactorial
c) monofactorial
d) structural
e) gonosomal
310) CS Which of the following karyotypes doesn't
refer to Down syndrome?
a) 47,XX,+21
318) CM Choose from the following the indications
for karyotyping:
a) mental retardation
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b) hemolytic disease of new born
c) ambiguous genitalia
d) sterility
e) multiple malformation of newborn
319) CM Multifactorial diseases:
a) are produced just by multiple abnormal genes
b) usually are common disorders
c) may be present as isolated malformation
d) produced by genes and environmental agents
e) don't depend on environmental factors
320) CS Which of the following is not a characteristic
of congenital anomalies?
a) are produced after birth
b) are produced during embryogenesis
c) may be isolated or multiple
d) may appear as result of phenocopy
e) are produced by genetic or environmental factors
321) CM Mitochondrial diseases:
a) are produced by mutations in nuclear DNA
b) are produced by mutations in mtDNA
c) have paternal inheritance
d) have maternal inheritance
e) are present only in woman
322) CM Primary prophylaxis refers to the:
a) early identification of genetic disorder
b) later identification of genetic disorder
c) prenatal identification of genetic disorder
d) avoiding of the production of genetic disorders
e) treatment of genetic disorder
323) CS Secondary prophylaxis refers to the:
a) early identification of genetic disorder
b) later identification of genetic disorder
c) prenatal identification of genetic disorder
d) avoiding of the production of genetic disorders
e) treatment of genetic disorder
324) CM Primary prophylaxis could be achieved by
the following actions:
a) prevention of mutation
b) reduction of reproductive age under 30 years in
women
c) reduction of reproductive age under 50 years in men
d) heterozygote identification
e) homozygote identification
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